If $f$ is a function that can be differentiated two times on $[a;b]$
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0
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I asked this question before, but I quickly deleted it so that I can think about it more. the question was how can I show that:
$exists c in [a,b]$ such that $ f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}f''(c)$ knowing that $f$ is a function that can be differentiated two times on $[a,b]$
Here is what I did:
I used the mean value theorem on $f$ in the interval $]a;b[$ then I got:
$$exists c_0 in ]a;b[:f(b) - f(a) = f'(c_0)(b-a)$$
rearranging gives: (1)
$$exists c_0 in ]a;b[:f'(c_0) = frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}$$
Then I used the theorem on $f'$ but in the interval $]a;c_0[$ which gives me
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f'(c_0) - f'(a) = f''(c)(c_0-a)$$
by replacing $f'(c_0)$ in the last equation with (1) and multiplying by $(b-a)$ I got
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)=f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$ and rearranging this gets me really close to what I am supposed to get:
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$
and because $]a;c_0[ subset]a;b[$ I can write : $$exists c in ]a;b[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$
If only that $(c_0-a)$ was $frac{(b-a)}{2}$ or something like that.
Am I on the right track? I'd appreciate any help on this, I am open to any suggestion.
note: I asked my teacher about this problem and he told me to write I new function in terms of $f(x)$, maybe that will work, but I don't know about that, it seemed to me that he doesn't know the answer either, he could be wrong.
calculus real-analysis
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show 1 more comment
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
I asked this question before, but I quickly deleted it so that I can think about it more. the question was how can I show that:
$exists c in [a,b]$ such that $ f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}f''(c)$ knowing that $f$ is a function that can be differentiated two times on $[a,b]$
Here is what I did:
I used the mean value theorem on $f$ in the interval $]a;b[$ then I got:
$$exists c_0 in ]a;b[:f(b) - f(a) = f'(c_0)(b-a)$$
rearranging gives: (1)
$$exists c_0 in ]a;b[:f'(c_0) = frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}$$
Then I used the theorem on $f'$ but in the interval $]a;c_0[$ which gives me
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f'(c_0) - f'(a) = f''(c)(c_0-a)$$
by replacing $f'(c_0)$ in the last equation with (1) and multiplying by $(b-a)$ I got
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)=f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$ and rearranging this gets me really close to what I am supposed to get:
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$
and because $]a;c_0[ subset]a;b[$ I can write : $$exists c in ]a;b[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$
If only that $(c_0-a)$ was $frac{(b-a)}{2}$ or something like that.
Am I on the right track? I'd appreciate any help on this, I am open to any suggestion.
note: I asked my teacher about this problem and he told me to write I new function in terms of $f(x)$, maybe that will work, but I don't know about that, it seemed to me that he doesn't know the answer either, he could be wrong.
calculus real-analysis
1
This is just en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… with the remainder in Lagrange form
– Federico
Nov 22 at 19:00
What you obtained is instead the Cauchy form of the remainder
– Federico
Nov 22 at 19:01
@Federico that's interesting, I didn't know anything about that, I am gonna read more about it, thanks.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 19:08
@Federico but still I don't know how that will help me, I am still in high school and we've never talked about Taylor theorem in class or anything like that.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 19:44
You don't need Taylor theorem. What you are trying to prove is precisely Taylor theorem, expanded to the first order and with Lagrange term. The proof you find on Wikipedia answers your question
– Federico
Nov 23 at 16:47
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
I asked this question before, but I quickly deleted it so that I can think about it more. the question was how can I show that:
$exists c in [a,b]$ such that $ f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}f''(c)$ knowing that $f$ is a function that can be differentiated two times on $[a,b]$
Here is what I did:
I used the mean value theorem on $f$ in the interval $]a;b[$ then I got:
$$exists c_0 in ]a;b[:f(b) - f(a) = f'(c_0)(b-a)$$
rearranging gives: (1)
$$exists c_0 in ]a;b[:f'(c_0) = frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}$$
Then I used the theorem on $f'$ but in the interval $]a;c_0[$ which gives me
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f'(c_0) - f'(a) = f''(c)(c_0-a)$$
by replacing $f'(c_0)$ in the last equation with (1) and multiplying by $(b-a)$ I got
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)=f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$ and rearranging this gets me really close to what I am supposed to get:
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$
and because $]a;c_0[ subset]a;b[$ I can write : $$exists c in ]a;b[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$
If only that $(c_0-a)$ was $frac{(b-a)}{2}$ or something like that.
