Uniform convergence and inequalities
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Assume that $f:,mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ is a continuous function. Assume also that exists a $M>0$ such that, for all $x in mathbb{R}$, we have $$left|fleft(xright)right|leq M.$$ Suppose that exists a sequence of function $f_n$ such that $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly. I want to prove that, for all $x in mathbb{R}$, we have $$left|f_{n}left(xright)right|leq M$$ for every sufficiently large $n$.
My attempt. Since $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly for all $epsilon>0$ exists a $N>0$ such that for all $x in mathbb{R}$ and $n geq N$ we have $$left|f_{n}left(xright)-fleft(xright)right|<epsilon.$$ So $$left|f_{n}left(xright)right|<left|fleft(xright)right|+left|f_{n}left(xright)-fleft(xright)right|$$ $$leq M + epsilon.$$ Is this proof correct? Thank you.
calculus real-analysis proof-verification inequality uniform-convergence
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Assume that $f:,mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ is a continuous function. Assume also that exists a $M>0$ such that, for all $x in mathbb{R}$, we have $$left|fleft(xright)right|leq M.$$ Suppose that exists a sequence of function $f_n$ such that $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly. I want to prove that, for all $x in mathbb{R}$, we have $$left|f_{n}left(xright)right|leq M$$ for every sufficiently large $n$.
My attempt. Since $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly for all $epsilon>0$ exists a $N>0$ such that for all $x in mathbb{R}$ and $n geq N$ we have $$left|f_{n}left(xright)-fleft(xright)right|<epsilon.$$ So $$left|f_{n}left(xright)right|<left|fleft(xright)right|+left|f_{n}left(xright)-fleft(xright)right|$$ $$leq M + epsilon.$$ Is this proof correct? Thank you.
calculus real-analysis proof-verification inequality uniform-convergence
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What if $ f equiv M$ and $f_n equiv M+1/n$ ?
– nicomezi
Nov 22 at 11:54
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up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Assume that $f:,mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ is a continuous function. Assume also that exists a $M>0$ such that, for all $x in mathbb{R}$, we have $$left|fleft(xright)right|leq M.$$ Suppose that exists a sequence of function $f_n$ such that $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly. I want to prove that, for all $x in mathbb{R}$, we have $$left|f_{n}left(xright)right|leq M$$ for every sufficiently large $n$.
My attempt. Since $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly for all $epsilon>0$ exists a $N>0$ such that for all $x in mathbb{R}$ and $n geq N$ we have $$left|f_{n}left(xright)-fleft(xright)right|<epsilon.$$ So $$left|f_{n}left(xright)right|<left|fleft(xright)right|+left|f_{n}left(xright)-fleft(xright)right|$$ $$leq M + epsilon.$$ Is this proof correct? Thank you.
calculus real-analysis proof-verification inequality uniform-convergence
Assume that $f:,mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ is a continuous function. Assume also that exists a $M>0$ such that, for all $x in mathbb{R}$, we have $$left|fleft(xright)right|leq M.$$ Suppose that exists a sequence of function $f_n$ such that $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly. I want to prove that, for all $x in mathbb{R}$, we have $$left|f_{n}left(xright)right|leq M$$ for every sufficiently large $n$.
My attempt. Since $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly for all $epsilon>0$ exists a $N>0$ such that for all $x in mathbb{R}$ and $n geq N$ we have $$left|f_{n}left(xright)-fleft(xright)right|<epsilon.$$ So $$left|f_{n}left(xright)right|<left|fleft(xright)right|+left|f_{n}left(xright)-fleft(xright)right|$$ $$leq M + epsilon.$$ Is this proof correct? Thank you.
calculus real-analysis proof-verification inequality uniform-convergence
calculus real-analysis proof-verification inequality uniform-convergence
asked Nov 22 at 11:34
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What if $ f equiv M$ and $f_n equiv M+1/n$ ?
– nicomezi
Nov 22 at 11:54
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1
What if $ f equiv M$ and $f_n equiv M+1/n$ ?
– nicomezi
Nov 22 at 11:54
1
1
What if $ f equiv M$ and $f_n equiv M+1/n$ ?
– nicomezi
Nov 22 at 11:54
What if $ f equiv M$ and $f_n equiv M+1/n$ ?
