Category theory - Prove that $operatorname{Hom}$ preserves representations for quasi-inverse functors











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Let $F: mathcal C to mathcal D$ and $G: mathcal D to mathcal C$ be quasi-inverse functors, and let $H : mathcal C to Set$ be a representable (contravariant) functor with representative $X in mathcal C$. Prove that $H circ G$ is representable by $F(X)$.




$DeclareMathOperatorHom{Hom}$As ismorphisms are transitive, it suffices to consider the case when $H = Hom( -, X)$. To this end, we wish to find $phi : Hom(-,X) circ G to Hom(-,F(X))$ an ismorphism, from which we quickly deduce that for any $f: B to A$ and $g: GA to X$ it must be that $phi_A(g) circ f = phi_B(g circ Gf)$. I am not sure how to dind such a $phi$ though. It seems like I have to somehow use the fact that $F$ and $G$ are quasi-inverses...










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  • Start with the map, then prove it's an isomorphism, then that it's natural. Given $Y$ and $fin (Hom(-,X)circ G)(Y)=Hom(G(Y),X))$, how do you get a corresponding element of $Hom(-,F(X))(Y)=Hom(Y,F(X))$?
    – Kevin Carlson
    Oct 22 at 7:31










  • Thanks @KevinCarlson, could you elaborate as an answer? I tried $Y to G(Y) to GFG(Y) to G(Y) to X to F(X)$ but I am not sure whether flapping down the FG part (from $GFG(Y)$ to $G(Y)$) is justified, since it's inside.
    – Cute Brownie
    Oct 22 at 7:43










  • Those arrows can't possible all mean the same thing. For instance, $Y$ and $G(Y)$ aren't in the same category, while the middle four objects are...It seems like you might be a bit confused about the basic definitions around functors. I'm unlikely to write out a full answer, because I'm doubtful whether either you or the community would benefit much from that. You've been asking a whole lot of questions in a row that you'll be able to solve handily on your own with a bit more conceptual clarification. But I'm happy to try to clarify further and maybe someone else will write an answer.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Oct 22 at 7:53












  • @KevinCarlson, thank you for your comment. Unfortunately I am very new to category theory (I am only 2 weeks from starting it) and even this basic questuon confuses me, I have literally been trying this question for hours - I didn't post this problem because I was being lazy. If you could please clarify your answer that would be great.
    – Cute Brownie
    Oct 22 at 8:00










  • I do get the basic idea here, that F and G are "almost" inverses, so that we can essentially "backtrack" to get the desired "equality" (i.e. isomorphism) we want. However, I am struggling to get the details right...
    – Cute Brownie
    Oct 22 at 8:02















up vote
1
down vote

favorite













Let $F: mathcal C to mathcal D$ and $G: mathcal D to mathcal C$ be quasi-inverse functors, and let $H : mathcal C to Set$ be a representable (contravariant) functor with representative $X in mathcal C$. Prove that $H circ G$ is representable by $F(X)$.




$DeclareMathOperatorHom{Hom}$As ismorphisms are transitive, it suffices to consider the case when $H = Hom( -, X)$. To this end, we wish to find $phi : Hom(-,X) circ G to Hom(-,F(X))$ an ismorphism, from which we quickly deduce that for any $f: B to A$ and $g: GA to X$ it must be that $phi_A(g) circ f = phi_B(g circ Gf)$. I am not sure how to dind such a $phi$ though. It seems like I have to somehow use the fact that $F$ and $G$ are quasi-inverses...










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Start with the map, then prove it's an isomorphism, then that it's natural. Given $Y$ and $fin (Hom(-,X)circ G)(Y)=Hom(G(Y),X))$, how do you get a corresponding element of $Hom(-,F(X))(Y)=Hom(Y,F(X))$?
    – Kevin Carlson
    Oct 22 at 7:31










  • Thanks @KevinCarlson, could you elaborate as an answer? I tried $Y to G(Y) to GFG(Y) to G(Y) to X to F(X)$ but I am not sure whether flapping down the FG part (from $GFG(Y)$ to $G(Y)$) is justified, since it's inside.
    – Cute Brownie
    Oct 22 at 7:43










  • Those arrows can't possible all mean the same thing. For instance, $Y$ and $G(Y)$ aren't in the same category, while the middle four objects are...It seems like you might be a bit confused about the basic definitions around functors. I'm unlikely to write out a full answer, because I'm doubtful whether either you or the community would benefit much from that. You've been asking a whole lot of questions in a row that you'll be able to solve handily on your own with a bit more conceptual clarification. But I'm happy to try to clarify further and maybe someone else will write an answer.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Oct 22 at 7:53












