Category theory - Prove that $operatorname{Hom}$ preserves representations for quasi-inverse functors
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Let $F: mathcal C to mathcal D$ and $G: mathcal D to mathcal C$ be quasi-inverse functors, and let $H : mathcal C to Set$ be a representable (contravariant) functor with representative $X in mathcal C$. Prove that $H circ G$ is representable by $F(X)$.
$DeclareMathOperatorHom{Hom}$As ismorphisms are transitive, it suffices to consider the case when $H = Hom( -, X)$. To this end, we wish to find $phi : Hom(-,X) circ G to Hom(-,F(X))$ an ismorphism, from which we quickly deduce that for any $f: B to A$ and $g: GA to X$ it must be that $phi_A(g) circ f = phi_B(g circ Gf)$. I am not sure how to dind such a $phi$ though. It seems like I have to somehow use the fact that $F$ and $G$ are quasi-inverses...
category-theory representable-functor
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Let $F: mathcal C to mathcal D$ and $G: mathcal D to mathcal C$ be quasi-inverse functors, and let $H : mathcal C to Set$ be a representable (contravariant) functor with representative $X in mathcal C$. Prove that $H circ G$ is representable by $F(X)$.
$DeclareMathOperatorHom{Hom}$As ismorphisms are transitive, it suffices to consider the case when $H = Hom( -, X)$. To this end, we wish to find $phi : Hom(-,X) circ G to Hom(-,F(X))$ an ismorphism, from which we quickly deduce that for any $f: B to A$ and $g: GA to X$ it must be that $phi_A(g) circ f = phi_B(g circ Gf)$. I am not sure how to dind such a $phi$ though. It seems like I have to somehow use the fact that $F$ and $G$ are quasi-inverses...
category-theory representable-functor
Start with the map, then prove it's an isomorphism, then that it's natural. Given $Y$ and $fin (Hom(-,X)circ G)(Y)=Hom(G(Y),X))$, how do you get a corresponding element of $Hom(-,F(X))(Y)=Hom(Y,F(X))$?
– Kevin Carlson
Oct 22 at 7:31
Thanks @KevinCarlson, could you elaborate as an answer? I tried $Y to G(Y) to GFG(Y) to G(Y) to X to F(X)$ but I am not sure whether flapping down the FG part (from $GFG(Y)$ to $G(Y)$) is justified, since it's inside.
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 7:43
Those arrows can't possible all mean the same thing. For instance, $Y$ and $G(Y)$ aren't in the same category, while the middle four objects are...It seems like you might be a bit confused about the basic definitions around functors. I'm unlikely to write out a full answer, because I'm doubtful whether either you or the community would benefit much from that. You've been asking a whole lot of questions in a row that you'll be able to solve handily on your own with a bit more conceptual clarification. But I'm happy to try to clarify further and maybe someone else will write an answer.
– Kevin Carlson
Oct 22 at 7:53
@KevinCarlson, thank you for your comment. Unfortunately I am very new to category theory (I am only 2 weeks from starting it) and even this basic questuon confuses me, I have literally been trying this question for hours - I didn't post this problem because I was being lazy. If you could please clarify your answer that would be great.
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 8:00
I do get the basic idea here, that F and G are "almost" inverses, so that we can essentially "backtrack" to get the desired "equality" (i.e. isomorphism) we want. However, I am struggling to get the details right...
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 8:02
|
show 2 more comments
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1
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Let $F: mathcal C to mathcal D$ and $G: mathcal D to mathcal C$ be quasi-inverse functors, and let $H : mathcal C to Set$ be a representable (contravariant) functor with representative $X in mathcal C$. Prove that $H circ G$ is representable by $F(X)$.
$DeclareMathOperatorHom{Hom}$As ismorphisms are transitive, it suffices to consider the case when $H = Hom( -, X)$. To this end, we wish to find $phi : Hom(-,X) circ G to Hom(-,F(X))$ an ismorphism, from which we quickly deduce that for any $f: B to A$ and $g: GA to X$ it must be that $phi_A(g) circ f = phi_B(g circ Gf)$. I am not sure how to dind such a $phi$ though. It seems like I have to somehow use the fact that $F$ and $G$ are quasi-inverses...
category-theory representable-functor
Let $F: mathcal C to mathcal D$ and $G: mathcal D to mathcal C$ be quasi-inverse functors, and let $H : mathcal C to Set$ be a representable (contravariant) functor with representative $X in mathcal C$. Prove that $H circ G$ is representable by $F(X)$.
