If $f$ is a function that can be differentiated two times on $[a;b]$











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I asked this question before, but I quickly deleted it so that I can think about it more. the question was how can I show that:
$exists c in [a,b]$ such that $ f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}f''(c)$ knowing that $f$ is a function that can be differentiated two times on $[a,b]$



Here is what I did:



I used the mean value theorem on $f$ in the interval $]a;b[$ then I got:
$$exists c_0 in ]a;b[:f(b) - f(a) = f'(c_0)(b-a)$$
rearranging gives: (1)
$$exists c_0 in ]a;b[:f'(c_0) = frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}$$
Then I used the theorem on $f'$ but in the interval $]a;c_0[$ which gives me
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f'(c_0) - f'(a) = f''(c)(c_0-a)$$
by replacing $f'(c_0)$ in the last equation with (1) and multiplying by $(b-a)$ I got
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)=f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$ and rearranging this gets me really close to what I am supposed to get:
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$
and because $]a;c_0[ subset]a;b[$ I can write : $$exists c in ]a;b[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$



If only that $(c_0-a)$ was $frac{(b-a)}{2}$ or something like that.
Am I on the right track? I'd appreciate any help on this, I am open to any suggestion.



note: I asked my teacher about this problem and he told me to write I new function in terms of $f(x)$, maybe that will work, but I don't know about that, it seemed to me that he doesn't know the answer either, he could be wrong.










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  • 1




    This is just en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… with the remainder in Lagrange form
    – Federico
    Nov 22 at 19:00










  • What you obtained is instead the Cauchy form of the remainder
    – Federico
    Nov 22 at 19:01










  • @Federico that's interesting, I didn't know anything about that, I am gonna read more about it, thanks.
    – Idriss Mo
    Nov 22 at 19:08










  • @Federico but still I don't know how that will help me, I am still in high school and we've never talked about Taylor theorem in class or anything like that.
    – Idriss Mo
    Nov 22 at 19:44










  • You don't need Taylor theorem. What you are trying to prove is precisely Taylor theorem, expanded to the first order and with Lagrange term. The proof you find on Wikipedia answers your question
    – Federico
    Nov 23 at 16:47















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I asked this question before, but I quickly deleted it so that I can think about it more. the question was how can I show that:
$exists c in [a,b]$ such that $ f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}f''(c)$ knowing that $f$ is a function that can be differentiated two times on $[a,b]$



Here is what I did:



I used the mean value theorem on $f$ in the interval $]a;b[$ then I got:
$$exists c_0 in ]a;b[:f(b) - f(a) = f'(c_0)(b-a)$$
rearranging gives: (1)
$$exists c_0 in ]a;b[:f'(c_0) = frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}$$
Then I used the theorem on $f'$ but in the interval $]a;c_0[$ which gives me
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f'(c_0) - f'(a) = f''(c)(c_0-a)$$
by replacing $f'(c_0)$ in the last equation with (1) and multiplying by $(b-a)$ I got
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)=f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$ and rearranging this gets me really close to what I am supposed to get:
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$
and because $]a;c_0[ subset]a;b[$ I can write : $$exists c in ]a;b[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$



If only that $(c_0-a)$ was $frac{(b-a)}{2}$ or something like that.
Am I on the right track? I'd appreciate any help on this, I am open to any suggestion.



note: I asked my teacher about this problem and he told me to write I new function in terms of $f(x)$, maybe that will work, but I don't know about that, it seemed to me that he doesn't know the answer either, he could be wrong.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    This is just en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… with the remainder in Lagrange form
    – Federico
    Nov 22 at 19:00










  • What you obtained is instead the Cauchy form of the remainder
    – Federico
    Nov 22 at 19:01










  • @Federico that's interesting, I didn't know anything about that, I am gonna read more about it, thanks.
    – Idriss Mo
    Nov 22 at 19:08










  • @Federico but still I don't know how that will help me, I am still in high school and we've never talked about Taylor theorem in class or anything like that.
    – Idriss Mo
    Nov 22 at 19:44










  • You don't need Taylor theorem. What you are trying to prove is precisely Taylor theorem, expanded to the first order and with Lagrange term. The proof you find on Wikipedia answers your question
    – Federico
    Nov 23 at 16:47













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I asked this question before, but I quickly deleted it so that I can think about it more. the question was how can I show that:
$exists c in [a,b]$ such that $ f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}f''(c)$ knowing that $f$ is a function that can be differentiated two times on $[a,b]$



