Expected Value at the end of an equal probability game [closed]











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Suppose we play a game where we start with $c$ dollars at each play you either double or halve your money, what is your expected fortune after $n$ trials?



My line of thinking went along the way that this is a Binomial distribution so my expected fortune will be $n/2$ at the end of the game. I couldn't verify this solution but I have a feeling that it might be wrong



ref: All of statistics by L.Wasserman



Update : Assume we start with c amount of dollars then after one game the expected amount of dollars we have is 5/4c , if we sum over a series of game we end up with n*(5/4)*c.










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closed as off-topic by amWhy, Chinnapparaj R, KReiser, user10354138, Rebellos Nov 23 at 9:39


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, Chinnapparaj R, KReiser, user10354138, Rebellos

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

















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    down vote

    favorite












    Suppose we play a game where we start with $c$ dollars at each play you either double or halve your money, what is your expected fortune after $n$ trials?



    My line of thinking went along the way that this is a Binomial distribution so my expected fortune will be $n/2$ at the end of the game. I couldn't verify this solution but I have a feeling that it might be wrong



    ref: All of statistics by L.Wasserman



    Update : Assume we start with c amount of dollars then after one game the expected amount of dollars we have is 5/4c , if we sum over a series of game we end up with n*(5/4)*c.










    share|cite|improve this question















    closed as off-topic by amWhy, Chinnapparaj R, KReiser, user10354138, Rebellos Nov 23 at 9:39


    This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


    • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, Chinnapparaj R, KReiser, user10354138, Rebellos

    If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.















      up vote
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      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Suppose we play a game where we start with $c$ dollars at each play you either double or halve your money, what is your expected fortune after $n$ trials?



      My line of thinking went along the way that this is a Binomial distribution so my expected fortune will be $n/2$ at the end of the game. I couldn't verify this solution but I have a feeling that it might be wrong



      ref: All of statistics by L.Wasserman



      Update : Assume we start with c amount of dollars then after one game the expected amount of dollars we have is 5/4c , if we sum over a series of game we end up with n*(5/4)*c.










      share|cite|improve this question















      Suppose we play a game where we start with $c$ dollars at each play you either double or halve your money, what is your expected fortune after $n$ trials?



      My line of thinking went along the way that this is a Binomial distribution so my expected fortune will be $n/2$ at the end of the game. I couldn't verify this solution but I have a feeling that it might be wrong



      ref: All of statistics by L.Wasserman



      Update : Assume we start with c amount of dollars then after one game the expected amount of dollars we have is 5/4c , if we sum over a series of game we end up with n*(5/4)*c.







      probability expected-value






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      edited Nov 23 at 12:20

























      asked Nov 22 at 12:23









      rafi

      33




      33




      closed as off-topic by amWhy, Chinnapparaj R, KReiser, user10354138, Rebellos Nov 23 at 9:39


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, Chinnapparaj R, KReiser, user10354138, Rebellos

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




      closed as off-topic by amWhy, Chinnapparaj R, KReiser, user10354138, Rebellos Nov 23 at 9:39


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, Chinnapparaj R, KReiser, user10354138, Rebellos

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.






















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          Fortune after n-th trials : $X_n=2^{xi_n}2^{xi_{n-1}}ldots2^{xi_1}c$ where $xi_1,xi_2,ldotsxi_nstackrel{iid}{sim}Bernoulli(p)$ for $0<p<1$. So, $E(X_n)=E(2^{xi_n}2^{xi_{n-1}}ldots2^{xi_1}c)=E(2^{xi_n})E(2^{xi_{n-1}})ldots E(2^{xi_1})c=(E(2^{xi_1}))^nc=(2p+(1-p)/2)^nc.$ If $p=1/2$ then $E(X_n)=(5/4)^nc.$






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          • Oh I redid the same as you got the same result.
            – rafi
            Nov 22 at 13:38


















          1 Answer
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          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Fortune after n-th trials : $X_n=2^{xi_n}2^{xi_{n-1}}ldots2^{xi_1}c$ where $xi_1,xi_2,ldotsxi_nstackrel{iid}{sim}Bernoulli(p)$ for $0<p<1$. So, $E(X_n)=E(2^{xi_n}2^{xi_{n-1}}ldots2^{xi_1}c)=E(2^{xi_n})E(2^{xi_{n-1}})ldots E(2^{xi_1})c=(E(2^{xi_1}))^nc=(2p+(1-p)/2)^nc.$ If $p=1/2$ then $E(X_n)=(5/4)^nc.$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Oh I redid the same as you got the same result.
            – rafi
            Nov 22 at 13:38















          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Fortune after n-th trials : $X_n=2^{xi_n}2^{xi_{n-1}}ldots2^{xi_1}c$ where $xi_1,xi_2,ldotsxi_nstackrel{iid}{sim}Bernoulli(p)$ for $0<p<1$. So, $E(X_n)=E(2^{xi_n}2^{xi_{n-1}}ldots2^{xi_1}c)=E(2^{xi_n})E(2^{xi_{n-1}})ldots E(2^{xi_1})c=(E(2^{xi_1}))^nc=(2p+(1-p)/2)^nc.$ If $p=1/2$ then $E(X_n)=(5/4)^nc.$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Oh I redid the same as you got the same result.
            – rafi
            Nov 22 at 13:38













          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          Fortune after n-th trials : $X_n=2^{xi_n}2^{xi_{n-1}}ldots2^{xi_1}c$ where $xi_1,xi_2,ldotsxi_nstackrel{iid}{sim}Bernoulli(p)$ for $0<p<1$. So, $E(X_n)=E(2^{xi_n}2^{xi_{n-1}}ldots2^{xi_1}c)=E(2^{xi_n})E(2^{xi_{n-1}})ldots E(2^{xi_1})c=(E(2^{xi_1}))^nc=(2p+(1-p)/2)^nc.$ If $p=1/2$ then $E(X_n)=(5/4)^nc.$






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Fortune after n-th trials : $X_n=2^{xi_n}2^{xi_{n-1}}ldots2^{xi_1}c$ where $xi_1,xi_2,ldotsxi_nstackrel{iid}{sim}Bernoulli(p)$ for $0<p<1$. So, $E(X_n)=E(2^{xi_n}2^{xi_{n-1}}ldots2^{xi_1}c)=E(2^{xi_n})E(2^{xi_{n-1}})ldots E(2^{xi_1})c=(E(2^{xi_1}))^nc=(2p+(1-p)/2)^nc.$ If $p=1/2$ then $E(X_n)=(5/4)^nc.$







          share|cite|improve this answer












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          answered Nov 22 at 13:15









          John_Wick

          1,134111




          1,134111












          • Oh I redid the same as you got the same result.
            – rafi
            Nov 22 at 13:38


















          • Oh I redid the same as you got the same result.
            – rafi
            Nov 22 at 13:38
















          Oh I redid the same as you got the same result.
          – rafi
          Nov 22 at 13:38




          Oh I redid the same as you got the same result.
          – rafi
          Nov 22 at 13:38



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