$DeclareMathOperatorHom{Hom}$As ismorphisms are transitive, it suffices to consider the case when $H = Hom( -, X)$. To this end, we wish to find $phi : Hom(-,X) circ G to Hom(-,F(X))$ an ismorphism, from which we quickly deduce that for any $f: B to A$ and $g: GA to X$ it must be that $phi_A(g) circ f = phi_B(g circ Gf)$. I am not sure how to dind such a $phi$ though. It seems like I have to somehow use the fact that $F$ and $G$ are quasi-inverses...
category-theory representable-functor
category-theory representable-functor
edited Oct 22 at 7:45
Fabio Lucchini
7,81311326
7,81311326
asked Oct 22 at 6:23
Cute Brownie
980316
980316
Start with the map, then prove it's an isomorphism, then that it's natural. Given $Y$ and $fin (Hom(-,X)circ G)(Y)=Hom(G(Y),X))$, how do you get a corresponding element of $Hom(-,F(X))(Y)=Hom(Y,F(X))$?
– Kevin Carlson
Oct 22 at 7:31
Thanks @KevinCarlson, could you elaborate as an answer? I tried $Y to G(Y) to GFG(Y) to G(Y) to X to F(X)$ but I am not sure whether flapping down the FG part (from $GFG(Y)$ to $G(Y)$) is justified, since it's inside.
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 7:43
Those arrows can't possible all mean the same thing. For instance, $Y$ and $G(Y)$ aren't in the same category, while the middle four objects are...It seems like you might be a bit confused about the basic definitions around functors. I'm unlikely to write out a full answer, because I'm doubtful whether either you or the community would benefit much from that. You've been asking a whole lot of questions in a row that you'll be able to solve handily on your own with a bit more conceptual clarification. But I'm happy to try to clarify further and maybe someone else will write an answer.
– Kevin Carlson
Oct 22 at 7:53
@KevinCarlson, thank you for your comment. Unfortunately I am very new to category theory (I am only 2 weeks from starting it) and even this basic questuon confuses me, I have literally been trying this question for hours - I didn't post this problem because I was being lazy. If you could please clarify your answer that would be great.
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 8:00
I do get the basic idea here, that F and G are "almost" inverses, so that we can essentially "backtrack" to get the desired "equality" (i.e. isomorphism) we want. However, I am struggling to get the details right...
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 8:02
|
show 2 more comments
Start with the map, then prove it's an isomorphism, then that it's natural. Given $Y$ and $fin (Hom(-,X)circ G)(Y)=Hom(G(Y),X))$, how do you get a corresponding element of $Hom(-,F(X))(Y)=Hom(Y,F(X))$?
– Kevin Carlson
Oct 22 at 7:31
Thanks @KevinCarlson, could you elaborate as an answer? I tried $Y to G(Y) to GFG(Y) to G(Y) to X to F(X)$ but I am not sure whether flapping down the FG part (from $GFG(Y)$ to $G(Y)$) is justified, since it's inside.
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 7:43
Those arrows can't possible all mean the same thing. For instance, $Y$ and $G(Y)$ aren't in the same category, while the middle four objects are...It seems like you might be a bit confused about the basic definitions around functors. I'm unlikely to write out a full answer, because I'm doubtful whether either you or the community would benefit much from that. You've been asking a whole lot of questions in a row that you'll be able to solve handily on your own with a bit more conceptual clarification. But I'm happy to try to clarify further and maybe someone else will write an answer.
– Kevin Carlson
Oct 22 at 7:53
@KevinCarlson, thank you for your comment. Unfortunately I am very new to category theory (I am only 2 weeks from starting it) and even this basic questuon confuses me, I have literally been trying this question for hours - I didn't post this problem because I was being lazy. If you could please clarify your answer that would be great.
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 8:00
I do get the basic idea here, that F and G are "almost" inverses, so that we can essentially "backtrack" to get the desired "equality" (i.e. isomorphism) we want. However, I am struggling to get the details right...
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 8:02
Start with the map, then prove it's an isomorphism, then that it's natural. Given $Y$ and $fin (Hom(-,X)circ G)(Y)=Hom(G(Y),X))$, how do you get a corresponding element of $Hom(-,F(X))(Y)=Hom(Y,F(X))$?