Here is what I did:



I used the mean value theorem on $f$ in the interval $]a;b[$ then I got:
$$exists c_0 in ]a;b[:f(b) - f(a) = f'(c_0)(b-a)$$
rearranging gives: (1)
$$exists c_0 in ]a;b[:f'(c_0) = frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}$$
Then I used the theorem on $f'$ but in the interval $]a;c_0[$ which gives me
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f'(c_0) - f'(a) = f''(c)(c_0-a)$$
by replacing $f'(c_0)$ in the last equation with (1) and multiplying by $(b-a)$ I got
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)=f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$ and rearranging this gets me really close to what I am supposed to get:
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$
and because $]a;c_0[ subset]a;b[$ I can write : $$exists c in ]a;b[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$



If only that $(c_0-a)$ was $frac{(b-a)}{2}$ or something like that.
Am I on the right track? I'd appreciate any help on this, I am open to any suggestion.



note: I asked my teacher about this problem and he told me to write I new function in terms of $f(x)$, maybe that will work, but I don't know about that, it seemed to me that he doesn't know the answer either, he could be wrong.










share|cite|improve this question















I asked this question before, but I quickly deleted it so that I can think about it more. the question was how can I show that:
$exists c in [a,b]$ such that $ f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}f''(c)$ knowing that $f$ is a function that can be differentiated two times on $[a,b]$



Here is what I did:



I used the mean value theorem on $f$ in the interval $]a;b[$ then I got:
$$exists c_0 in ]a;b[:f(b) - f(a) = f'(c_0)(b-a)$$
rearranging gives: (1)
$$exists c_0 in ]a;b[:f'(c_0) = frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}$$
Then I used the theorem on $f'$ but in the interval $]a;c_0[$ which gives me
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f'(c_0) - f'(a) = f''(c)(c_0-a)$$
by replacing $f'(c_0)$ in the last equation with (1) and multiplying by $(b-a)$ I got
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)=f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$ and rearranging this gets me really close to what I am supposed to get:
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$
and because $]a;c_0[ subset]a;b[$ I can write : $$exists c in ]a;b[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$



If only that $(c_0-a)$ was $frac{(b-a)}{2}$ or something like that.
Am I on the right track? I'd appreciate any help on this, I am open to any suggestion.



note: I asked my teacher about this problem and he told me to write I new function in terms of $f(x)$, maybe that will work, but I don't know about that, it seemed to me that he doesn't know the answer either, he could be wrong.







calculus real-analysis






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edited Nov 22 at 19:15

























asked Nov 22 at 18:09









Idriss Mo

88




88








  • 1




    This is just en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… with the remainder in Lagrange form
    – Federico
    Nov 22 at 19:00










  • What you obtained is instead the Cauchy form of the remainder
    – Federico
    Nov 22 at 19:01










  • @Federico that's interesting, I didn't know anything about that, I am gonna read more about it, thanks.
    – Idriss Mo
    Nov 22 at 19:08










  • @Federico but still I don't know how that will help me, I am still in high school and we've never talked about Taylor theorem in class or anything like that.
    – Idriss Mo
    Nov 22 at 19:44










  • You don't need Taylor theorem. What you are trying to prove is precisely Taylor theorem, expanded to the first order and with Lagrange term. The proof you find on Wikipedia answers your question
    – Federico
    Nov 23 at 16:47














  • 1




    This is just en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… with the remainder in Lagrange form
    – Federico
    Nov 22 at 19:00










  • What you obtained is instead the Cauchy form of the remainder
    – Federico
    Nov 22 at 19:01










  • @Federico that's interesting, I didn't know anything about that, I am gonna read more about it, thanks.
    – Idriss Mo
    Nov 22 at 19:08










  • @Federico but still I don't know how that will help me, I am still in high school and we've never talked about Taylor theorem in class or anything like that.
    – Idriss Mo
    Nov 22 at 19:44










  • You don't need Taylor theorem. What you are trying to prove is precisely Taylor theorem, expanded to the first order and with Lagrange term. The proof you find on Wikipedia answers your question
    – Federico
    Nov 23 at 16:47








1




1




This is just en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… with the remainder in Lagrange form
– Federico
Nov 22 at 19:00




This is just en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… with the remainder in Lagrange form
– Federico
Nov 22 at 19:00