– nicomezi
Nov 22 at 11:54
add a comment |
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Your considerations are correct, but they do not show that $|f_n(x)| le M$ for all $x$ and all sufficiently large $n.$
You can not prove, what you want to prove!
Exanple : $f(x)=frac{1}{1+x^2}$, then $max {|f(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1=f(0)$.
Now take $f_n(x):=f(x)+frac{1}{n}$. Then
$max {|f_n(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1+frac{1}{n}=f_n(0)$.
Sir ,As in OP question he did not mentioned that M is lub something .It can large also .Why we can not choose M+1 so that his argument will worK @fred
– Shubham
Nov 22 at 14:56
yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
– Fred
Nov 22 at 15:39
yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
– Fred
Nov 22 at 15:40
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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Your considerations are correct, but they do not show that $|f_n(x)| le M$ for all $x$ and all sufficiently large $n.$
You can not prove, what you want to prove!
Exanple : $f(x)=frac{1}{1+x^2}$, then $max {|f(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1=f(0)$.
Now take $f_n(x):=f(x)+frac{1}{n}$. Then
$max {|f_n(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1+frac{1}{n}=f_n(0)$.
Sir ,As in OP question he did not mentioned that M is lub something .It can large also .Why we can not choose M+1 so that his argument will worK @fred
– Shubham
Nov 22 at 14:56
yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
– Fred
Nov 22 at 15:39
yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
– Fred
Nov 22 at 15:40
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Your considerations are correct, but they do not show that $|f_n(x)| le M$ for all $x$ and all sufficiently large $n.$
You can not prove, what you want to prove!
Exanple : $f(x)=frac{1}{1+x^2}$, then $max {|f(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1=f(0)$.
Now take $f_n(x):=f(x)+frac{1}{n}$. Then
$max {|f_n(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1+frac{1}{n}=f_n(0)$.
Sir ,As in OP question he did not mentioned that M is lub something .It can large also .Why we can not choose M+1 so that his argument will worK @fred
– Shubham
Nov 22 at 14:56
yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
– Fred
Nov 22 at 15:39
yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
– Fred
Nov 22 at 15:40
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Your considerations are correct, but they do not show that $|f_n(x)| le M$ for all $x$ and all sufficiently large $n.$
You can not prove, what you want to prove!
Exanple : $f(x)=frac{1}{1+x^2}$, then $max {|f(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1=f(0)$.
Now take $f_n(x):=f(x)+frac{1}{n}$. Then
$max {|f_n(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1+frac{1}{n}=f_n(0)$.
Your considerations are correct, but they do not show that $|f_n(x)| le M$ for all $x$ and all sufficiently large $n.$
You can not prove, what you want to prove!
Exanple : $f(x)=frac{1}{1+x^2}$, then $max {|f(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1=f(0)$.
Now take $f_n(x):=f(x)+frac{1}{n}$. Then
$max {|f_n(x)|: x in mathbb R}=1+frac{1}{n}=f_n(0)$.
answered Nov 22 at 12:03
Fred
43.6k1644
43.6k1644
Sir ,As in OP question he did not mentioned that M is lub something .It can large also .Why we can not choose M+1 so that his argument will worK @fred
– Shubham
Nov 22 at 14:56
yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
– Fred
Nov 22 at 15:39
yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
– Fred
Nov 22 at 15:40
add a comment |
Sir ,As in OP question he did not mentioned that M is lub something .It can large also .Why we can not choose M+1 so that his argument will worK @fred
– Shubham
Nov 22 at 14:56
yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
– Fred
Nov 22 at 15:39
yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
– Fred
Nov 22 at 15:40
Sir ,As in OP question he did not mentioned that M is lub something .It can large also .Why we can not choose M+1 so that his argument will worK @fred
– Shubham
Nov 22 at 14:56
Sir ,As in OP question he did not mentioned that M is lub something .It can large also .Why we can not choose M+1 so that his argument will worK @fred
– Shubham
Nov 22 at 14:56
yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
– Fred
Nov 22 at 15:39
yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
– Fred
Nov 22 at 15:39
yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
– Fred
Nov 22 at 15:40
yes the arguments work with $M+1$, but not with $M $.
– Fred
Nov 22 at 15:40
add a comment |
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1
What if $ f equiv M$ and $f_n equiv M+1/n$ ?
– nicomezi
Nov 22 at 11:54