Sigma-finite measure (countable sequence)












0














Let $(X,mathcal{A},mu)$ be a measure space, $g:X to mathbb{R}$ a $mu$-integrable map and $A=X$ $g^{-1}(0)$.



How to show that it exists a countable sequence $(A_i)_{i in mathbb{N}}$ of $mathcal{A}$ such that



$A=bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty} A_{i}$ and $mu(A_i)<infty, forall n in mathbb{N}$?



I got:



Since $Ainmathcal{A}Rightarrow (X$ $g^{-1}(0))^c in mathcal{A}$



So $X=A dotcup (X$ $g^{-1}(0))^c$



By finite additivity of measures: $mu(X)=mu(A)+mu(X$ $g^{-1}(0))^c$



By non-negativity: $mu(A)<infty$



I'm not sure if this works for $A_i$ and how to show that $(A_i)_{i in mathbb{N}}$ exists with $A=bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty} A_{i}$.










share|cite|improve this question



























    0














    Let $(X,mathcal{A},mu)$ be a measure space, $g:X to mathbb{R}$ a $mu$-integrable map and $A=X$ $g^{-1}(0)$.



    How to show that it exists a countable sequence $(A_i)_{i in mathbb{N}}$ of $mathcal{A}$ such that



    $A=bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty} A_{i}$ and $mu(A_i)<infty, forall n in mathbb{N}$?



    I got:



    Since $Ainmathcal{A}Rightarrow (X$ $g^{-1}(0))^c in mathcal{A}$



    So $X=A dotcup (X$ $g^{-1}(0))^c$



    By finite additivity of measures: $mu(X)=mu(A)+mu(X$ $g^{-1}(0))^c$



    By non-negativity: $mu(A)<infty$



    I'm not sure if this works for $A_i$ and how to show that $(A_i)_{i in mathbb{N}}$ exists with $A=bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty} A_{i}$.










    share|cite|improve this question

























      0












      0








      0







      Let $(X,mathcal{A},mu)$ be a measure space, $g:X to mathbb{R}$ a $mu$-integrable map and $A=X$ $g^{-1}(0)$.



      How to show that it exists a countable sequence $(A_i)_{i in mathbb{N}}$ of $mathcal{A}$ such that



      $A=bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty} A_{i}$ and $mu(A_i)<infty, forall n in mathbb{N}$?



      I got:



      Since $Ainmathcal{A}Rightarrow (X$ $g^{-1}(0))^c in mathcal{A}$



      So $X=A dotcup (X$ $g^{-1}(0))^c$



      By finite additivity of measures: $mu(X)=mu(A)+mu(X$ $g^{-1}(0))^c$



      By non-negativity: $mu(A)<infty$



      I'm not sure if this works for $A_i$ and how to show that $(A_i)_{i in mathbb{N}}$ exists with $A=bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty} A_{i}$.










      share|cite|improve this question













      Let $(X,mathcal{A},mu)$ be a measure space, $g:X to mathbb{R}$ a $mu$-integrable map and $A=X$ $g^{-1}(0)$.



      How to show that it exists a countable sequence $(A_i)_{i in mathbb{N}}$ of $mathcal{A}$ such that



      $A=bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty} A_{i}$ and $mu(A_i)<infty, forall n in mathbb{N}$?



      I got:



      Since $Ainmathcal{A}Rightarrow (X$ $g^{-1}(0))^c in mathcal{A}$



      So $X=A dotcup (X$ $g^{-1}(0))^c$



      By finite additivity of measures: $mu(X)=mu(A)+mu(X$ $g^{-1}(0))^c$



      By non-negativity: $mu(A)<infty$



      I'm not sure if this works for $A_i$ and how to show that $(A_i)_{i in mathbb{N}}$ exists with $A=bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty} A_{i}$.







      measure-theory






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      asked Nov 24 at 11:53









      Tartulop

      656




      656






















          2 Answers
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          active

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          1














          You can take $A_i={xin Xmid |g(x)|geqfrac1i}$.



          Observe that $mu(A_i)=intmathbf1_{A_i};dmuleqint imathbf|g|;dmuleq iintmathbf|g|;dmu<infty$.



          Also the $A_i$ are preimages of Borel sets wrt measurable $|g|$ so are elements of $mathcal A$.