– Kevin Carlson
Oct 22 at 7:31
Start with the map, then prove it's an isomorphism, then that it's natural. Given $Y$ and $fin (Hom(-,X)circ G)(Y)=Hom(G(Y),X))$, how do you get a corresponding element of $Hom(-,F(X))(Y)=Hom(Y,F(X))$?
– Kevin Carlson
Oct 22 at 7:31
Thanks @KevinCarlson, could you elaborate as an answer? I tried $Y to G(Y) to GFG(Y) to G(Y) to X to F(X)$ but I am not sure whether flapping down the FG part (from $GFG(Y)$ to $G(Y)$) is justified, since it's inside.
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 7:43
Thanks @KevinCarlson, could you elaborate as an answer? I tried $Y to G(Y) to GFG(Y) to G(Y) to X to F(X)$ but I am not sure whether flapping down the FG part (from $GFG(Y)$ to $G(Y)$) is justified, since it's inside.
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 7:43
Those arrows can't possible all mean the same thing. For instance, $Y$ and $G(Y)$ aren't in the same category, while the middle four objects are...It seems like you might be a bit confused about the basic definitions around functors. I'm unlikely to write out a full answer, because I'm doubtful whether either you or the community would benefit much from that. You've been asking a whole lot of questions in a row that you'll be able to solve handily on your own with a bit more conceptual clarification. But I'm happy to try to clarify further and maybe someone else will write an answer.
– Kevin Carlson
Oct 22 at 7:53
Those arrows can't possible all mean the same thing. For instance, $Y$ and $G(Y)$ aren't in the same category, while the middle four objects are...It seems like you might be a bit confused about the basic definitions around functors. I'm unlikely to write out a full answer, because I'm doubtful whether either you or the community would benefit much from that. You've been asking a whole lot of questions in a row that you'll be able to solve handily on your own with a bit more conceptual clarification. But I'm happy to try to clarify further and maybe someone else will write an answer.
– Kevin Carlson
Oct 22 at 7:53
@KevinCarlson, thank you for your comment. Unfortunately I am very new to category theory (I am only 2 weeks from starting it) and even this basic questuon confuses me, I have literally been trying this question for hours - I didn't post this problem because I was being lazy. If you could please clarify your answer that would be great.
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 8:00
@KevinCarlson, thank you for your comment. Unfortunately I am very new to category theory (I am only 2 weeks from starting it) and even this basic questuon confuses me, I have literally been trying this question for hours - I didn't post this problem because I was being lazy. If you could please clarify your answer that would be great.
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 8:00
I do get the basic idea here, that F and G are "almost" inverses, so that we can essentially "backtrack" to get the desired "equality" (i.e. isomorphism) we want. However, I am struggling to get the details right...
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 8:02
I do get the basic idea here, that F and G are "almost" inverses, so that we can essentially "backtrack" to get the desired "equality" (i.e. isomorphism) we want. However, I am struggling to get the details right...
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 8:02
|
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2 Answers
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HINT: The map $phi$ is defined, if $f:G(Y)to X$, by $phi(f)=F(f)circ varepsilon^{-1}_Y$. Here, $varepsilon^{-1}_Y:Yto FG(Y)$ is the inverse of the "counit of the adjunction", that is, one of the natural isomorphisms that proves that $F$ and $G$ are quasi-inverses. In the other direction, $phi^{-1}$ sends $g:Yto F(X)$ to $eta_X^{-1}circ G(g)$, where $G(g):G(Y)to GF(X)$ and $eta_X:Xto GF(X)$ is the other natural isomorphism coming with the equivalence. Now you just have to check that $phi$ and $phi^{-1}$ are mutually inverse and (that one, thus the other is) natural.
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$newcommandcatmathscrDeclareMathOperatorid{id}$Let $F:cat Crightleftarrowscat D:G$ be quasi-inverse functors.
Then $F,G$ are fully faithful and there exists natural isomorphisms $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ and $eta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ such that
begin{align}
&eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G&
&F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F
end{align}
Proof.
Let $bareta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ be a natural isomorphism.
The functor $F$ is faithful, for if $u,v:Arightrightarrows B$ and $F(u)=F(v)$ then
begin{align}
ubareta_B
&=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(u)\
&=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(v)\
&=vbareta_B
end{align}
which implies $u=v$. Similarly, $G$ is faithful.