  • @KevinCarlson, thank you for your comment. Unfortunately I am very new to category theory (I am only 2 weeks from starting it) and even this basic questuon confuses me, I have literally been trying this question for hours - I didn't post this problem because I was being lazy. If you could please clarify your answer that would be great.
    – Cute Brownie
    Oct 22 at 8:00










  • I do get the basic idea here, that F and G are "almost" inverses, so that we can essentially "backtrack" to get the desired "equality" (i.e. isomorphism) we want. However, I am struggling to get the details right...
    – Cute Brownie
    Oct 22 at 8:02













up vote
1
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up vote
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favorite












Let $F: mathcal C to mathcal D$ and $G: mathcal D to mathcal C$ be quasi-inverse functors, and let $H : mathcal C to Set$ be a representable (contravariant) functor with representative $X in mathcal C$. Prove that $H circ G$ is representable by $F(X)$.




$DeclareMathOperatorHom{Hom}$As ismorphisms are transitive, it suffices to consider the case when $H = Hom( -, X)$. To this end, we wish to find $phi : Hom(-,X) circ G to Hom(-,F(X))$ an ismorphism, from which we quickly deduce that for any $f: B to A$ and $g: GA to X$ it must be that $phi_A(g) circ f = phi_B(g circ Gf)$. I am not sure how to dind such a $phi$ though. It seems like I have to somehow use the fact that $F$ and $G$ are quasi-inverses...










share|cite|improve this question
















Let $F: mathcal C to mathcal D$ and $G: mathcal D to mathcal C$ be quasi-inverse functors, and let $H : mathcal C to Set$ be a representable (contravariant) functor with representative $X in mathcal C$. Prove that $H circ G$ is representable by $F(X)$.




$DeclareMathOperatorHom{Hom}$As ismorphisms are transitive, it suffices to consider the case when $H = Hom( -, X)$. To this end, we wish to find $phi : Hom(-,X) circ G to Hom(-,F(X))$ an ismorphism, from which we quickly deduce that for any $f: B to A$ and $g: GA to X$ it must be that $phi_A(g) circ f = phi_B(g circ Gf)$. I am not sure how to dind such a $phi$ though. It seems like I have to somehow use the fact that $F$ and $G$ are quasi-inverses...







category-theory representable-functor






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edited Oct 22 at 7:45









Fabio Lucchini

7,81311326




7,81311326










asked Oct 22 at 6:23









Cute Brownie

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980316












  • Start with the map, then prove it's an isomorphism, then that it's natural. Given $Y$ and $fin (Hom(-,X)circ G)(Y)=Hom(G(Y),X))$, how do you get a corresponding element of $Hom(-,F(X))(Y)=Hom(Y,F(X))$?
    – Kevin Carlson
    Oct 22 at 7:31










  • Thanks @KevinCarlson, could you elaborate as an answer? I tried $Y to G(Y) to GFG(Y) to G(Y) to X to F(X)$ but I am not sure whether flapping down the FG part (from $GFG(Y)$ to $G(Y)$) is justified, since it's inside.
    – Cute Brownie
    Oct 22 at 7:43










  • Those arrows can't possible all mean the same thing. For instance, $Y$ and $G(Y)$ aren't in the same category, while the middle four objects are...It seems like you might be a bit confused about the basic definitions around functors. I'm unlikely to write out a full answer, because I'm doubtful whether either you or the community would benefit much from that. You've been asking a whole lot of questions in a row that you'll be able to solve handily on your own with a bit more conceptual clarification. But I'm happy to try to clarify further and maybe someone else will write an answer.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Oct 22 at 7:53












  • @KevinCarlson, thank you for your comment. Unfortunately I am very new to category theory (I am only 2 weeks from starting it) and even this basic questuon confuses me, I have literally been trying this question for hours - I didn't post this problem because I was being lazy. If you could please clarify your answer that would be great.
    – Cute Brownie
    Oct 22 at 8:00










  • I do get the basic idea here, that F and G are "almost" inverses, so that we can essentially "backtrack" to get the desired "equality" (i.e. isomorphism) we want. However, I am struggling to get the details right...
    – Cute Brownie
    Oct 22 at 8:02


















  • Start with the map, then prove it's an isomorphism, then that it's natural. Given $Y$ and $fin (Hom(-,X)circ G)(Y)=Hom(G(Y),X))$, how do you get a corresponding element of $Hom(-,F(X))(Y)=Hom(Y,F(X))$?
    – Kevin Carlson
    Oct 22 at 7:31










