Uniform convergence and inequalities











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Assume that $f:,mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ is a continuous function. Assume also that exists a $M>0$ such that, for all $x in mathbb{R}$, we have $$left|fleft(xright)right|leq M.$$ Suppose that exists a sequence of function $f_n$ such that $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly. I want to prove that, for all $x in mathbb{R}$, we have $$left|f_{n}left(xright)right|leq M$$ for every sufficiently large $n$.



My attempt. Since $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly for all $epsilon>0$ exists a $N>0$ such that for all $x in mathbb{R}$ and $n geq N$ we have $$left|f_{n}left(xright)-fleft(xright)right|<epsilon.$$ So $$left|f_{n}left(xright)right|<left|fleft(xright)right|+left|f_{n}left(xright)-fleft(xright)right|$$ $$leq M + epsilon.$$ Is this proof correct? Thank you.










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    What if $ f equiv M$ and $f_n equiv M+1/n$ ?
    – nicomezi
    Nov 22 at 11:54















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Assume that $f:,mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ is a continuous function. Assume also that exists a $M>0$ such that, for all $x in mathbb{R}$, we have $$left|fleft(xright)right|leq M.$$ Suppose that exists a sequence of function $f_n$ such that $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly. I want to prove that, for all $x in mathbb{R}$, we have $$left|f_{n}left(xright)right|leq M$$ for every sufficiently large $n$.



My attempt. Since $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly for all $epsilon>0$ exists a $N>0$ such that for all $x in mathbb{R}$ and $n geq N$ we have $$left|f_{n}left(xright)-fleft(xright)right|<epsilon.$$ So $$left|f_{n}left(xright)right|<left|fleft(xright)right|+left|f_{n}left(xright)-fleft(xright)right|$$ $$leq M + epsilon.$$ Is this proof correct? Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    What if $ f equiv M$ and $f_n equiv M+1/n$ ?
    – nicomezi
    Nov 22 at 11:54













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Assume that $f:,mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ is a continuous function. Assume also that exists a $M>0$ such that, for all $x in mathbb{R}$, we have $$left|fleft(xright)right|leq M.$$ Suppose that exists a sequence of function $f_n$ such that $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly. I want to prove that, for all $x in mathbb{R}$, we have $$left|f_{n}left(xright)right|leq M$$ for every sufficiently large $n$.



My attempt. Since $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly for all $epsilon>0$ exists a $N>0$ such that for all $x in mathbb{R}$ and $n geq N$ we have $$left|f_{n}left(xright)-fleft(xright)right|<epsilon.$$ So $$left|f_{n}left(xright)right|<left|fleft(xright)right|+left|f_{n}left(xright)-fleft(xright)right|$$ $$leq M + epsilon.$$ Is this proof correct? Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question













Assume that $f:,mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ is a continuous function. Assume also that exists a $M>0$ such that, for all $x in mathbb{R}$, we have $$left|fleft(xright)right|leq M.$$ Suppose that exists a sequence of function $f_n$ such that $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly. I want to prove that, for all $x in mathbb{R}$, we have $$left|f_{n}left(xright)right|leq M$$ for every sufficiently large $n$.



My attempt. Since $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly for all $epsilon>0$ exists a $N>0$ such that for all $x in mathbb{R}$ and $n geq N$ we have $$left|f_{n}left(xright)-fleft(xright)right|<epsilon.$$ So $$left|f_{n}left(xright)right|<left|fleft(xright)right|+left|f_{n}left(xright)-fleft(xright)right|$$ $$leq M + epsilon.$$ Is this proof correct? Thank you.







calculus real-analysis proof-verification inequality uniform-convergence






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asked Nov 22 at 11:34









User

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986








  • 1




    What if $ f equiv M$ and $f_n equiv M+1/n$ ?
    – nicomezi
    Nov 22 at 11:54














  • 1




    What if $ f equiv M$ and $f_n equiv M+1/n$ ?
    – nicomezi
    Nov 22 at 11:54








1




1




What if $ f equiv M$ and $f_n equiv M+1/n$ ?
– nicomezi
Nov 22 at 11:54




What if $ f equiv M$ and $f_n equiv M+1/n$ ?
– nicomezi
Nov 22 at 11:54










1 Answer
1






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1
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Your considerations are correct, but they do not show that $|f_n(x)| le M$ for all $x$ and all sufficiently large $n.$



You can not prove, what you want to prove!