What you obtained is instead the Cauchy form of the remainder
– Federico
Nov 22 at 19:01




What you obtained is instead the Cauchy form of the remainder
– Federico
Nov 22 at 19:01












@Federico that's interesting, I didn't know anything about that, I am gonna read more about it, thanks.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 19:08




@Federico that's interesting, I didn't know anything about that, I am gonna read more about it, thanks.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 19:08












@Federico but still I don't know how that will help me, I am still in high school and we've never talked about Taylor theorem in class or anything like that.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 19:44




@Federico but still I don't know how that will help me, I am still in high school and we've never talked about Taylor theorem in class or anything like that.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 19:44












You don't need Taylor theorem. What you are trying to prove is precisely Taylor theorem, expanded to the first order and with Lagrange term. The proof you find on Wikipedia answers your question
– Federico
Nov 23 at 16:47




You don't need Taylor theorem. What you are trying to prove is precisely Taylor theorem, expanded to the first order and with Lagrange term. The proof you find on Wikipedia answers your question
– Federico
Nov 23 at 16:47










3 Answers
3






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oldest

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0
down vote



accepted










Given $fin C([a,b])$ twice-differentiable and $xin(a,b]$, consider
$$
F(t) = f(t)+f'(t)(x-t), qquad G(t) = (t-x)^2.
$$

By Cauchy's mean value theorem (a simple consequence of Rolle's theorem), we have
$$tag{1}
frac{F(x)-F(a)}{G(x)-G(a)} = frac{F'(c)}{G'(c)}
$$

for some $cin(a,x)$. But
$$
F'(t)=f'(t)+f''(t)(x-t)-f'(t)=f''(t)(x-t)
$$

and
$$
G'(t) = 2(t-x),
$$

so $(1)$ translates to
$$
frac{f(x)-f(a)-f'(a)(x-a)}{-(a-x)^2} = frac{f''(c)(x-c)}{2(c-x)} = -frac{f''(c)}2.
$$

Rearranging the terms leads to
$$
f(x) = f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)+frac{f''(c)}2(x-a)^2.
$$






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Thanks a lot, this answer works just right for me.
    – Idriss Mo
    Nov 23 at 20:08










  • You are welcome. Try playing with higher order expansions and make this proof work also in those cases
    – Federico
    Nov 23 at 20:10










  • But I have a question, what does $f in C^2 ([a,b])$ mean?
    – Idriss Mo
    Nov 23 at 20:11










  • It means that $f$ is twice differentiable and the derivatives are continuous. As a matter of fact, it is not needed. I'm going to fix it
    – Federico
    Nov 23 at 20:12










  • To apply Rolle/Lagrange/Cauchy, you just need the derivative to exist, not to be continuous. This is the most general statement now
    – Federico
    Nov 23 at 20:14


















up vote
0
down vote













You can start with the Taylor-formula
$$f(x) = f(a) + int_a^x f'(t) , d x = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) +int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
Next, we have
begin{align}
int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt &ge min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) int_a^x (t-a) , dt \
& = min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}
end{align}

and similar
$$ int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt le max_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}.$$
Note that the function
$$g(t) = begin{cases} frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a} & text{if} t>a \ f''(a) & text{if} t=a end{cases}$$
is continuous. Thus, by the intermediate value theorem there exists a $t in [a,b]$ with $$g(t) frac{(x-a)^2}{2} = int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
If $t= a$ we are done. Otherwise we can apply the mean-value theorem in order to get a $c in (a,t)$ with $$f''(c) = g(t).$$






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  • That seems to be beyond my level (I'm still in high school and we haven't done integrals yet), but thanks, I will try to understand it.
    – Idriss Mo
    Nov 22 at 20:54


















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0
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I found this solution that my professor showed me:
let $$varphi(x)=f(b)-f(x)-(b-x)f'(x)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}lambda$$
notice that $varphi(b)=0$,
we will choose $lambda$ so that $varphi(a)=0=varphi(b)$
$$varphi(a)=0Leftrightarrowlambda=frac{-2}{(b-a)^2}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
and because $varphi$ is continuous on $[a,b]$ and differentiable on $]a,b[$ and $varphi(a)=varphi(b)$ we can use Rolle's theorem, we will get:
$$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0$$
we can diffrentiate $varphi$ so we get
$varphi'(x)=-f'(x)+f'(x)-(b-x)f''(x)-frac{2(b-x)}{2}lambda$
simplifying that and substituting $lambda$ we get:
$$varphi'(x)=-(b-x)f''(x)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
and then we have:
$$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0 Leftrightarrow exists c in ]a,b[: -(b-c)f''(c)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big) = 0$$
and by rearranging the terms we can achieve what we want:
$$exists c in ]a,b[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}f''(c)$$