  • Thanks @KevinCarlson, could you elaborate as an answer? I tried $Y to G(Y) to GFG(Y) to G(Y) to X to F(X)$ but I am not sure whether flapping down the FG part (from $GFG(Y)$ to $G(Y)$) is justified, since it's inside.
    – Cute Brownie
    Oct 22 at 7:43










  • Those arrows can't possible all mean the same thing. For instance, $Y$ and $G(Y)$ aren't in the same category, while the middle four objects are...It seems like you might be a bit confused about the basic definitions around functors. I'm unlikely to write out a full answer, because I'm doubtful whether either you or the community would benefit much from that. You've been asking a whole lot of questions in a row that you'll be able to solve handily on your own with a bit more conceptual clarification. But I'm happy to try to clarify further and maybe someone else will write an answer.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Oct 22 at 7:53












  • @KevinCarlson, thank you for your comment. Unfortunately I am very new to category theory (I am only 2 weeks from starting it) and even this basic questuon confuses me, I have literally been trying this question for hours - I didn't post this problem because I was being lazy. If you could please clarify your answer that would be great.
    – Cute Brownie
    Oct 22 at 8:00










  • I do get the basic idea here, that F and G are "almost" inverses, so that we can essentially "backtrack" to get the desired "equality" (i.e. isomorphism) we want. However, I am struggling to get the details right...
    – Cute Brownie
    Oct 22 at 8:02
















Start with the map, then prove it's an isomorphism, then that it's natural. Given $Y$ and $fin (Hom(-,X)circ G)(Y)=Hom(G(Y),X))$, how do you get a corresponding element of $Hom(-,F(X))(Y)=Hom(Y,F(X))$?
– Kevin Carlson
Oct 22 at 7:31




Start with the map, then prove it's an isomorphism, then that it's natural. Given $Y$ and $fin (Hom(-,X)circ G)(Y)=Hom(G(Y),X))$, how do you get a corresponding element of $Hom(-,F(X))(Y)=Hom(Y,F(X))$?
– Kevin Carlson
Oct 22 at 7:31












Thanks @KevinCarlson, could you elaborate as an answer? I tried $Y to G(Y) to GFG(Y) to G(Y) to X to F(X)$ but I am not sure whether flapping down the FG part (from $GFG(Y)$ to $G(Y)$) is justified, since it's inside.
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 7:43




Thanks @KevinCarlson, could you elaborate as an answer? I tried $Y to G(Y) to GFG(Y) to G(Y) to X to F(X)$ but I am not sure whether flapping down the FG part (from $GFG(Y)$ to $G(Y)$) is justified, since it's inside.
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 7:43












Those arrows can't possible all mean the same thing. For instance, $Y$ and $G(Y)$ aren't in the same category, while the middle four objects are...It seems like you might be a bit confused about the basic definitions around functors. I'm unlikely to write out a full answer, because I'm doubtful whether either you or the community would benefit much from that. You've been asking a whole lot of questions in a row that you'll be able to solve handily on your own with a bit more conceptual clarification. But I'm happy to try to clarify further and maybe someone else will write an answer.
– Kevin Carlson
Oct 22 at 7:53






Those arrows can't possible all mean the same thing. For instance, $Y$ and $G(Y)$ aren't in the same category, while the middle four objects are...It seems like you might be a bit confused about the basic definitions around functors. I'm unlikely to write out a full answer, because I'm doubtful whether either you or the community would benefit much from that. You've been asking a whole lot of questions in a row that you'll be able to solve handily on your own with a bit more conceptual clarification. But I'm happy to try to clarify further and maybe someone else will write an answer.
– Kevin Carlson
Oct 22 at 7:53














@KevinCarlson, thank you for your comment. Unfortunately I am very new to category theory (I am only 2 weeks from starting it) and even this basic questuon confuses me, I have literally been trying this question for hours - I didn't post this problem because I was being lazy. If you could please clarify your answer that would be great.
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 8:00




@KevinCarlson, thank you for your comment. Unfortunately I am very new to category theory (I am only 2 weeks from starting it) and even this basic questuon confuses me, I have literally been trying this question for hours - I didn't post this problem because I was being lazy. If you could please clarify your answer that would be great.
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 8:00












I do get the basic idea here, that F and G are "almost" inverses, so that we can essentially "backtrack" to get the desired "equality" (i.e. isomorphism) we want. However, I am struggling to get the details right...
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 8:02




I do get the basic idea here, that F and G are "almost" inverses, so that we can essentially "backtrack" to get the desired "equality" (i.e. isomorphism) we want. However, I am struggling to get the details right...
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 8:02










2 Answers
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HINT: The map $phi$ is defined, if $f:G(Y)to X$, by $phi(f)=F(f)circ varepsilon^{-1}_Y$. Here, $varepsilon^{-1}_Y:Yto FG(Y)$ is the inverse of the "counit of the adjunction", that is, one of the natural isomorphisms that proves that $F$ and $G$ are quasi-inverses. In the other direction, $phi^{-1}$ sends $g:Yto F(X)$ to $eta_X^{-1}circ G(g)$, where $G(g):G(Y)to GF(X)$ and $eta_X:Xto GF(X)$ is the other natural isomorphism coming with the equivalence. Now you just have to check that $phi$ and $phi^{-1}$ are mutually inverse and (that one, thus the other is) natural.