Am I on the right track? I'd appreciate any help on this, I am open to any suggestion.
note: I asked my teacher about this problem and he told me to write I new function in terms of $f(x)$, maybe that will work, but I don't know about that, it seemed to me that he doesn't know the answer either, he could be wrong.
calculus real-analysis
I asked this question before, but I quickly deleted it so that I can think about it more. the question was how can I show that:
$exists c in [a,b]$ such that $ f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}f''(c)$ knowing that $f$ is a function that can be differentiated two times on $[a,b]$
Here is what I did:
I used the mean value theorem on $f$ in the interval $]a;b[$ then I got:
$$exists c_0 in ]a;b[:f(b) - f(a) = f'(c_0)(b-a)$$
rearranging gives: (1)
$$exists c_0 in ]a;b[:f'(c_0) = frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}$$
Then I used the theorem on $f'$ but in the interval $]a;c_0[$ which gives me
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f'(c_0) - f'(a) = f''(c)(c_0-a)$$
by replacing $f'(c_0)$ in the last equation with (1) and multiplying by $(b-a)$ I got
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)=f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$ and rearranging this gets me really close to what I am supposed to get:
$$exists c in ]a;c_0[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$
and because $]a;c_0[ subset]a;b[$ I can write : $$exists c in ]a;b[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+f''(c)(c_0-a)(b-a)$$
If only that $(c_0-a)$ was $frac{(b-a)}{2}$ or something like that.
Am I on the right track? I'd appreciate any help on this, I am open to any suggestion.
note: I asked my teacher about this problem and he told me to write I new function in terms of $f(x)$, maybe that will work, but I don't know about that, it seemed to me that he doesn't know the answer either, he could be wrong.
calculus real-analysis
calculus real-analysis
edited Nov 22 at 19:15
asked Nov 22 at 18:09
Idriss Mo
88
88
1
This is just en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… with the remainder in Lagrange form
– Federico
Nov 22 at 19:00
What you obtained is instead the Cauchy form of the remainder
– Federico
Nov 22 at 19:01
@Federico that's interesting, I didn't know anything about that, I am gonna read more about it, thanks.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 19:08
@Federico but still I don't know how that will help me, I am still in high school and we've never talked about Taylor theorem in class or anything like that.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 19:44
You don't need Taylor theorem. What you are trying to prove is precisely Taylor theorem, expanded to the first order and with Lagrange term. The proof you find on Wikipedia answers your question
– Federico
Nov 23 at 16:47
|
show 1 more comment
1
This is just en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… with the remainder in Lagrange form
– Federico
Nov 22 at 19:00
What you obtained is instead the Cauchy form of the remainder
– Federico
Nov 22 at 19:01
@Federico that's interesting, I didn't know anything about that, I am gonna read more about it, thanks.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 19:08
@Federico but still I don't know how that will help me, I am still in high school and we've never talked about Taylor theorem in class or anything like that.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 19:44
You don't need Taylor theorem. What you are trying to prove is precisely Taylor theorem, expanded to the first order and with Lagrange term. The proof you find on Wikipedia answers your question
– Federico
Nov 23 at 16:47
1
1
This is just en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… with the remainder in Lagrange form
– Federico
Nov 22 at 19:00
This is just en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… with the remainder in Lagrange form
– Federico
Nov 22 at 19:00
What you obtained is instead the Cauchy form of the remainder
– Federico
Nov 22 at 19:01
What you obtained is instead the Cauchy form of the remainder
– Federico
Nov 22 at 19:01
@Federico that's interesting, I didn't know anything about that, I am gonna read more about it, thanks.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 19:08
@Federico that's interesting, I didn't know anything about that, I am gonna read more about it, thanks.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 19:08
@Federico but still I don't know how that will help me, I am still in high school and we've never talked about Taylor theorem in class or anything like that.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 19:44
@Federico but still I don't know how that will help me, I am still in high school and we've never talked about Taylor theorem in class or anything like that.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 19:44
You don't need Taylor theorem. What you are trying to prove is precisely Taylor theorem, expanded to the first order and with Lagrange term. The proof you find on Wikipedia answers your question
– Federico
Nov 23 at 16:47
You don't need Taylor theorem. What you are trying to prove is precisely Taylor theorem, expanded to the first order and with Lagrange term. The proof you find on Wikipedia answers your question
– Federico
Nov 23 at 16:47
|
show 1 more comment
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Given $fin C([a,b])$ twice-differentiable and $xin(a,b]$, consider
$$
F(t) = f(t)+f'(t)(x-t), qquad G(t) = (t-x)^2.