          It is evident that $bigcup_{i=1}^{infty}A_i={xin Xmid g(x)neq0}=Xsetminus g^{-1}({0})=A$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Does ${A_i}$ cover $X$? I think $cup_{I=1}^{infty} A_i={x in X mid |g(x)|>0} neq X$.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:11












          • It is not demanded that they cover $X$, but that their union is $A$.
            – drhab
            Nov 24 at 12:13










          • Sorry. I understood.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:14



















          0














          The function $g$ here doesn't care so much: the space is $sigma$-finite, so there is a countable cover of measurable sets $(X_j)$ of $X$ such that $mu(X_j)<infty$ for each $jinBbb N$.



          Then the sequence defined by $X_jcap A$ cover $A$ and necessarily $mu(X_jcap A)lemu(X_j)$ because any measure is increasing, that is, if $Asubset B$ then $mu(A)lemu(B)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • No. $X$ is just a measure space.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:08










          • @sharpe it is the same.
            – Masacroso
            Nov 24 at 12:10










          • Probably, your argument is mistaken.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:22













          Your Answer





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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1














          You can take $A_i={xin Xmid |g(x)|geqfrac1i}$.



          Observe that $mu(A_i)=intmathbf1_{A_i};dmuleqint imathbf|g|;dmuleq iintmathbf|g|;dmu<infty$.



          Also the $A_i$ are preimages of Borel sets wrt measurable $|g|$ so are elements of $mathcal A$.



          It is evident that $bigcup_{i=1}^{infty}A_i={xin Xmid g(x)neq0}=Xsetminus g^{-1}({0})=A$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Does ${A_i}$ cover $X$? I think $cup_{I=1}^{infty} A_i={x in X mid |g(x)|>0} neq X$.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:11












          • It is not demanded that they cover $X$, but that their union is $A$.
            – drhab
            Nov 24 at 12:13










          • Sorry. I understood.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:14
















          1














          You can take $A_i={xin Xmid |g(x)|geqfrac1i}$.



          Observe that $mu(A_i)=intmathbf1_{A_i};dmuleqint imathbf|g|;dmuleq iintmathbf|g|;dmu<infty$.



          Also the $A_i$ are preimages of Borel sets wrt measurable $|g|$ so are elements of $mathcal A$.



          It is evident that $bigcup_{i=1}^{infty}A_i={xin Xmid g(x)neq0}=Xsetminus g^{-1}({0})=A$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Does ${A_i}$ cover $X$? I think $cup_{I=1}^{infty} A_i={x in X mid |g(x)|>0} neq X$.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:11












          • It is not demanded that they cover $X$, but that their union is $A$.
            – drhab
            Nov 24 at 12:13










          • Sorry. I understood.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:14














          1












          1








          1






          You can take $A_i={xin Xmid |g(x)|geqfrac1i}$.



          Observe that $mu(A_i)=intmathbf1_{A_i};dmuleqint imathbf|g|;dmuleq iintmathbf|g|;dmu<infty$.



          Also the $A_i$ are preimages of Borel sets wrt measurable $|g|$ so are elements of $mathcal A$.



          It is evident that $bigcup_{i=1}^{infty}A_i={xin Xmid g(x)neq0}=Xsetminus g^{-1}({0})=A$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          You can take $A_i={xin Xmid |g(x)|geqfrac1i}$.



          Observe that $mu(A_i)=intmathbf1_{A_i};dmuleqint imathbf|g|;dmuleq iintmathbf|g|;dmu<infty$.



          Also the $A_i$ are preimages of Borel sets wrt measurable $|g|$ so are elements of $mathcal A$.