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    $newcommandcatmathscrDeclareMathOperatorid{id}$Let $F:cat Crightleftarrowscat D:G$ be quasi-inverse functors.
    Then $F,G$ are fully faithful and there exists natural isomorphisms $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ and $eta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ such that
    begin{align}
    &eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G&
    &F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F
    end{align}




    Proof.
    Let $bareta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ be a natural isomorphism.



    The functor $F$ is faithful, for if $u,v:Arightrightarrows B$ and $F(u)=F(v)$ then
    begin{align}
    ubareta_B
    &=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(u)\
    &=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(v)\
    &=vbareta_B
    end{align}

    which implies $u=v$. Similarly, $G$ is faithful.



    The functor $F$ is full, for if $y:F(A)to F(B)$ and $x=bareta_AG(y)bareta_B^{-1}$, then
    begin{align}
    bareta_A(Gcirc F)(x)
    &=xbareta_B\
    &=bareta_AG(y)
    end{align}

    which implies $y=F(x)$ (since $G$ is faithful).



    Let $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ be a natural isomorphism.
    Since $F$ is full and faithful, for each object $A$ in $cat C$ there exists one and only one isomorphism $eta_A:Ato (Gcirc F)(A)$ such that $F(eta_A)=varepsilon_{F(A)}^{-1}$.
    Then $eta:id_{cat C}to Gcirc F$ is a natural isomorphism (again using faithfulness of $F $) and $F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F$.



    By naturalness of $varepsilon$, we have $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}varepsilon=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)varepsilon$ from which we get $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)$.
    Consequently,
    begin{align}
    F(eta_GG(varepsilon))
    &=F(eta_G)(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)\
    &=F(eta_G)varepsilon_{Fcirc G}\
    &=1_{Fcirc G}\
    &=F(1_G)
    end{align}

    from which $eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G$. $square$



    $DeclareMathOperatorHom{Hom} $For all objects $A$ of $cat C$ we define
    begin{align}
    &varphi_A:Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X)toHom_{cat D}(A,F(X))&
    &fmapstovarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)
    end{align}

    and
    begin{align}
    &psi_A:Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))toHom_{cat C}(G(A),X)&
    &gmapsto G(g)eta_X^{-1}
    end{align}



    We have to show that $varphi_A$ is natural in $A$ and $varphi_Acircpsi_A$ and $psi_Acircvarphi_A$ are identity functions.



    For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
    begin{align}
    (psi_Acircvarphi_A)(f)
    &=G(varepsilon_A^{-1}F(f))eta_X^{-1}\
    &=G(varepsilon_A)^{-1}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
    &=eta_{G(A)}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
    &=feta_Xeta_X^{-1}\
    &=f
    end{align}



    For all $g:Ato F(X)$ we have
    begin{align}
    (varphi_Acircpsi_A)(g)
    &=varepsilon_A^{-1}F(G(g)eta_X^{-1})\
    &=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)F(eta_X)^{-1}\
    &=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)varepsilon_{F(X)}\
    &=varepsilon_A^{-1}varepsilon_Ag\
    &=g
    end{align}



    Let $u:Bto A$ be a morphism in $cat C$.
    Then naturalness of $varphi_A$ means
    $$require{AMScd}
    begin{CD}
    Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X) @>varphi_A>> Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))\
    @VVV @VVV\
    Hom_{cat C}(G(B),X) @>>varphi_B> Hom_{cat D}(B,F(X))
    end{CD}$$

    For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
    begin{align}
    varphi_B(G(u)f)
    &=varepsilon_B^{-1}F(G(u)f)\
    &=varepsilon_B^{-1}(Fcirc G)(u)F(f)\
    &=uvarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)\
    &=uvarphi_A(f)
    end{align}






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      2 Answers
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      HINT: The map $phi$ is defined, if $f:G(Y)to X$, by $phi(f)=F(f)circ varepsilon^{-1}_Y$. Here, $varepsilon^{-1}_Y:Yto FG(Y)$ is the inverse of the "counit of the adjunction", that is, one of the natural isomorphisms that proves that $F$ and $G$ are quasi-inverses. In the other direction, $phi^{-1}$ sends $g:Yto F(X)$ to $eta_X^{-1}circ G(g)$, where $G(g):G(Y)to GF(X)$ and $eta_X:Xto GF(X)$ is the other natural isomorphism coming with the equivalence. Now you just have to check that $phi$ and $phi^{-1}$ are mutually inverse and (that one, thus the other is) natural.