$$
By Cauchy's mean value theorem (a simple consequence of Rolle's theorem), we have
$$tag{1}
frac{F(x)-F(a)}{G(x)-G(a)} = frac{F'(c)}{G'(c)}
$$
for some $cin(a,x)$. But
$$
F'(t)=f'(t)+f''(t)(x-t)-f'(t)=f''(t)(x-t)
$$
and
$$
G'(t) = 2(t-x),
$$
so $(1)$ translates to
$$
frac{f(x)-f(a)-f'(a)(x-a)}{-(a-x)^2} = frac{f''(c)(x-c)}{2(c-x)} = -frac{f''(c)}2.
$$
Rearranging the terms leads to
$$
f(x) = f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)+frac{f''(c)}2(x-a)^2.
$$
Thanks a lot, this answer works just right for me.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 23 at 20:08
You are welcome. Try playing with higher order expansions and make this proof work also in those cases
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:10
But I have a question, what does $f in C^2 ([a,b])$ mean?
– Idriss Mo
Nov 23 at 20:11
It means that $f$ is twice differentiable and the derivatives are continuous. As a matter of fact, it is not needed. I'm going to fix it
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:12
To apply Rolle/Lagrange/Cauchy, you just need the derivative to exist, not to be continuous. This is the most general statement now
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:14
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
0
down vote
You can start with the Taylor-formula
$$f(x) = f(a) + int_a^x f'(t) , d x = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) +int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
Next, we have
begin{align}
int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt &ge min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) int_a^x (t-a) , dt \
& = min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}
end{align}
and similar
$$ int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt le max_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}.$$
Note that the function
$$g(t) = begin{cases} frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a} & text{if} t>a \ f''(a) & text{if} t=a end{cases}$$
is continuous. Thus, by the intermediate value theorem there exists a $t in [a,b]$ with $$g(t) frac{(x-a)^2}{2} = int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
If $t= a$ we are done. Otherwise we can apply the mean-value theorem in order to get a $c in (a,t)$ with $$f''(c) = g(t).$$
That seems to be beyond my level (I'm still in high school and we haven't done integrals yet), but thanks, I will try to understand it.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 20:54
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
I found this solution that my professor showed me:
let $$varphi(x)=f(b)-f(x)-(b-x)f'(x)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}lambda$$
notice that $varphi(b)=0$,
we will choose $lambda$ so that $varphi(a)=0=varphi(b)$
$$varphi(a)=0Leftrightarrowlambda=frac{-2}{(b-a)^2}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
and because $varphi$ is continuous on $[a,b]$ and differentiable on $]a,b[$ and $varphi(a)=varphi(b)$ we can use Rolle's theorem, we will get:
$$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0$$
we can diffrentiate $varphi$ so we get
$varphi'(x)=-f'(x)+f'(x)-(b-x)f''(x)-frac{2(b-x)}{2}lambda$
simplifying that and substituting $lambda$ we get:
$$varphi'(x)=-(b-x)f''(x)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
and then we have:
$$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0 Leftrightarrow exists c in ]a,b[: -(b-c)f''(c)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big) = 0$$
and by rearranging the terms we can achieve what we want:
$$exists c in ]a,b[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}f''(c)$$
add a comment |
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Given $fin C([a,b])$ twice-differentiable and $xin(a,b]$, consider
$$
F(t) = f(t)+f'(t)(x-t), qquad G(t) = (t-x)^2.