The functor $F$ is full, for if $y:F(A)to F(B)$ and $x=bareta_AG(y)bareta_B^{-1}$, then
begin{align}
bareta_A(Gcirc F)(x)
&=xbareta_B\
&=bareta_AG(y)
end{align}
which implies $y=F(x)$ (since $G$ is faithful).
Let $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ be a natural isomorphism.
Since $F$ is full and faithful, for each object $A$ in $cat C$ there exists one and only one isomorphism $eta_A:Ato (Gcirc F)(A)$ such that $F(eta_A)=varepsilon_{F(A)}^{-1}$.
Then $eta:id_{cat C}to Gcirc F$ is a natural isomorphism (again using faithfulness of $F $) and $F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F$.
By naturalness of $varepsilon$, we have $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}varepsilon=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)varepsilon$ from which we get $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)$.
Consequently,
begin{align}
F(eta_GG(varepsilon))
&=F(eta_G)(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)\
&=F(eta_G)varepsilon_{Fcirc G}\
&=1_{Fcirc G}\
&=F(1_G)
end{align}
from which $eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G$. $square$
$DeclareMathOperatorHom{Hom} $For all objects $A$ of $cat C$ we define
begin{align}
&varphi_A:Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X)toHom_{cat D}(A,F(X))&
&fmapstovarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)
end{align}
and
begin{align}
&psi_A:Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))toHom_{cat C}(G(A),X)&
&gmapsto G(g)eta_X^{-1}
end{align}
We have to show that $varphi_A$ is natural in $A$ and $varphi_Acircpsi_A$ and $psi_Acircvarphi_A$ are identity functions.
For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
begin{align}
(psi_Acircvarphi_A)(f)
&=G(varepsilon_A^{-1}F(f))eta_X^{-1}\
&=G(varepsilon_A)^{-1}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
&=eta_{G(A)}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
&=feta_Xeta_X^{-1}\
&=f
end{align}
For all $g:Ato F(X)$ we have
begin{align}
(varphi_Acircpsi_A)(g)
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}F(G(g)eta_X^{-1})\
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)F(eta_X)^{-1}\
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)varepsilon_{F(X)}\
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}varepsilon_Ag\
&=g
end{align}
Let $u:Bto A$ be a morphism in $cat C$.
Then naturalness of $varphi_A$ means
$$require{AMScd}
begin{CD}
Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X) @>varphi_A>> Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))\
@VVV @VVV\
Hom_{cat C}(G(B),X) @>>varphi_B> Hom_{cat D}(B,F(X))
end{CD}$$
For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
begin{align}
varphi_B(G(u)f)
&=varepsilon_B^{-1}F(G(u)f)\
&=varepsilon_B^{-1}(Fcirc G)(u)F(f)\
&=uvarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)\
&=uvarphi_A(f)
end{align}
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
2
active
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active
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active
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HINT: The map $phi$ is defined, if $f:G(Y)to X$, by $phi(f)=F(f)circ varepsilon^{-1}_Y$. Here, $varepsilon^{-1}_Y:Yto FG(Y)$ is the inverse of the "counit of the adjunction", that is, one of the natural isomorphisms that proves that $F$ and $G$ are quasi-inverses. In the other direction, $phi^{-1}$ sends $g:Yto F(X)$ to $eta_X^{-1}circ G(g)$, where $G(g):G(Y)to GF(X)$ and $eta_X:Xto GF(X)$ is the other natural isomorphism coming with the equivalence. Now you just have to check that $phi$ and $phi^{-1}$ are mutually inverse and (that one, thus the other is) natural.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
HINT: The map $phi$ is defined, if $f:G(Y)to X$, by $phi(f)=F(f)circ varepsilon^{-1}_Y$. Here, $varepsilon^{-1}_Y:Yto FG(Y)$ is the inverse of the "counit of the adjunction", that is, one of the natural isomorphisms that proves that $F$ and $G$ are quasi-inverses. In the other direction, $phi^{-1}$ sends $g:Yto F(X)$ to $eta_X^{-1}circ G(g)$, where $G(g):G(Y)to GF(X)$ and $eta_X:Xto GF(X)$ is the other natural isomorphism coming with the equivalence. Now you just have to check that $phi$ and $phi^{-1}$ are mutually inverse and (that one, thus the other is) natural.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
HINT: The map $phi$ is defined, if $f:G(Y)to X$, by $phi(f)=F(f)circ varepsilon^{-1}_Y$. Here, $varepsilon^{-1}_Y:Yto FG(Y)$ is the inverse of the "counit of the adjunction", that is, one of the natural isomorphisms that proves that $F$ and $G$ are quasi-inverses. In the other direction, $phi^{-1}$ sends $g:Yto F(X)$ to $eta_X^{-1}circ G(g)$, where $G(g):G(Y)to GF(X)$ and $eta_X:Xto GF(X)$ is the other natural isomorphism coming with the equivalence. Now you just have to check that $phi$ and $phi^{-1}$ are mutually inverse and (that one, thus the other is) natural.