Exanple : $f(x)=frac{1}{1+x^2}$, then $max {|f(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1=f(0)$.



Now take $f_n(x):=f(x)+frac{1}{n}$. Then



$max {|f_n(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1+frac{1}{n}=f_n(0)$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Sir ,As in OP question he did not mentioned that M is lub something .It can large also .Why we can not choose M+1 so that his argument will worK @fred
    – Shubham
    Nov 22 at 14:56










  • yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
    – Fred
    Nov 22 at 15:39










  • yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
    – Fred
    Nov 22 at 15:40











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up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Your considerations are correct, but they do not show that $|f_n(x)| le M$ for all $x$ and all sufficiently large $n.$



You can not prove, what you want to prove!



Exanple : $f(x)=frac{1}{1+x^2}$, then $max {|f(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1=f(0)$.



Now take $f_n(x):=f(x)+frac{1}{n}$. Then



$max {|f_n(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1+frac{1}{n}=f_n(0)$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Sir ,As in OP question he did not mentioned that M is lub something .It can large also .Why we can not choose M+1 so that his argument will worK @fred
    – Shubham
    Nov 22 at 14:56










  • yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
    – Fred
    Nov 22 at 15:39










  • yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
    – Fred
    Nov 22 at 15:40















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Your considerations are correct, but they do not show that $|f_n(x)| le M$ for all $x$ and all sufficiently large $n.$



You can not prove, what you want to prove!



Exanple : $f(x)=frac{1}{1+x^2}$, then $max {|f(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1=f(0)$.



Now take $f_n(x):=f(x)+frac{1}{n}$. Then



$max {|f_n(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1+frac{1}{n}=f_n(0)$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Sir ,As in OP question he did not mentioned that M is lub something .It can large also .Why we can not choose M+1 so that his argument will worK @fred
    – Shubham
    Nov 22 at 14:56










  • yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
    – Fred
    Nov 22 at 15:39










  • yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
    – Fred
    Nov 22 at 15:40













up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






Your considerations are correct, but they do not show that $|f_n(x)| le M$ for all $x$ and all sufficiently large $n.$



You can not prove, what you want to prove!



Exanple : $f(x)=frac{1}{1+x^2}$, then $max {|f(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1=f(0)$.



Now take $f_n(x):=f(x)+frac{1}{n}$. Then



$max {|f_n(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1+frac{1}{n}=f_n(0)$.






share|cite|improve this answer












Your considerations are correct, but they do not show that $|f_n(x)| le M$ for all $x$ and all sufficiently large $n.$



You can not prove, what you want to prove!



Exanple : $f(x)=frac{1}{1+x^2}$, then $max {|f(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1=f(0)$.



Now take $f_n(x):=f(x)+frac{1}{n}$. Then



$max {|f_n(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1+frac{1}{n}=f_n(0)$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 22 at 12:03









Fred

43.6k1644




43.6k1644












  • Sir ,As in OP question he did not mentioned that M is lub something .It can large also .Why we can not choose M+1 so that his argument will worK @fred
    – Shubham
    Nov 22 at 14:56










  • yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
    – Fred
    Nov 22 at 15:39










  • yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
    – Fred
    Nov 22 at 15:40


















  • Sir ,As in OP question he did not mentioned that M is lub something .It can large also .Why we can not choose M+1 so that his argument will worK @fred
    – Shubham
    Nov 22 at 14:56










  • yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
    – Fred
    Nov 22 at 15:39










  • yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
    – Fred
    Nov 22 at 15:40
















Sir ,As in OP question he did not mentioned that M is lub something .It can large also .Why we can not choose M+1 so that his argument will worK @fred
– Shubham
Nov 22 at 14:56




Sir ,As in OP question he did not mentioned that M is lub something .It can large also .Why we can not choose M+1 so that his argument will worK @fred
– Shubham
Nov 22 at 14:56












yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
– Fred
Nov 22 at 15:39




yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
– Fred
Nov 22 at 15:39












yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
– Fred
Nov 22 at 15:40




yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
– Fred
Nov 22 at 15:40


















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