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        HINT: The map $phi$ is defined, if $f:G(Y)to X$, by $phi(f)=F(f)circ varepsilon^{-1}_Y$. Here, $varepsilon^{-1}_Y:Yto FG(Y)$ is the inverse of the "counit of the adjunction", that is, one of the natural isomorphisms that proves that $F$ and $G$ are quasi-inverses. In the other direction, $phi^{-1}$ sends $g:Yto F(X)$ to $eta_X^{-1}circ G(g)$, where $G(g):G(Y)to GF(X)$ and $eta_X:Xto GF(X)$ is the other natural isomorphism coming with the equivalence. Now you just have to check that $phi$ and $phi^{-1}$ are mutually inverse and (that one, thus the other is) natural.






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          HINT: The map $phi$ is defined, if $f:G(Y)to X$, by $phi(f)=F(f)circ varepsilon^{-1}_Y$. Here, $varepsilon^{-1}_Y:Yto FG(Y)$ is the inverse of the "counit of the adjunction", that is, one of the natural isomorphisms that proves that $F$ and $G$ are quasi-inverses. In the other direction, $phi^{-1}$ sends $g:Yto F(X)$ to $eta_X^{-1}circ G(g)$, where $G(g):G(Y)to GF(X)$ and $eta_X:Xto GF(X)$ is the other natural isomorphism coming with the equivalence. Now you just have to check that $phi$ and $phi^{-1}$ are mutually inverse and (that one, thus the other is) natural.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          HINT: The map $phi$ is defined, if $f:G(Y)to X$, by $phi(f)=F(f)circ varepsilon^{-1}_Y$. Here, $varepsilon^{-1}_Y:Yto FG(Y)$ is the inverse of the "counit of the adjunction", that is, one of the natural isomorphisms that proves that $F$ and $G$ are quasi-inverses. In the other direction, $phi^{-1}$ sends $g:Yto F(X)$ to $eta_X^{-1}circ G(g)$, where $G(g):G(Y)to GF(X)$ and $eta_X:Xto GF(X)$ is the other natural isomorphism coming with the equivalence. Now you just have to check that $phi$ and $phi^{-1}$ are mutually inverse and (that one, thus the other is) natural.







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          answered Oct 22 at 8:31









          Kevin Carlson

          32.2k23270




          32.2k23270






















              up vote
              1
              down vote














              $newcommandcatmathscrDeclareMathOperatorid{id}$Let $F:cat Crightleftarrowscat D:G$ be quasi-inverse functors.
              Then $F,G$ are fully faithful and there exists natural isomorphisms $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ and $eta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ such that
              begin{align}
              &eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G&
              &F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F
              end{align}




              Proof.
              Let $bareta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ be a natural isomorphism.



              The functor $F$ is faithful, for if $u,v:Arightrightarrows B$ and $F(u)=F(v)$ then
              begin{align}
              ubareta_B
              &=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(u)\
              &=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(v)\
              &=vbareta_B
              end{align}

              which implies $u=v$. Similarly, $G$ is faithful.



              The functor $F$ is full, for if $y:F(A)to F(B)$ and $x=bareta_AG(y)bareta_B^{-1}$, then
              begin{align}
              bareta_A(Gcirc F)(x)
              &=xbareta_B\
              &=bareta_AG(y)
              end{align}

              which implies $y=F(x)$ (since $G$ is faithful).



              Let $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ be a natural isomorphism.
              Since $F$ is full and faithful, for each object $A$ in $cat C$ there exists one and only one isomorphism $eta_A:Ato (Gcirc F)(A)$ such that $F(eta_A)=varepsilon_{F(A)}^{-1}$.
              Then $eta:id_{cat C}to Gcirc F$ is a natural isomorphism (again using faithfulness of $F $) and $F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F$.