HINT: The map $phi$ is defined, if $f:G(Y)to X$, by $phi(f)=F(f)circ varepsilon^{-1}_Y$. Here, $varepsilon^{-1}_Y:Yto FG(Y)$ is the inverse of the "counit of the adjunction", that is, one of the natural isomorphisms that proves that $F$ and $G$ are quasi-inverses. In the other direction, $phi^{-1}$ sends $g:Yto F(X)$ to $eta_X^{-1}circ G(g)$, where $G(g):G(Y)to GF(X)$ and $eta_X:Xto GF(X)$ is the other natural isomorphism coming with the equivalence. Now you just have to check that $phi$ and $phi^{-1}$ are mutually inverse and (that one, thus the other is) natural.
answered Oct 22 at 8:31
Kevin Carlson
32.2k23270
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$newcommandcatmathscrDeclareMathOperatorid{id}$Let $F:cat Crightleftarrowscat D:G$ be quasi-inverse functors.
Then $F,G$ are fully faithful and there exists natural isomorphisms $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ and $eta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ such that
begin{align}
&eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G&
&F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F
end{align}
Proof.
Let $bareta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ be a natural isomorphism.
The functor $F$ is faithful, for if $u,v:Arightrightarrows B$ and $F(u)=F(v)$ then
begin{align}
ubareta_B
&=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(u)\
&=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(v)\
&=vbareta_B
end{align}
which implies $u=v$. Similarly, $G$ is faithful.
The functor $F$ is full, for if $y:F(A)to F(B)$ and $x=bareta_AG(y)bareta_B^{-1}$, then
begin{align}
bareta_A(Gcirc F)(x)
&=xbareta_B\
&=bareta_AG(y)
end{align}
which implies $y=F(x)$ (since $G$ is faithful).
Let $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ be a natural isomorphism.
Since $F$ is full and faithful, for each object $A$ in $cat C$ there exists one and only one isomorphism $eta_A:Ato (Gcirc F)(A)$ such that $F(eta_A)=varepsilon_{F(A)}^{-1}$.
Then $eta:id_{cat C}to Gcirc F$ is a natural isomorphism (again using faithfulness of $F $) and $F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F$.
By naturalness of $varepsilon$, we have $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}varepsilon=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)varepsilon$ from which we get $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)$.
Consequently,
begin{align}
F(eta_GG(varepsilon))
&=F(eta_G)(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)\
&=F(eta_G)varepsilon_{Fcirc G}\
&=1_{Fcirc G}\
&=F(1_G)
end{align}
from which $eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G$. $square$
$DeclareMathOperatorHom{Hom} $For all objects $A$ of $cat C$ we define
begin{align}
&varphi_A:Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X)toHom_{cat D}(A,F(X))&
&fmapstovarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)
end{align}
and
begin{align}
&psi_A:Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))toHom_{cat C}(G(A),X)&
&gmapsto G(g)eta_X^{-1}
end{align}
We have to show that $varphi_A$ is natural in $A$ and $varphi_Acircpsi_A$ and $psi_Acircvarphi_A$ are identity functions.
For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
begin{align}
(psi_Acircvarphi_A)(f)
&=G(varepsilon_A^{-1}F(f))eta_X^{-1}\
&=G(varepsilon_A)^{-1}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
&=eta_{G(A)}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
&=feta_Xeta_X^{-1}\
&=f
end{align}
For all $g:Ato F(X)$ we have
begin{align}
(varphi_Acircpsi_A)(g)
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}F(G(g)eta_X^{-1})\
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)F(eta_X)^{-1}\
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)varepsilon_{F(X)}\
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}varepsilon_Ag\
&=g
end{align}
Let $u:Bto A$ be a morphism in $cat C$.
