Is $f(x)=x+sin x$ a homeomorphic function?
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0
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I want to determine $f(x) = x+sin x$ is homeomorphic or not on $mathbb{R}$?
A bijective continuous function is homeomorphic if its inverse is also continuous.
I know that $f$ is bijective. Also $f$ is continuous being the sum of two continuous functions.
How to look for the continuity of $f^{-1}$.
general-topology continuity inverse-function
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
I want to determine $f(x) = x+sin x$ is homeomorphic or not on $mathbb{R}$?
A bijective continuous function is homeomorphic if its inverse is also continuous.
I know that $f$ is bijective. Also $f$ is continuous being the sum of two continuous functions.
How to look for the continuity of $f^{-1}$.
general-topology continuity inverse-function
Which properties?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 22 at 18:32
continuity of both sides.
– Mittal G
Nov 22 at 18:34
1
The statement follows from the inverse function theorem.
– freakish
Nov 22 at 18:38
@ José Carlos Santos see the edited part.
– Mittal G
Nov 22 at 18:38
1
@freakish Not quite: the derivative vanishes at $x=(2k+1)pi$, $kinmathbb Z$.
– Federico
Nov 22 at 18:42
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
I want to determine $f(x) = x+sin x$ is homeomorphic or not on $mathbb{R}$?
A bijective continuous function is homeomorphic if its inverse is also continuous.
I know that $f$ is bijective. Also $f$ is continuous being the sum of two continuous functions.
How to look for the continuity of $f^{-1}$.
general-topology continuity inverse-function
I want to determine $f(x) = x+sin x$ is homeomorphic or not on $mathbb{R}$?
A bijective continuous function is homeomorphic if its inverse is also continuous.
I know that $f$ is bijective. Also $f$ is continuous being the sum of two continuous functions.
How to look for the continuity of $f^{-1}$.
general-topology continuity inverse-function
general-topology continuity inverse-function
edited Nov 22 at 18:44
egreg
176k1484198
176k1484198
asked Nov 22 at 18:26
Mittal G
1,182515
1,182515
Which properties?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 22 at 18:32
continuity of both sides.
– Mittal G
Nov 22 at 18:34
1
The statement follows from the inverse function theorem.
– freakish
Nov 22 at 18:38
@ José Carlos Santos see the edited part.
– Mittal G
Nov 22 at 18:38
1
@freakish Not quite: the derivative vanishes at $x=(2k+1)pi$, $kinmathbb Z$.
– Federico
Nov 22 at 18:42
add a comment |
Which properties?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 22 at 18:32
continuity of both sides.
– Mittal G
Nov 22 at 18:34
1
The statement follows from the inverse function theorem.
– freakish
Nov 22 at 18:38
@ José Carlos Santos see the edited part.
– Mittal G
Nov 22 at 18:38
1
@freakish Not quite: the derivative vanishes at $x=(2k+1)pi$, $kinmathbb Z$.
– Federico
Nov 22 at 18:42
Which properties?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 22 at 18:32
Which properties?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 22 at 18:32
continuity of both sides.
– Mittal G
Nov 22 at 18:34
continuity of both sides.
– Mittal G
Nov 22 at 18:34
1
1
The statement follows from the inverse function theorem.
– freakish
Nov 22 at 18:38
The statement follows from the inverse function theorem.
– freakish
Nov 22 at 18:38
@ José Carlos Santos see the edited part.
– Mittal G
Nov 22 at 18:38
@ José Carlos Santos see the edited part.
– Mittal G
Nov 22 at 18:38
1
1
@freakish Not quite: the derivative vanishes at $x=(2k+1)pi$, $kinmathbb Z$.
– Federico
Nov 22 at 18:42
@freakish Not quite: the derivative vanishes at $x=(2k+1)pi$, $kinmathbb Z$.
– Federico
Nov 22 at 18:42
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
The function $f$ is continuous and strictly increasing, because its derivative is $ge0$ and is positive on the intervals $(pi+2kpi,pi+2(k+1)pi)$.