              By naturalness of $varepsilon$, we have $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}varepsilon=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)varepsilon$ from which we get $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)$.
              Consequently,
              begin{align}
              F(eta_GG(varepsilon))
              &=F(eta_G)(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)\
              &=F(eta_G)varepsilon_{Fcirc G}\
              &=1_{Fcirc G}\
              &=F(1_G)
              end{align}

              from which $eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G$. $square$



              $DeclareMathOperatorHom{Hom} $For all objects $A$ of $cat C$ we define
              begin{align}
              &varphi_A:Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X)toHom_{cat D}(A,F(X))&
              &fmapstovarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)
              end{align}

              and
              begin{align}
              &psi_A:Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))toHom_{cat C}(G(A),X)&
              &gmapsto G(g)eta_X^{-1}
              end{align}



              We have to show that $varphi_A$ is natural in $A$ and $varphi_Acircpsi_A$ and $psi_Acircvarphi_A$ are identity functions.



              For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
              begin{align}
              (psi_Acircvarphi_A)(f)
              &=G(varepsilon_A^{-1}F(f))eta_X^{-1}\
              &=G(varepsilon_A)^{-1}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
              &=eta_{G(A)}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
              &=feta_Xeta_X^{-1}\
              &=f
              end{align}



              For all $g:Ato F(X)$ we have
              begin{align}
              (varphi_Acircpsi_A)(g)
              &=varepsilon_A^{-1}F(G(g)eta_X^{-1})\
              &=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)F(eta_X)^{-1}\
              &=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)varepsilon_{F(X)}\
              &=varepsilon_A^{-1}varepsilon_Ag\
              &=g
              end{align}



              Let $u:Bto A$ be a morphism in $cat C$.
              Then naturalness of $varphi_A$ means
              $$require{AMScd}
              begin{CD}
              Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X) @>varphi_A>> Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))\
              @VVV @VVV\
              Hom_{cat C}(G(B),X) @>>varphi_B> Hom_{cat D}(B,F(X))
              end{CD}$$

              For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
              begin{align}
              varphi_B(G(u)f)
              &=varepsilon_B^{-1}F(G(u)f)\
              &=varepsilon_B^{-1}(Fcirc G)(u)F(f)\
              &=uvarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)\
              &=uvarphi_A(f)
              end{align}






              share|cite|improve this answer



























                up vote
                1
                down vote














                $newcommandcatmathscrDeclareMathOperatorid{id}$Let $F:cat Crightleftarrowscat D:G$ be quasi-inverse functors.
                Then $F,G$ are fully faithful and there exists natural isomorphisms $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ and $eta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ such that
                begin{align}
                &eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G&
                &F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F
                end{align}




                Proof.
                Let $bareta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ be a natural isomorphism.



                The functor $F$ is faithful, for if $u,v:Arightrightarrows B$ and $F(u)=F(v)$ then
                begin{align}
                ubareta_B
                &=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(u)\
                &=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(v)\
                &=vbareta_B
                end{align}

                which implies $u=v$. Similarly, $G$ is faithful.



                The functor $F$ is full, for if $y:F(A)to F(B)$ and $x=bareta_AG(y)bareta_B^{-1}$, then
                begin{align}
                bareta_A(Gcirc F)(x)
                &=xbareta_B\
                &=bareta_AG(y)
                end{align}

                which implies $y=F(x)$ (since $G$ is faithful).



                Let $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ be a natural isomorphism.
                Since $F$ is full and faithful, for each object $A$ in $cat C$ there exists one and only one isomorphism $eta_A:Ato (Gcirc F)(A)$ such that $F(eta_A)=varepsilon_{F(A)}^{-1}$.
                Then $eta:id_{cat C}to Gcirc F$ is a natural isomorphism (again using faithfulness of $F $) and $F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F$.



                By naturalness of $varepsilon$, we have $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}varepsilon=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)varepsilon$ from which we get $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)$.
                Consequently,
                begin{align}
                F(eta_GG(varepsilon))
                &=F(eta_G)(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)\
                &=F(eta_G)varepsilon_{Fcirc G}\
                &=1_{Fcirc G}\
                &=F(1_G)
                end{align}

                from which $eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G$. $square$



                $DeclareMathOperatorHom{Hom} $For all objects $A$ of $cat C$ we define
                begin{align}
                &varphi_A:Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X)toHom_{cat D}(A,F(X))&
                &fmapstovarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)
                end{align}

                and
                begin{align}
                &psi_A:Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))toHom_{cat C}(G(A),X)&
                &gmapsto G(g)eta_X^{-1}
                end{align}



                We have to show that $varphi_A$ is natural in $A$ and $varphi_Acircpsi_A$ and $psi_Acircvarphi_A$ are identity functions.