Then naturalness of $varphi_A$ means
$$require{AMScd}
begin{CD}
Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X) @>varphi_A>> Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))\
@VVV @VVV\
Hom_{cat C}(G(B),X) @>>varphi_B> Hom_{cat D}(B,F(X))
end{CD}$$
For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
begin{align}
varphi_B(G(u)f)
&=varepsilon_B^{-1}F(G(u)f)\
&=varepsilon_B^{-1}(Fcirc G)(u)F(f)\
&=uvarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)\
&=uvarphi_A(f)
end{align}
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$newcommandcatmathscrDeclareMathOperatorid{id}$Let $F:cat Crightleftarrowscat D:G$ be quasi-inverse functors.
Then $F,G$ are fully faithful and there exists natural isomorphisms $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ and $eta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ such that
begin{align}
&eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G&
&F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F
end{align}
Proof.
Let $bareta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ be a natural isomorphism.
The functor $F$ is faithful, for if $u,v:Arightrightarrows B$ and $F(u)=F(v)$ then
begin{align}
ubareta_B
&=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(u)\
&=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(v)\
&=vbareta_B
end{align}
which implies $u=v$. Similarly, $G$ is faithful.
The functor $F$ is full, for if $y:F(A)to F(B)$ and $x=bareta_AG(y)bareta_B^{-1}$, then
begin{align}
bareta_A(Gcirc F)(x)
&=xbareta_B\
&=bareta_AG(y)
end{align}
which implies $y=F(x)$ (since $G$ is faithful).
Let $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ be a natural isomorphism.
Since $F$ is full and faithful, for each object $A$ in $cat C$ there exists one and only one isomorphism $eta_A:Ato (Gcirc F)(A)$ such that $F(eta_A)=varepsilon_{F(A)}^{-1}$.
Then $eta:id_{cat C}to Gcirc F$ is a natural isomorphism (again using faithfulness of $F $) and $F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F$.
By naturalness of $varepsilon$, we have $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}varepsilon=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)varepsilon$ from which we get $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)$.
Consequently,
begin{align}
F(eta_GG(varepsilon))
&=F(eta_G)(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)\
&=F(eta_G)varepsilon_{Fcirc G}\
&=1_{Fcirc G}\
&=F(1_G)
end{align}
from which $eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G$. $square$
$DeclareMathOperatorHom{Hom} $For all objects $A$ of $cat C$ we define
begin{align}
&varphi_A:Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X)toHom_{cat D}(A,F(X))&
&fmapstovarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)
end{align}
and
begin{align}
&psi_A:Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))toHom_{cat C}(G(A),X)&
&gmapsto G(g)eta_X^{-1}
end{align}
We have to show that $varphi_A$ is natural in $A$ and $varphi_Acircpsi_A$ and $psi_Acircvarphi_A$ are identity functions.
For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
begin{align}
(psi_Acircvarphi_A)(f)
&=G(varepsilon_A^{-1}F(f))eta_X^{-1}\
&=G(varepsilon_A)^{-1}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
&=eta_{G(A)}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
&=feta_Xeta_X^{-1}\
&=f
end{align}
For all $g:Ato F(X)$ we have
begin{align}
(varphi_Acircpsi_A)(g)
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}F(G(g)eta_X^{-1})\
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)F(eta_X)^{-1}\
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)varepsilon_{F(X)}\
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}varepsilon_Ag\
&=g
end{align}
Let $u:Bto A$ be a morphism in $cat C$.
Then naturalness of $varphi_A$ means
$$require{AMScd}
begin{CD}
Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X) @>varphi_A>> Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))\
@VVV @VVV\
Hom_{cat C}(G(B),X) @>>varphi_B> Hom_{cat D}(B,F(X))
end{CD}$$
For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
begin{align}
varphi_B(G(u)f)
&=varepsilon_B^{-1}F(G(u)f)\
&=varepsilon_B^{-1}(Fcirc G)(u)F(f)\
&=uvarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)\
&=uvarphi_A(f)
end{align}
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$newcommandcatmathscrDeclareMathOperatorid{id}$Let $F:cat Crightleftarrowscat D:G$ be quasi-inverse functors.
Then $F,G$ are fully faithful and there exists natural isomorphisms $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ and $eta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ such that
begin{align}
&eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G&
&F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F
end{align}
Proof.
Let $bareta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ be a natural isomorphism.