$$
By Cauchy's mean value theorem (a simple consequence of Rolle's theorem), we have
$$tag{1}
frac{F(x)-F(a)}{G(x)-G(a)} = frac{F'(c)}{G'(c)}
$$
for some $cin(a,x)$. But
$$
F'(t)=f'(t)+f''(t)(x-t)-f'(t)=f''(t)(x-t)
$$
and
$$
G'(t) = 2(t-x),
$$
so $(1)$ translates to
$$
frac{f(x)-f(a)-f'(a)(x-a)}{-(a-x)^2} = frac{f''(c)(x-c)}{2(c-x)} = -frac{f''(c)}2.
$$
Rearranging the terms leads to
$$
f(x) = f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)+frac{f''(c)}2(x-a)^2.
$$
Thanks a lot, this answer works just right for me.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 23 at 20:08
You are welcome. Try playing with higher order expansions and make this proof work also in those cases
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:10
But I have a question, what does $f in C^2 ([a,b])$ mean?
– Idriss Mo
Nov 23 at 20:11
It means that $f$ is twice differentiable and the derivatives are continuous. As a matter of fact, it is not needed. I'm going to fix it
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:12
To apply Rolle/Lagrange/Cauchy, you just need the derivative to exist, not to be continuous. This is the most general statement now
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:14
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Given $fin C([a,b])$ twice-differentiable and $xin(a,b]$, consider
$$
F(t) = f(t)+f'(t)(x-t), qquad G(t) = (t-x)^2.
$$
By Cauchy's mean value theorem (a simple consequence of Rolle's theorem), we have
$$tag{1}
frac{F(x)-F(a)}{G(x)-G(a)} = frac{F'(c)}{G'(c)}
$$
for some $cin(a,x)$. But
$$
F'(t)=f'(t)+f''(t)(x-t)-f'(t)=f''(t)(x-t)
$$
and
$$
G'(t) = 2(t-x),
$$
so $(1)$ translates to
$$
frac{f(x)-f(a)-f'(a)(x-a)}{-(a-x)^2} = frac{f''(c)(x-c)}{2(c-x)} = -frac{f''(c)}2.
$$
Rearranging the terms leads to
$$
f(x) = f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)+frac{f''(c)}2(x-a)^2.
$$
Thanks a lot, this answer works just right for me.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 23 at 20:08
You are welcome. Try playing with higher order expansions and make this proof work also in those cases
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:10
But I have a question, what does $f in C^2 ([a,b])$ mean?
– Idriss Mo
Nov 23 at 20:11
It means that $f$ is twice differentiable and the derivatives are continuous. As a matter of fact, it is not needed. I'm going to fix it
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:12
To apply Rolle/Lagrange/Cauchy, you just need the derivative to exist, not to be continuous. This is the most general statement now
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:14
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Given $fin C([a,b])$ twice-differentiable and $xin(a,b]$, consider
$$
F(t) = f(t)+f'(t)(x-t), qquad G(t) = (t-x)^2.
$$
By Cauchy's mean value theorem (a simple consequence of Rolle's theorem), we have
$$tag{1}
frac{F(x)-F(a)}{G(x)-G(a)} = frac{F'(c)}{G'(c)}
$$
for some $cin(a,x)$. But
$$
F'(t)=f'(t)+f''(t)(x-t)-f'(t)=f''(t)(x-t)
$$
and
$$
G'(t) = 2(t-x),
$$
so $(1)$ translates to
$$
frac{f(x)-f(a)-f'(a)(x-a)}{-(a-x)^2} = frac{f''(c)(x-c)}{2(c-x)} = -frac{f''(c)}2.
$$
Rearranging the terms leads to
$$
f(x) = f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)+frac{f''(c)}2(x-a)^2.