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    3 Answers
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    3 Answers
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    up vote
    0
    down vote



    accepted










    Given $fin C([a,b])$ twice-differentiable and $xin(a,b]$, consider
    $$
    F(t) = f(t)+f'(t)(x-t), qquad G(t) = (t-x)^2.
    $$

    By Cauchy's mean value theorem (a simple consequence of Rolle's theorem), we have
    $$tag{1}
    frac{F(x)-F(a)}{G(x)-G(a)} = frac{F'(c)}{G'(c)}
    $$

    for some $cin(a,x)$. But
    $$
    F'(t)=f'(t)+f''(t)(x-t)-f'(t)=f''(t)(x-t)
    $$

    and
    $$
    G'(t) = 2(t-x),
    $$

    so $(1)$ translates to
    $$
    frac{f(x)-f(a)-f'(a)(x-a)}{-(a-x)^2} = frac{f''(c)(x-c)}{2(c-x)} = -frac{f''(c)}2.
    $$

    Rearranging the terms leads to
    $$
    f(x) = f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)+frac{f''(c)}2(x-a)^2.
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • Thanks a lot, this answer works just right for me.
      – Idriss Mo
      Nov 23 at 20:08










    • You are welcome. Try playing with higher order expansions and make this proof work also in those cases
      – Federico
      Nov 23 at 20:10










    • But I have a question, what does $f in C^2 ([a,b])$ mean?
      – Idriss Mo
      Nov 23 at 20:11










    • It means that $f$ is twice differentiable and the derivatives are continuous. As a matter of fact, it is not needed. I'm going to fix it
      – Federico
      Nov 23 at 20:12










    • To apply Rolle/Lagrange/Cauchy, you just need the derivative to exist, not to be continuous. This is the most general statement now
      – Federico
      Nov 23 at 20:14















    up vote
    0
    down vote



    accepted










    Given $fin C([a,b])$ twice-differentiable and $xin(a,b]$, consider
    $$
    F(t) = f(t)+f'(t)(x-t), qquad G(t) = (t-x)^2.
    $$

    By Cauchy's mean value theorem (a simple consequence of Rolle's theorem), we have
    $$tag{1}
    frac{F(x)-F(a)}{G(x)-G(a)} = frac{F'(c)}{G'(c)}
    $$

    for some $cin(a,x)$. But
    $$
    F'(t)=f'(t)+f''(t)(x-t)-f'(t)=f''(t)(x-t)
    $$

    and
    $$
    G'(t) = 2(t-x),
    $$

    so $(1)$ translates to
    $$
    frac{f(x)-f(a)-f'(a)(x-a)}{-(a-x)^2} = frac{f''(c)(x-c)}{2(c-x)} = -frac{f''(c)}2.
    $$

    Rearranging the terms leads to
    $$
    f(x) = f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)+frac{f''(c)}2(x-a)^2.
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • Thanks a lot, this answer works just right for me.
      – Idriss Mo
      Nov 23 at 20:08










    • You are welcome. Try playing with higher order expansions and make this proof work also in those cases
      – Federico
      Nov 23 at 20:10










    • But I have a question, what does $f in C^2 ([a,b])$ mean?
      – Idriss Mo
      Nov 23 at 20:11










    • It means that $f$ is twice differentiable and the derivatives are continuous. As a matter of fact, it is not needed. I'm going to fix it
      – Federico
      Nov 23 at 20:12










    • To apply Rolle/Lagrange/Cauchy, you just need the derivative to exist, not to be continuous. This is the most general statement now
      – Federico
      Nov 23 at 20:14













    up vote
    0
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    0
    down vote



    accepted






    Given $fin C([a,b])$ twice-differentiable and $xin(a,b]$, consider
    $$
    F(t) = f(t)+f'(t)(x-t), qquad G(t) = (t-x)^2.
    $$