The functor $F$ is faithful, for if $u,v:Arightrightarrows B$ and $F(u)=F(v)$ then
begin{align}
ubareta_B
&=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(u)\
&=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(v)\
&=vbareta_B
end{align}
which implies $u=v$. Similarly, $G$ is faithful.
The functor $F$ is full, for if $y:F(A)to F(B)$ and $x=bareta_AG(y)bareta_B^{-1}$, then
begin{align}
bareta_A(Gcirc F)(x)
&=xbareta_B\
&=bareta_AG(y)
end{align}
which implies $y=F(x)$ (since $G$ is faithful).
Let $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ be a natural isomorphism.
Since $F$ is full and faithful, for each object $A$ in $cat C$ there exists one and only one isomorphism $eta_A:Ato (Gcirc F)(A)$ such that $F(eta_A)=varepsilon_{F(A)}^{-1}$.
Then $eta:id_{cat C}to Gcirc F$ is a natural isomorphism (again using faithfulness of $F $) and $F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F$.
By naturalness of $varepsilon$, we have $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}varepsilon=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)varepsilon$ from which we get $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)$.
Consequently,
begin{align}
F(eta_GG(varepsilon))
&=F(eta_G)(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)\
&=F(eta_G)varepsilon_{Fcirc G}\
&=1_{Fcirc G}\
&=F(1_G)
end{align}
from which $eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G$. $square$
$DeclareMathOperatorHom{Hom} $For all objects $A$ of $cat C$ we define
begin{align}
&varphi_A:Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X)toHom_{cat D}(A,F(X))&
&fmapstovarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)
end{align}
and
begin{align}
&psi_A:Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))toHom_{cat C}(G(A),X)&
&gmapsto G(g)eta_X^{-1}
end{align}
We have to show that $varphi_A$ is natural in $A$ and $varphi_Acircpsi_A$ and $psi_Acircvarphi_A$ are identity functions.
For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
begin{align}
(psi_Acircvarphi_A)(f)
&=G(varepsilon_A^{-1}F(f))eta_X^{-1}\
&=G(varepsilon_A)^{-1}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
&=eta_{G(A)}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
&=feta_Xeta_X^{-1}\
&=f
end{align}
For all $g:Ato F(X)$ we have
begin{align}
(varphi_Acircpsi_A)(g)
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}F(G(g)eta_X^{-1})\
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)F(eta_X)^{-1}\
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)varepsilon_{F(X)}\
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}varepsilon_Ag\
&=g
end{align}
Let $u:Bto A$ be a morphism in $cat C$.
Then naturalness of $varphi_A$ means
$$require{AMScd}
begin{CD}
Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X) @>varphi_A>> Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))\
@VVV @VVV\
Hom_{cat C}(G(B),X) @>>varphi_B> Hom_{cat D}(B,F(X))
end{CD}$$
For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
begin{align}
varphi_B(G(u)f)
&=varepsilon_B^{-1}F(G(u)f)\
&=varepsilon_B^{-1}(Fcirc G)(u)F(f)\
&=uvarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)\
&=uvarphi_A(f)
end{align}
$newcommandcatmathscrDeclareMathOperatorid{id}$Let $F:cat Crightleftarrowscat D:G$ be quasi-inverse functors.
Then $F,G$ are fully faithful and there exists natural isomorphisms $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ and $eta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ such that
begin{align}
&eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G&
&F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F
end{align}
Proof.
Let $bareta:id_{cat D}to Gcirc F$ be a natural isomorphism.
The functor $F$ is faithful, for if $u,v:Arightrightarrows B$ and $F(u)=F(v)$ then
begin{align}
ubareta_B
&=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(u)\
&=bareta_A(Gcirc F)(v)\
&=vbareta_B
end{align}
which implies $u=v$. Similarly, $G$ is faithful.
The functor $F$ is full, for if $y:F(A)to F(B)$ and $x=bareta_AG(y)bareta_B^{-1}$, then
begin{align}
bareta_A(Gcirc F)(x)
&=xbareta_B\
&=bareta_AG(y)
end{align}
which implies $y=F(x)$ (since $G$ is faithful).
Let $varepsilon:Fcirc Gtoid_{cat C}$ be a natural isomorphism.
Since $F$ is full and faithful, for each object $A$ in $cat C$ there exists one and only one isomorphism $eta_A:Ato (Gcirc F)(A)$ such that $F(eta_A)=varepsilon_{F(A)}^{-1}$.