$$
Given $fin C([a,b])$ twice-differentiable and $xin(a,b]$, consider
$$
F(t) = f(t)+f'(t)(x-t), qquad G(t) = (t-x)^2.
$$
By Cauchy's mean value theorem (a simple consequence of Rolle's theorem), we have
$$tag{1}
frac{F(x)-F(a)}{G(x)-G(a)} = frac{F'(c)}{G'(c)}
$$
for some $cin(a,x)$. But
$$
F'(t)=f'(t)+f''(t)(x-t)-f'(t)=f''(t)(x-t)
$$
and
$$
G'(t) = 2(t-x),
$$
so $(1)$ translates to
$$
frac{f(x)-f(a)-f'(a)(x-a)}{-(a-x)^2} = frac{f''(c)(x-c)}{2(c-x)} = -frac{f''(c)}2.
$$
Rearranging the terms leads to
$$
f(x) = f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)+frac{f''(c)}2(x-a)^2.
$$
edited Nov 23 at 20:13
answered Nov 23 at 17:04
Federico
4,238512
4,238512
Thanks a lot, this answer works just right for me.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 23 at 20:08
You are welcome. Try playing with higher order expansions and make this proof work also in those cases
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:10
But I have a question, what does $f in C^2 ([a,b])$ mean?
– Idriss Mo
Nov 23 at 20:11
It means that $f$ is twice differentiable and the derivatives are continuous. As a matter of fact, it is not needed. I'm going to fix it
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:12
To apply Rolle/Lagrange/Cauchy, you just need the derivative to exist, not to be continuous. This is the most general statement now
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:14
|
show 1 more comment
Thanks a lot, this answer works just right for me.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 23 at 20:08
You are welcome. Try playing with higher order expansions and make this proof work also in those cases
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:10
But I have a question, what does $f in C^2 ([a,b])$ mean?
– Idriss Mo
Nov 23 at 20:11
It means that $f$ is twice differentiable and the derivatives are continuous. As a matter of fact, it is not needed. I'm going to fix it
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:12
To apply Rolle/Lagrange/Cauchy, you just need the derivative to exist, not to be continuous. This is the most general statement now
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:14
Thanks a lot, this answer works just right for me.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 23 at 20:08
Thanks a lot, this answer works just right for me.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 23 at 20:08
You are welcome. Try playing with higher order expansions and make this proof work also in those cases
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:10
You are welcome. Try playing with higher order expansions and make this proof work also in those cases
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:10
But I have a question, what does $f in C^2 ([a,b])$ mean?
– Idriss Mo
Nov 23 at 20:11
But I have a question, what does $f in C^2 ([a,b])$ mean?
– Idriss Mo
Nov 23 at 20:11
It means that $f$ is twice differentiable and the derivatives are continuous. As a matter of fact, it is not needed. I'm going to fix it
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:12
It means that $f$ is twice differentiable and the derivatives are continuous. As a matter of fact, it is not needed. I'm going to fix it
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:12
To apply Rolle/Lagrange/Cauchy, you just need the derivative to exist, not to be continuous. This is the most general statement now
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:14
To apply Rolle/Lagrange/Cauchy, you just need the derivative to exist, not to be continuous. This is the most general statement now
– Federico
Nov 23 at 20:14
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
0
down vote
You can start with the Taylor-formula
$$f(x) = f(a) + int_a^x f'(t) , d x = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) +int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
Next, we have
begin{align}
int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt &ge min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) int_a^x (t-a) , dt \
& = min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}
end{align}
and similar
$$ int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt le max_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}.$$
Note that the function
$$g(t) = begin{cases} frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a} & text{if} t>a \ f''(a) & text{if} t=a end{cases}$$
is continuous. Thus, by the intermediate value theorem there exists a $t in [a,b]$ with $$g(t) frac{(x-a)^2}{2} = int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
If $t= a$ we are done. Otherwise we can apply the mean-value theorem in order to get a $c in (a,t)$ with $$f''(c) = g(t).$$
That seems to be beyond my level (I'm still in high school and we haven't done integrals yet), but thanks, I will try to understand it.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 20:54