          It is evident that $bigcup_{i=1}^{infty}A_i={xin Xmid g(x)neq0}=Xsetminus g^{-1}({0})=A$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 24 at 12:39

























          answered Nov 24 at 12:08









          drhab

          96.5k544127




          96.5k544127












          • Does ${A_i}$ cover $X$? I think $cup_{I=1}^{infty} A_i={x in X mid |g(x)|>0} neq X$.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:11












          • It is not demanded that they cover $X$, but that their union is $A$.
            – drhab
            Nov 24 at 12:13










          • Sorry. I understood.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:14


















          • Does ${A_i}$ cover $X$? I think $cup_{I=1}^{infty} A_i={x in X mid |g(x)|>0} neq X$.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:11












          • It is not demanded that they cover $X$, but that their union is $A$.
            – drhab
            Nov 24 at 12:13










          • Sorry. I understood.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:14
















          Does ${A_i}$ cover $X$? I think $cup_{I=1}^{infty} A_i={x in X mid |g(x)|>0} neq X$.
          – sharpe
          Nov 24 at 12:11






          Does ${A_i}$ cover $X$? I think $cup_{I=1}^{infty} A_i={x in X mid |g(x)|>0} neq X$.
          – sharpe
          Nov 24 at 12:11














          It is not demanded that they cover $X$, but that their union is $A$.
          – drhab
          Nov 24 at 12:13




          It is not demanded that they cover $X$, but that their union is $A$.
          – drhab
          Nov 24 at 12:13












          Sorry. I understood.
          – sharpe
          Nov 24 at 12:14




          Sorry. I understood.
          – sharpe
          Nov 24 at 12:14











          0














          The function $g$ here doesn't care so much: the space is $sigma$-finite, so there is a countable cover of measurable sets $(X_j)$ of $X$ such that $mu(X_j)<infty$ for each $jinBbb N$.



          Then the sequence defined by $X_jcap A$ cover $A$ and necessarily $mu(X_jcap A)lemu(X_j)$ because any measure is increasing, that is, if $Asubset B$ then $mu(A)lemu(B)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • No. $X$ is just a measure space.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:08










          • @sharpe it is the same.
            – Masacroso
            Nov 24 at 12:10










          • Probably, your argument is mistaken.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:22


















          0














          The function $g$ here doesn't care so much: the space is $sigma$-finite, so there is a countable cover of measurable sets $(X_j)$ of $X$ such that $mu(X_j)<infty$ for each $jinBbb N$.



          Then the sequence defined by $X_jcap A$ cover $A$ and necessarily $mu(X_jcap A)lemu(X_j)$ because any measure is increasing, that is, if $Asubset B$ then $mu(A)lemu(B)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • No. $X$ is just a measure space.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:08










          • @sharpe it is the same.
            – Masacroso
            Nov 24 at 12:10










          • Probably, your argument is mistaken.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:22
















          0












          0








          0






          The function $g$ here doesn't care so much: the space is $sigma$-finite, so there is a countable cover of measurable sets $(X_j)$ of $X$ such that $mu(X_j)<infty$ for each $jinBbb N$.



          Then the sequence defined by $X_jcap A$ cover $A$ and necessarily $mu(X_jcap A)lemu(X_j)$ because any measure is increasing, that is, if $Asubset B$ then $mu(A)lemu(B)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          The function $g$ here doesn't care so much: the space is $sigma$-finite, so there is a countable cover of measurable sets $(X_j)$ of $X$ such that $mu(X_j)<infty$ for each $jinBbb N$.



          Then the sequence defined by $X_jcap A$ cover $A$ and necessarily $mu(X_jcap A)lemu(X_j)$ because any measure is increasing, that is, if $Asubset B$ then $mu(A)lemu(B)$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 24 at 12:08

























          answered Nov 24 at 12:07









          Masacroso

          12.8k41746




          12.8k41746












          • No. $X$ is just a measure space.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:08










          • @sharpe it is the same.
            – Masacroso
            Nov 24 at 12:10










          • Probably, your argument is mistaken.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:22




















          • No. $X$ is just a measure space.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:08










          • @sharpe it is the same.
            – Masacroso
            Nov 24 at 12:10










          • Probably, your argument is mistaken.
            – sharpe
            Nov 24 at 12:22


















          No. $X$ is just a measure space.
          – sharpe
          Nov 24 at 12:08




          No. $X$ is just a measure space.
          – sharpe
          Nov 24 at 12:08












          @sharpe it is the same.
          – Masacroso
          Nov 24 at 12:10




          @sharpe it is the same.
          – Masacroso
          Nov 24 at 12:10












          Probably, your argument is mistaken.
          – sharpe
          Nov 24 at 12:22






          Probably, your argument is mistaken.
          – sharpe
          Nov 24 at 12:22




















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