    By Cauchy's mean value theorem (a simple consequence of Rolle's theorem), we have
    $$tag{1}
    frac{F(x)-F(a)}{G(x)-G(a)} = frac{F'(c)}{G'(c)}
    $$

    for some $cin(a,x)$. But
    $$
    F'(t)=f'(t)+f''(t)(x-t)-f'(t)=f''(t)(x-t)
    $$

    and
    $$
    G'(t) = 2(t-x),
    $$

    so $(1)$ translates to
    $$
    frac{f(x)-f(a)-f'(a)(x-a)}{-(a-x)^2} = frac{f''(c)(x-c)}{2(c-x)} = -frac{f''(c)}2.
    $$

    Rearranging the terms leads to
    $$
    f(x) = f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)+frac{f''(c)}2(x-a)^2.
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer














    Given $fin C([a,b])$ twice-differentiable and $xin(a,b]$, consider
    $$
    F(t) = f(t)+f'(t)(x-t), qquad G(t) = (t-x)^2.
    $$

    By Cauchy's mean value theorem (a simple consequence of Rolle's theorem), we have
    $$tag{1}
    frac{F(x)-F(a)}{G(x)-G(a)} = frac{F'(c)}{G'(c)}
    $$

    for some $cin(a,x)$. But
    $$
    F'(t)=f'(t)+f''(t)(x-t)-f'(t)=f''(t)(x-t)
    $$

    and
    $$
    G'(t) = 2(t-x),
    $$

    so $(1)$ translates to
    $$
    frac{f(x)-f(a)-f'(a)(x-a)}{-(a-x)^2} = frac{f''(c)(x-c)}{2(c-x)} = -frac{f''(c)}2.
    $$

    Rearranging the terms leads to
    $$
    f(x) = f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)+frac{f''(c)}2(x-a)^2.
    $$







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Nov 23 at 20:13

























    answered Nov 23 at 17:04









    Federico

    4,238512




    4,238512












    • Thanks a lot, this answer works just right for me.
      – Idriss Mo
      Nov 23 at 20:08










    • You are welcome. Try playing with higher order expansions and make this proof work also in those cases
      – Federico
      Nov 23 at 20:10










    • But I have a question, what does $f in C^2 ([a,b])$ mean?
      – Idriss Mo
      Nov 23 at 20:11










    • It means that $f$ is twice differentiable and the derivatives are continuous. As a matter of fact, it is not needed. I'm going to fix it
      – Federico
      Nov 23 at 20:12










    • To apply Rolle/Lagrange/Cauchy, you just need the derivative to exist, not to be continuous. This is the most general statement now
      – Federico
      Nov 23 at 20:14


















    • Thanks a lot, this answer works just right for me.
      – Idriss Mo
      Nov 23 at 20:08










    • You are welcome. Try playing with higher order expansions and make this proof work also in those cases
      – Federico
      Nov 23 at 20:10










    • But I have a question, what does $f in C^2 ([a,b])$ mean?
      – Idriss Mo
      Nov 23 at 20:11










    • It means that $f$ is twice differentiable and the derivatives are continuous. As a matter of fact, it is not needed. I'm going to fix it
      – Federico
      Nov 23 at 20:12










    • To apply Rolle/Lagrange/Cauchy, you just need the derivative to exist, not to be continuous. This is the most general statement now
      – Federico
      Nov 23 at 20:14
















    Thanks a lot, this answer works just right for me.
    – Idriss Mo
    Nov 23 at 20:08




    Thanks a lot, this answer works just right for me.
    – Idriss Mo
    Nov 23 at 20:08












    You are welcome. Try playing with higher order expansions and make this proof work also in those cases
    – Federico
    Nov 23 at 20:10




    You are welcome. Try playing with higher order expansions and make this proof work also in those cases
    – Federico
    Nov 23 at 20:10












    But I have a question, what does $f in C^2 ([a,b])$ mean?
    – Idriss Mo
    Nov 23 at 20:11




    But I have a question, what does $f in C^2 ([a,b])$ mean?
    – Idriss Mo
    Nov 23 at 20:11












    It means that $f$ is twice differentiable and the derivatives are continuous. As a matter of fact, it is not needed. I'm going to fix it
    – Federico
    Nov 23 at 20:12




    It means that $f$ is twice differentiable and the derivatives are continuous. As a matter of fact, it is not needed. I'm going to fix it
    – Federico
    Nov 23 at 20:12












    To apply Rolle/Lagrange/Cauchy, you just need the derivative to exist, not to be continuous. This is the most general statement now
    – Federico
    Nov 23 at 20:14