Then $eta:id_{cat C}to Gcirc F$ is a natural isomorphism (again using faithfulness of $F $) and $F(eta)varepsilon_F=1_F$.
By naturalness of $varepsilon$, we have $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}varepsilon=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)varepsilon$ from which we get $varepsilon_{Fcirc G}=(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)$.
Consequently,
begin{align}
F(eta_GG(varepsilon))
&=F(eta_G)(Fcirc G)(varepsilon)\
&=F(eta_G)varepsilon_{Fcirc G}\
&=1_{Fcirc G}\
&=F(1_G)
end{align}
from which $eta_GG(varepsilon)=1_G$. $square$
$DeclareMathOperatorHom{Hom} $For all objects $A$ of $cat C$ we define
begin{align}
&varphi_A:Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X)toHom_{cat D}(A,F(X))&
&fmapstovarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)
end{align}
and
begin{align}
&psi_A:Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))toHom_{cat C}(G(A),X)&
&gmapsto G(g)eta_X^{-1}
end{align}
We have to show that $varphi_A$ is natural in $A$ and $varphi_Acircpsi_A$ and $psi_Acircvarphi_A$ are identity functions.
For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
begin{align}
(psi_Acircvarphi_A)(f)
&=G(varepsilon_A^{-1}F(f))eta_X^{-1}\
&=G(varepsilon_A)^{-1}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
&=eta_{G(A)}(Gcirc F)(f)eta_X^{-1}\
&=feta_Xeta_X^{-1}\
&=f
end{align}
For all $g:Ato F(X)$ we have
begin{align}
(varphi_Acircpsi_A)(g)
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}F(G(g)eta_X^{-1})\
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)F(eta_X)^{-1}\
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}(Fcirc G)(g)varepsilon_{F(X)}\
&=varepsilon_A^{-1}varepsilon_Ag\
&=g
end{align}
Let $u:Bto A$ be a morphism in $cat C$.
Then naturalness of $varphi_A$ means
$$require{AMScd}
begin{CD}
Hom_{cat C}(G(A),X) @>varphi_A>> Hom_{cat D}(A,F(X))\
@VVV @VVV\
Hom_{cat C}(G(B),X) @>>varphi_B> Hom_{cat D}(B,F(X))
end{CD}$$
For all $f:G(A)to X$ we have
begin{align}
varphi_B(G(u)f)
&=varepsilon_B^{-1}F(G(u)f)\
&=varepsilon_B^{-1}(Fcirc G)(u)F(f)\
&=uvarepsilon_A^{-1}F(f)\
&=uvarphi_A(f)
end{align}
edited Nov 20 at 17:45
darij grinberg
10.2k33061
10.2k33061
answered Oct 24 at 9:48
Fabio Lucchini
7,81311326
7,81311326
add a comment |
add a comment |
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Start with the map, then prove it's an isomorphism, then that it's natural. Given $Y$ and $fin (Hom(-,X)circ G)(Y)=Hom(G(Y),X))$, how do you get a corresponding element of $Hom(-,F(X))(Y)=Hom(Y,F(X))$?
– Kevin Carlson
Oct 22 at 7:31
Thanks @KevinCarlson, could you elaborate as an answer? I tried $Y to G(Y) to GFG(Y) to G(Y) to X to F(X)$ but I am not sure whether flapping down the FG part (from $GFG(Y)$ to $G(Y)$) is justified, since it's inside.
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 7:43
Those arrows can't possible all mean the same thing. For instance, $Y$ and $G(Y)$ aren't in the same category, while the middle four objects are...It seems like you might be a bit confused about the basic definitions around functors. I'm unlikely to write out a full answer, because I'm doubtful whether either you or the community would benefit much from that. You've been asking a whole lot of questions in a row that you'll be able to solve handily on your own with a bit more conceptual clarification. But I'm happy to try to clarify further and maybe someone else will write an answer.
– Kevin Carlson
Oct 22 at 7:53
@KevinCarlson, thank you for your comment. Unfortunately I am very new to category theory (I am only 2 weeks from starting it) and even this basic questuon confuses me, I have literally been trying this question for hours - I didn't post this problem because I was being lazy. If you could please clarify your answer that would be great.
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 8:00
I do get the basic idea here, that F and G are "almost" inverses, so that we can essentially "backtrack" to get the desired "equality" (i.e. isomorphism) we want. However, I am struggling to get the details right...
– Cute Brownie
Oct 22 at 8:02