This its inverse function exists and is strictly increasing as well and defined over $mathbb{R}$ because $f$ is neither upper nor lower bounded. In particular $f^{-1}$ has left and right limit at every point, because
$$
lim_{xto c^-}f^{-1}(x)=sup{f(x):x<c}
qquad
lim_{xto c^+}f^{-1}(x)=inf{f(x):x>c}
$$
Suppose that at some point $c$ the two limits are different, say
$$
lim_{xto c^-}f^{-1}(x)=sup{f(x):x<c}=a
qquad
lim_{xto c^+}f^{-1}(x)=inf{f(x):x>c}=b
$$
with $a<b$. Then $(a+b)/2$ doesn't belong to the codomain of $f^{-1}$, which is the domain of $f$. Contradiction.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Once you know that $f$ is strictly increasing, just use this.
If you want to know some regularity of $f^{-1}$, continue reading.
Let $N={(2k+1)pi:kinmathbb Z}$.
In $mathbb Rsetminus N$ you have $f'neq 0$, so $f$ is actually a diffeomorphism.
Now we have to investigate what happens near $N$. By translation, it is sufficient to examine what happens around $pi$. By Taylor expansion, we have that for $epsilon>0$ small enough
$$
|f(x)-f(pi)| = |x+sin(x)-pi| geq left|frac{(x-pi)^3}{12}right|
qquad forall xin(pi-epsilon,pi+epsilon)
$$
so the inverse $f^{-1}$ is $tfrac13$-Holder near $pi$.
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
The function $f$ is continuous and strictly increasing, because its derivative is $ge0$ and is positive on the intervals $(pi+2kpi,pi+2(k+1)pi)$.
This its inverse function exists and is strictly increasing as well and defined over $mathbb{R}$ because $f$ is neither upper nor lower bounded. In particular $f^{-1}$ has left and right limit at every point, because
$$
lim_{xto c^-}f^{-1}(x)=sup{f(x):x<c}
qquad
lim_{xto c^+}f^{-1}(x)=inf{f(x):x>c}
$$
Suppose that at some point $c$ the two limits are different, say
$$
lim_{xto c^-}f^{-1}(x)=sup{f(x):x<c}=a
qquad
lim_{xto c^+}f^{-1}(x)=inf{f(x):x>c}=b
$$
with $a<b$. Then $(a+b)/2$ doesn't belong to the codomain of $f^{-1}$, which is the domain of $f$. Contradiction.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
The function $f$ is continuous and strictly increasing, because its derivative is $ge0$ and is positive on the intervals $(pi+2kpi,pi+2(k+1)pi)$.
This its inverse function exists and is strictly increasing as well and defined over $mathbb{R}$ because $f$ is neither upper nor lower bounded. In particular $f^{-1}$ has left and right limit at every point, because
$$
lim_{xto c^-}f^{-1}(x)=sup{f(x):x<c}
qquad
lim_{xto c^+}f^{-1}(x)=inf{f(x):x>c}
$$
Suppose that at some point $c$ the two limits are different, say
$$
lim_{xto c^-}f^{-1}(x)=sup{f(x):x<c}=a
qquad
lim_{xto c^+}f^{-1}(x)=inf{f(x):x>c}=b
$$
with $a<b$. Then $(a+b)/2$ doesn't belong to the codomain of $f^{-1}$, which is the domain of $f$. Contradiction.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
The function $f$ is continuous and strictly increasing, because its derivative is $ge0$ and is positive on the intervals $(pi+2kpi,pi+2(k+1)pi)$.
This its inverse function exists and is strictly increasing as well and defined over $mathbb{R}$ because $f$ is neither upper nor lower bounded. In particular $f^{-1}$ has left and right limit at every point, because
$$
lim_{xto c^-}f^{-1}(x)=sup{f(x):x<c}
qquad
lim_{xto c^+}f^{-1}(x)=inf{f(x):x>c}
$$
Suppose that at some point $c$ the two limits are different, say
$$
lim_{xto c^-}f^{-1}(x)=sup{f(x):x<c}=a
qquad
lim_{xto c^+}f^{-1}(x)=inf{f(x):x>c}=b
$$
with $a<b$. Then $(a+b)/2$ doesn't belong to the codomain of $f^{-1}$, which is the domain of $f$. Contradiction.
The function $f$ is continuous and strictly increasing, because its derivative is $ge0$ and is positive on the intervals $(pi+2kpi,pi+2(k+1)pi)$.