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
You can start with the Taylor-formula
$$f(x) = f(a) + int_a^x f'(t) , d x = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) +int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
Next, we have
begin{align}
int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt &ge min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) int_a^x (t-a) , dt \
& = min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}
end{align}
and similar
$$ int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt le max_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}.$$
Note that the function
$$g(t) = begin{cases} frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a} & text{if} t>a \ f''(a) & text{if} t=a end{cases}$$
is continuous. Thus, by the intermediate value theorem there exists a $t in [a,b]$ with $$g(t) frac{(x-a)^2}{2} = int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
If $t= a$ we are done. Otherwise we can apply the mean-value theorem in order to get a $c in (a,t)$ with $$f''(c) = g(t).$$
That seems to be beyond my level (I'm still in high school and we haven't done integrals yet), but thanks, I will try to understand it.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 20:54
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
You can start with the Taylor-formula
$$f(x) = f(a) + int_a^x f'(t) , d x = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) +int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
Next, we have
begin{align}
int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt &ge min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) int_a^x (t-a) , dt \
& = min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}
end{align}
and similar
$$ int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt le max_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}.$$
Note that the function
$$g(t) = begin{cases} frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a} & text{if} t>a \ f''(a) & text{if} t=a end{cases}$$
is continuous. Thus, by the intermediate value theorem there exists a $t in [a,b]$ with $$g(t) frac{(x-a)^2}{2} = int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
If $t= a$ we are done. Otherwise we can apply the mean-value theorem in order to get a $c in (a,t)$ with $$f''(c) = g(t).$$
You can start with the Taylor-formula
$$f(x) = f(a) + int_a^x f'(t) , d x = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) +int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
Next, we have
begin{align}
int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt &ge min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) int_a^x (t-a) , dt \
& = min_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}
end{align}
and similar
$$ int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt le max_{t in [a,x]} Big(frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a}Big) frac{(x-a)^2}{2}.$$
Note that the function
$$g(t) = begin{cases} frac{f'(t)-f'(a)}{t-a} & text{if} t>a \ f''(a) & text{if} t=a end{cases}$$
is continuous. Thus, by the intermediate value theorem there exists a $t in [a,b]$ with $$g(t) frac{(x-a)^2}{2} = int_a^x (f'(t) -f'(a)) , dt.$$
If $t= a$ we are done. Otherwise we can apply the mean-value theorem in order to get a $c in (a,t)$ with $$f''(c) = g(t).$$
answered Nov 22 at 20:40
p4sch
4,800217
4,800217
That seems to be beyond my level (I'm still in high school and we haven't done integrals yet), but thanks, I will try to understand it.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 20:54
add a comment |
That seems to be beyond my level (I'm still in high school and we haven't done integrals yet), but thanks, I will try to understand it.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 20:54
That seems to be beyond my level (I'm still in high school and we haven't done integrals yet), but thanks, I will try to understand it.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 20:54
That seems to be beyond my level (I'm still in high school and we haven't done integrals yet), but thanks, I will try to understand it.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 20:54
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
I found this solution that my professor showed me:
let $$varphi(x)=f(b)-f(x)-(b-x)f'(x)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}lambda$$
notice that $varphi(b)=0$,
we will choose $lambda$ so that $varphi(a)=0=varphi(b)$
$$varphi(a)=0Leftrightarrowlambda=frac{-2}{(b-a)^2}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
and because $varphi$ is continuous on $[a,b]$ and differentiable on $]a,b[$ and $varphi(a)=varphi(b)$ we can use Rolle's theorem, we will get:
$$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0$$