    To apply Rolle/Lagrange/Cauchy, you just need the derivative to exist, not to be continuous. This is the most general statement now
    – Federico
    Nov 23 at 20:14










    up vote
    0
    down vote













    You can start with the Taylor-formula
    $$f(x) = f(a) + int_a^x f'(t) , d x = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) +int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
    Next, we have
    begin{align}
    int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt &ge min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) int_a^x (t-a) , dt \
    & = min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}
    end{align}

    and similar
    $$ int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt le max_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}.$$
    Note that the function
    $$g(t) = begin{cases} frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a} & text{if} t>a \ f''(a) & text{if} t=a end{cases}$$
    is continuous. Thus, by the intermediate value theorem there exists a $t in [a,b]$ with $$g(t) frac{(x-a)^2}{2} = int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
    If $t= a$ we are done. Otherwise we can apply the mean-value theorem in order to get a $c in (a,t)$ with $$f''(c) = g(t).$$






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • That seems to be beyond my level (I'm still in high school and we haven't done integrals yet), but thanks, I will try to understand it.
      – Idriss Mo
      Nov 22 at 20:54















    up vote
    0
    down vote













    You can start with the Taylor-formula
    $$f(x) = f(a) + int_a^x f'(t) , d x = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) +int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
    Next, we have
    begin{align}
    int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt &ge min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) int_a^x (t-a) , dt \
    & = min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}
    end{align}

    and similar
    $$ int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt le max_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}.$$
    Note that the function
    $$g(t) = begin{cases} frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a} & text{if} t>a \ f''(a) & text{if} t=a end{cases}$$
    is continuous. Thus, by the intermediate value theorem there exists a $t in [a,b]$ with $$g(t) frac{(x-a)^2}{2} = int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
    If $t= a$ we are done. Otherwise we can apply the mean-value theorem in order to get a $c in (a,t)$ with $$f''(c) = g(t).$$






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • That seems to be beyond my level (I'm still in high school and we haven't done integrals yet), but thanks, I will try to understand it.
      – Idriss Mo
      Nov 22 at 20:54













    up vote
    0
    down vote










    up vote
    0
    down vote









    You can start with the Taylor-formula
    $$f(x) = f(a) + int_a^x f'(t) , d x = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) +int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
    Next, we have
    begin{align}
    int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt &ge min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) int_a^x (t-a) , dt \
    & = min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}
    end{align}

    and similar
    $$ int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt le max_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}.$$
    Note that the function
    $$g(t) = begin{cases} frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a} & text{if} t>a \ f''(a) & text{if} t=a end{cases}$$
    is continuous. Thus, by the intermediate value theorem there exists a $t in [a,b]$ with $$g(t) frac{(x-a)^2}{2} = int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
    If $t= a$ we are done. Otherwise we can apply the mean-value theorem in order to get a $c in (a,t)$ with $$f''(c) = g(t).$$






    share|cite|improve this answer












    You can start with the Taylor-formula
    $$f(x) = f(a) + int_a^x f'(t) , d x = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) +int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
    Next, we have
    begin{align}
    int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt &ge min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) int_a^x (t-a) , dt \
    & = min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}
    end{align}

    and similar
    $$ int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt le max_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}.$$
    Note that the function
    $$g(t) = begin{cases} frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a} & text{if} t>a \ f''(a) & text{if} t=a end{cases}$$
    is continuous. Thus, by the intermediate value theorem there exists a $t in [a,b]$ with $$g(t) frac{(x-a)^2}{2} = int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
    If $t= a$ we are done. Otherwise we can apply the mean-value theorem in order to get a $c in (a,t)$ with $$f''(c) = g(t).$$







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Nov 22 at 20:40









    p4sch

    4,800217




    4,800217












    • That seems to be beyond my level (I'm still in high school and we haven't done integrals yet), but thanks, I will try to understand it.
      – Idriss Mo
      Nov 22 at 20:54


















    • That seems to be beyond my level (I'm still in high school and we haven't done integrals yet), but thanks, I will try to understand it.
      – Idriss Mo
      Nov 22 at 20:54
















    That seems to be beyond my level (I'm still in high school and we haven't done integrals yet), but thanks, I will try to understand it.
    – Idriss Mo
    Nov 22 at 20:54