This its inverse function exists and is strictly increasing as well and defined over $mathbb{R}$ because $f$ is neither upper nor lower bounded. In particular $f^{-1}$ has left and right limit at every point, because
$$
lim_{xto c^-}f^{-1}(x)=sup{f(x):x<c}
qquad
lim_{xto c^+}f^{-1}(x)=inf{f(x):x>c}
$$
Suppose that at some point $c$ the two limits are different, say
$$
lim_{xto c^-}f^{-1}(x)=sup{f(x):x<c}=a
qquad
lim_{xto c^+}f^{-1}(x)=inf{f(x):x>c}=b
$$
with $a<b$. Then $(a+b)/2$ doesn't belong to the codomain of $f^{-1}$, which is the domain of $f$. Contradiction.
answered Nov 22 at 18:50
egreg
176k1484198
176k1484198
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Once you know that $f$ is strictly increasing, just use this.
If you want to know some regularity of $f^{-1}$, continue reading.
Let $N={(2k+1)pi:kinmathbb Z}$.
In $mathbb Rsetminus N$ you have $f'neq 0$, so $f$ is actually a diffeomorphism.
Now we have to investigate what happens near $N$. By translation, it is sufficient to examine what happens around $pi$. By Taylor expansion, we have that for $epsilon>0$ small enough
$$
|f(x)-f(pi)| = |x+sin(x)-pi| geq left|frac{(x-pi)^3}{12}right|
qquad forall xin(pi-epsilon,pi+epsilon)
$$
so the inverse $f^{-1}$ is $tfrac13$-Holder near $pi$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Once you know that $f$ is strictly increasing, just use this.
If you want to know some regularity of $f^{-1}$, continue reading.
Let $N={(2k+1)pi:kinmathbb Z}$.
In $mathbb Rsetminus N$ you have $f'neq 0$, so $f$ is actually a diffeomorphism.
Now we have to investigate what happens near $N$. By translation, it is sufficient to examine what happens around $pi$. By Taylor expansion, we have that for $epsilon>0$ small enough
$$
|f(x)-f(pi)| = |x+sin(x)-pi| geq left|frac{(x-pi)^3}{12}right|
qquad forall xin(pi-epsilon,pi+epsilon)
$$
so the inverse $f^{-1}$ is $tfrac13$-Holder near $pi$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Once you know that $f$ is strictly increasing, just use this.
If you want to know some regularity of $f^{-1}$, continue reading.
Let $N={(2k+1)pi:kinmathbb Z}$.
In $mathbb Rsetminus N$ you have $f'neq 0$, so $f$ is actually a diffeomorphism.
Now we have to investigate what happens near $N$. By translation, it is sufficient to examine what happens around $pi$. By Taylor expansion, we have that for $epsilon>0$ small enough
$$
|f(x)-f(pi)| = |x+sin(x)-pi| geq left|frac{(x-pi)^3}{12}right|
qquad forall xin(pi-epsilon,pi+epsilon)
$$
so the inverse $f^{-1}$ is $tfrac13$-Holder near $pi$.
Once you know that $f$ is strictly increasing, just use this.
If you want to know some regularity of $f^{-1}$, continue reading.
Let $N={(2k+1)pi:kinmathbb Z}$.
In $mathbb Rsetminus N$ you have $f'neq 0$, so $f$ is actually a diffeomorphism.
Now we have to investigate what happens near $N$. By translation, it is sufficient to examine what happens around $pi$. By Taylor expansion, we have that for $epsilon>0$ small enough
$$
|f(x)-f(pi)| = |x+sin(x)-pi| geq left|frac{(x-pi)^3}{12}right|
qquad forall xin(pi-epsilon,pi+epsilon)
$$
so the inverse $f^{-1}$ is $tfrac13$-Holder near $pi$.
answered Nov 22 at 18:53
Federico
4,238512
4,238512
add a comment |
add a comment |
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Which properties?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 22 at 18:32
continuity of both sides.
– Mittal G
Nov 22 at 18:34
1
The statement follows from the inverse function theorem.
– freakish
Nov 22 at 18:38
@ José Carlos Santos see the edited part.
– Mittal G
Nov 22 at 18:38
1
@freakish Not quite: the derivative vanishes at $x=(2k+1)pi$, $kinmathbb Z$.
– Federico
Nov 22 at 18:42