                For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
                begin{align}
                (psi_Acircvarphi_A)(f)
                &=G(varepsilon_A^{-1}F(f))eta_X^{-1}\
                &=G(varepsilon_A)^{-1}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
                &=eta_{G(A)}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
                &=feta_Xeta_X^{-1}\
                &=f
                end{align}



                For all $g:Ato F(X)$ we have
                begin{align}
                (varphi_Acircpsi_A)(g)
                &=varepsilon_A^{-1}F(G(g)eta_X^{-1})\
                &=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)F(eta_X)^{-1}\
                &=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)varepsilon_{F(X)}\
                &=varepsilon_A^{-1}varepsilon_Ag\
                &=g
                end{align}



                Let $u:Bto A$ be a morphism in $cat C$.
                Then naturalness of $varphi_A$ means
                $$require{AMScd}
                begin{CD}
                Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X) @>varphi_A>> Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))\
                @VVV @VVV\
                Hom_{cat C}(G(B),X) @>>varphi_B> Hom_{cat D}(B,F(X))
                end{CD}$$

                For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
                begin{align}
                varphi_B(G(u)f)
                &=varepsilon_B^{-1}F(G(u)f)\
                &=varepsilon_B^{-1}(Fcirc G)(u)F(f)\
                &=uvarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)\
                &=uvarphi_A(f)
                end{align}






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  $newcommandcatmathscrDeclareMathOperatorid{id}$Let $F:cat Crightleftarrowscat D:G$ be quasi-inverse functors.
                  Then $F,G$ are fully faithful and there exists natural isomorphisms $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ and $eta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ such that
                  begin{align}
                  &eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G&
                  &F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F
                  end{align}




                  Proof.
                  Let $bareta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ be a natural isomorphism.



                  The functor $F$ is faithful, for if $u,v:Arightrightarrows B$ and $F(u)=F(v)$ then
                  begin{align}
                  ubareta_B
                  &=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(u)\
                  &=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(v)\
                  &=vbareta_B
                  end{align}

                  which implies $u=v$. Similarly, $G$ is faithful.



                  The functor $F$ is full, for if $y:F(A)to F(B)$ and $x=bareta_AG(y)bareta_B^{-1}$, then
                  begin{align}
                  bareta_A(Gcirc F)(x)
                  &=xbareta_B\
                  &=bareta_AG(y)
                  end{align}

                  which implies $y=F(x)$ (since $G$ is faithful).



                  Let $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ be a natural isomorphism.
                  Since $F$ is full and faithful, for each object $A$ in $cat C$ there exists one and only one isomorphism $eta_A:Ato (Gcirc F)(A)$ such that $F(eta_A)=varepsilon_{F(A)}^{-1}$.
                  Then $eta:id_{cat C}to Gcirc F$ is a natural isomorphism (again using faithfulness of $F $) and $F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F$.



                  By naturalness of $varepsilon$, we have $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}varepsilon=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)varepsilon$ from which we get $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)$.
                  Consequently,
                  begin{align}
                  F(eta_GG(varepsilon))
                  &=F(eta_G)(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)\
                  &=F(eta_G)varepsilon_{Fcirc G}\
                  &=1_{Fcirc G}\
                  &=F(1_G)
                  end{align}

                  from which $eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G$. $square$



                  $DeclareMathOperatorHom{Hom} $For all objects $A$ of $cat C$ we define
                  begin{align}
                  &varphi_A:Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X)toHom_{cat D}(A,F(X))&
                  &fmapstovarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)
                  end{align}

                  and
                  begin{align}
                  &psi_A:Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))toHom_{cat C}(G(A),X)&
                  &gmapsto G(g)eta_X^{-1}
                  end{align}



                  We have to show that $varphi_A$ is natural in $A$ and $varphi_Acircpsi_A$ and $psi_Acircvarphi_A$ are identity functions.



                  For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
                  begin{align}
                  (psi_Acircvarphi_A)(f)
                  &=G(varepsilon_A^{-1}F(f))eta_X^{-1}\
                  &=G(varepsilon_A)^{-1}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
                  &=eta_{G(A)}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
                  &=feta_Xeta_X^{-1}\
                  &=f
                  end{align}



                  For all $g:Ato F(X)$ we have
                  begin{align}
                  (varphi_Acircpsi_A)(g)
                  &=varepsilon_A^{-1}F(G(g)eta_X^{-1})\
                  &=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)F(eta_X)^{-1}\
                  &=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)varepsilon_{F(X)}\
                  &=varepsilon_A^{-1}varepsilon_Ag\
                  &=g
                  end{align}



                  Let $u:Bto A$ be a morphism in $cat C$.
                  Then naturalness of $varphi_A$ means
                  $$require{AMScd}
                  begin{CD}
                  Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X) @>varphi_A>> Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))\
                  @VVV @VVV\
                  Hom_{cat C}(G(B),X) @>>varphi_B> Hom_{cat D}(B,F(X))
                  end{CD}$$