we can diffrentiate $varphi$ so we get
$varphi'(x)=-f'(x)+f'(x)-(b-x)f''(x)-frac{2(b-x)}{2}lambda$
simplifying that and substituting $lambda$ we get:
$$varphi'(x)=-(b-x)f''(x)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
and then we have:
$$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0 Leftrightarrow exists c in ]a,b[: -(b-c)f''(c)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big) = 0$$
and by rearranging the terms we can achieve what we want:
$$exists c in ]a,b[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}f''(c)$$
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
I found this solution that my professor showed me:
let $$varphi(x)=f(b)-f(x)-(b-x)f'(x)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}lambda$$
notice that $varphi(b)=0$,
we will choose $lambda$ so that $varphi(a)=0=varphi(b)$
$$varphi(a)=0Leftrightarrowlambda=frac{-2}{(b-a)^2}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
and because $varphi$ is continuous on $[a,b]$ and differentiable on $]a,b[$ and $varphi(a)=varphi(b)$ we can use Rolle's theorem, we will get:
$$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0$$
we can diffrentiate $varphi$ so we get
$varphi'(x)=-f'(x)+f'(x)-(b-x)f''(x)-frac{2(b-x)}{2}lambda$
simplifying that and substituting $lambda$ we get:
$$varphi'(x)=-(b-x)f''(x)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
and then we have:
$$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0 Leftrightarrow exists c in ]a,b[: -(b-c)f''(c)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big) = 0$$
and by rearranging the terms we can achieve what we want:
$$exists c in ]a,b[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}f''(c)$$
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
I found this solution that my professor showed me:
let $$varphi(x)=f(b)-f(x)-(b-x)f'(x)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}lambda$$
notice that $varphi(b)=0$,
we will choose $lambda$ so that $varphi(a)=0=varphi(b)$
$$varphi(a)=0Leftrightarrowlambda=frac{-2}{(b-a)^2}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
and because $varphi$ is continuous on $[a,b]$ and differentiable on $]a,b[$ and $varphi(a)=varphi(b)$ we can use Rolle's theorem, we will get:
$$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0$$
we can diffrentiate $varphi$ so we get
$varphi'(x)=-f'(x)+f'(x)-(b-x)f''(x)-frac{2(b-x)}{2}lambda$
simplifying that and substituting $lambda$ we get:
$$varphi'(x)=-(b-x)f''(x)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
and then we have:
$$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0 Leftrightarrow exists c in ]a,b[: -(b-c)f''(c)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big) = 0$$
and by rearranging the terms we can achieve what we want:
$$exists c in ]a,b[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}f''(c)$$
I found this solution that my professor showed me:
let $$varphi(x)=f(b)-f(x)-(b-x)f'(x)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}lambda$$
notice that $varphi(b)=0$,
we will choose $lambda$ so that $varphi(a)=0=varphi(b)$
$$varphi(a)=0Leftrightarrowlambda=frac{-2}{(b-a)^2}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
and because $varphi$ is continuous on $[a,b]$ and differentiable on $]a,b[$ and $varphi(a)=varphi(b)$ we can use Rolle's theorem, we will get:
$$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0$$
we can diffrentiate $varphi$ so we get
$varphi'(x)=-f'(x)+f'(x)-(b-x)f''(x)-frac{2(b-x)}{2}lambda$
simplifying that and substituting $lambda$ we get:
$$varphi'(x)=-(b-x)f''(x)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big)$$
and then we have:
$$exists c in ]a,b[:varphi'(c)=0 Leftrightarrow exists c in ]a,b[: -(b-c)f''(c)+frac{2}{(b-a)}big(f(b)-f(a)-(b-a)f'(a)big) = 0$$
and by rearranging the terms we can achieve what we want:
$$exists c in ]a,b[:f(b)=f(a)+(b-a)f'(a)+frac{(b-a)^2}{2}f''(c)$$
answered Nov 23 at 13:24
Idriss Mo
88
88
add a comment |
add a comment |
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This is just en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… with the remainder in Lagrange form
– Federico
Nov 22 at 19:00
What you obtained is instead the Cauchy form of the remainder
– Federico
Nov 22 at 19:01
@Federico that's interesting, I didn't know anything about that, I am gonna read more about it, thanks.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 19:08
@Federico but still I don't know how that will help me, I am still in high school and we've never talked about Taylor theorem in class or anything like that.
– Idriss Mo
Nov 22 at 19:44
You don't need Taylor theorem. What you are trying to prove is precisely Taylor theorem, expanded to the first order and with Lagrange term. The proof you find on Wikipedia answers your question
– Federico
Nov 23 at 16:47