    That seems to be beyond my level (I'm still in high school and we haven't done integrals yet), but thanks, I will try to understand it.
    – Idriss Mo
    Nov 22 at 20:54










    up vote
    0
    down vote













    I found this solution that my professor showed me:
    let $$varphi(x)=f(b)-f(x)-(b-x)f'(x)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}lambda$$
    notice that $varphi(b)=0$,
    we will choose $lambda$ so that $varphi(a)=0=varphi(b)$
    $$varphi(a)=0Leftrightarrowlambda=frac{-2}{(b-a)^2}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
    and because $varphi$ is continuous on $[a,b]$ and differentiable on $]a,b[$ and $varphi(a)=varphi(b)$ we can use Rolle's theorem, we will get:
    $$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0$$
    we can diffrentiate $varphi$ so we get
    $varphi'(x)=-f'(x)+f'(x)-(b-x)f''(x)-frac{2(b-x)}{2}lambda$
    simplifying that and substituting $lambda$ we get:
    $$varphi'(x)=-(b-x)f''(x)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
    and then we have:
    $$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0 Leftrightarrow exists c in ]a,b[: -(b-c)f''(c)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big) = 0$$
    and by rearranging the terms we can achieve what we want:
    $$exists c in ]a,b[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}f''(c)$$






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      I found this solution that my professor showed me:
      let $$varphi(x)=f(b)-f(x)-(b-x)f'(x)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}lambda$$
      notice that $varphi(b)=0$,
      we will choose $lambda$ so that $varphi(a)=0=varphi(b)$
      $$varphi(a)=0Leftrightarrowlambda=frac{-2}{(b-a)^2}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
      and because $varphi$ is continuous on $[a,b]$ and differentiable on $]a,b[$ and $varphi(a)=varphi(b)$ we can use Rolle's theorem, we will get:
      $$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0$$
      we can diffrentiate $varphi$ so we get
      $varphi'(x)=-f'(x)+f'(x)-(b-x)f''(x)-frac{2(b-x)}{2}lambda$
      simplifying that and substituting $lambda$ we get:
      $$varphi'(x)=-(b-x)f''(x)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
      and then we have:
      $$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0 Leftrightarrow exists c in ]a,b[: -(b-c)f''(c)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big) = 0$$
      and by rearranging the terms we can achieve what we want:
      $$exists c in ]a,b[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}f''(c)$$






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        I found this solution that my professor showed me:
        let $$varphi(x)=f(b)-f(x)-(b-x)f'(x)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}lambda$$
        notice that $varphi(b)=0$,
        we will choose $lambda$ so that $varphi(a)=0=varphi(b)$
        $$varphi(a)=0Leftrightarrowlambda=frac{-2}{(b-a)^2}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
        and because $varphi$ is continuous on $[a,b]$ and differentiable on $]a,b[$ and $varphi(a)=varphi(b)$ we can use Rolle's theorem, we will get:
        $$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0$$
        we can diffrentiate $varphi$ so we get
        $varphi'(x)=-f'(x)+f'(x)-(b-x)f''(x)-frac{2(b-x)}{2}lambda$
        simplifying that and substituting $lambda$ we get:
        $$varphi'(x)=-(b-x)f''(x)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
        and then we have:
        $$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0 Leftrightarrow exists c in ]a,b[: -(b-c)f''(c)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big) = 0$$
        and by rearranging the terms we can achieve what we want:
        $$exists c in ]a,b[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}f''(c)$$






        share|cite|improve this answer












        I found this solution that my professor showed me:
        let $$varphi(x)=f(b)-f(x)-(b-x)f'(x)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}lambda$$
        notice that $varphi(b)=0$,
        we will choose $lambda$ so that $varphi(a)=0=varphi(b)$
        $$varphi(a)=0Leftrightarrowlambda=frac{-2}{(b-a)^2}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
        and because $varphi$ is continuous on $[a,b]$ and differentiable on $]a,b[$ and $varphi(a)=varphi(b)$ we can use Rolle's theorem, we will get:
        $$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0$$
        we can diffrentiate $varphi$ so we get
        $varphi'(x)=-f'(x)+f'(x)-(b-x)f''(x)-frac{2(b-x)}{2}lambda$
        simplifying that and substituting $lambda$ we get:
        $$varphi'(x)=-(b-x)f''(x)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
        and then we have:
        $$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0 Leftrightarrow exists c in ]a,b[: -(b-c)f''(c)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big) = 0$$
        and by rearranging the terms we can achieve what we want:
        $$exists c in ]a,b[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}f''(c)$$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 23 at 13:24









        Idriss Mo

        88




        88






























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