                  For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
                  begin{align}
                  varphi_B(G(u)f)
                  &=varepsilon_B^{-1}F(G(u)f)\
                  &=varepsilon_B^{-1}(Fcirc G)(u)F(f)\
                  &=uvarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)\
                  &=uvarphi_A(f)
                  end{align}






                  share|cite|improve this answer















                  $newcommandcatmathscrDeclareMathOperatorid{id}$Let $F:cat Crightleftarrowscat D:G$ be quasi-inverse functors.
                  Then $F,G$ are fully faithful and there exists natural isomorphisms $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ and $eta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ such that
                  begin{align}
                  &eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G&
                  &F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F
                  end{align}




                  Proof.
                  Let $bareta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ be a natural isomorphism.



                  The functor $F$ is faithful, for if $u,v:Arightrightarrows B$ and $F(u)=F(v)$ then
                  begin{align}
                  ubareta_B
                  &=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(u)\
                  &=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(v)\
                  &=vbareta_B
                  end{align}

                  which implies $u=v$. Similarly, $G$ is faithful.



                  The functor $F$ is full, for if $y:F(A)to F(B)$ and $x=bareta_AG(y)bareta_B^{-1}$, then
                  begin{align}
                  bareta_A(Gcirc F)(x)
                  &=xbareta_B\
                  &=bareta_AG(y)
                  end{align}

                  which implies $y=F(x)$ (since $G$ is faithful).



                  Let $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ be a natural isomorphism.
                  Since $F$ is full and faithful, for each object $A$ in $cat C$ there exists one and only one isomorphism $eta_A:Ato (Gcirc F)(A)$ such that $F(eta_A)=varepsilon_{F(A)}^{-1}$.
                  Then $eta:id_{cat C}to Gcirc F$ is a natural isomorphism (again using faithfulness of $F $) and $F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F$.



                  By naturalness of $varepsilon$, we have $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}varepsilon=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)varepsilon$ from which we get $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)$.
                  Consequently,
                  begin{align}
                  F(eta_GG(varepsilon))
                  &=F(eta_G)(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)\
                  &=F(eta_G)varepsilon_{Fcirc G}\
                  &=1_{Fcirc G}\
                  &=F(1_G)
                  end{align}

                  from which $eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G$. $square$



                  $DeclareMathOperatorHom{Hom} $For all objects $A$ of $cat C$ we define
                  begin{align}
                  &varphi_A:Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X)toHom_{cat D}(A,F(X))&
                  &fmapstovarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)
                  end{align}

                  and
                  begin{align}
                  &psi_A:Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))toHom_{cat C}(G(A),X)&
                  &gmapsto G(g)eta_X^{-1}
                  end{align}



                  We have to show that $varphi_A$ is natural in $A$ and $varphi_Acircpsi_A$ and $psi_Acircvarphi_A$ are identity functions.



                  For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
                  begin{align}
                  (psi_Acircvarphi_A)(f)
                  &=G(varepsilon_A^{-1}F(f))eta_X^{-1}\
                  &=G(varepsilon_A)^{-1}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
                  &=eta_{G(A)}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
                  &=feta_Xeta_X^{-1}\
                  &=f
                  end{align}



                  For all $g:Ato F(X)$ we have
                  begin{align}
                  (varphi_Acircpsi_A)(g)
                  &=varepsilon_A^{-1}F(G(g)eta_X^{-1})\
                  &=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)F(eta_X)^{-1}\
                  &=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)varepsilon_{F(X)}\
                  &=varepsilon_A^{-1}varepsilon_Ag\
                  &=g
                  end{align}



                  Let $u:Bto A$ be a morphism in $cat C$.
                  Then naturalness of $varphi_A$ means
                  $$require{AMScd}
                  begin{CD}
                  Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X) @>varphi_A>> Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))\
                  @VVV @VVV\
                  Hom_{cat C}(G(B),X) @>>varphi_B> Hom_{cat D}(B,F(X))
                  end{CD}$$

                  For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
                  begin{align}
                  varphi_B(G(u)f)
                  &=varepsilon_B^{-1}F(G(u)f)\
                  &=varepsilon_B^{-1}(Fcirc G)(u)F(f)\
                  &=uvarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)\
                  &=uvarphi_A(f)
                  end{align}







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Nov 20 at 17:45









                  darij grinberg

                  10.2k33061




                  10.2k33061










                  answered Oct 24 at 9:48









                  Fabio Lucchini

                  7,81311326




                  7,81311326






























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