An estimator whose variance attains Cramer-Rao lower bound is consistent












3












$begingroup$



If the variance of an estimator attains the Cramer-Rao lower bound
then the estimator is



$(A)$ most efficient



$(B)$ sufficient



$(C)$ consistent



$(D)$ admissible




I can show that the the variance is most efficient. But I'm unable to test whether it is consistent or NOT.



Please help me.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    3












    $begingroup$



    If the variance of an estimator attains the Cramer-Rao lower bound
    then the estimator is



    $(A)$ most efficient



    $(B)$ sufficient



    $(C)$ consistent



    $(D)$ admissible




    I can show that the the variance is most efficient. But I'm unable to test whether it is consistent or NOT.



    Please help me.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$



      If the variance of an estimator attains the Cramer-Rao lower bound
      then the estimator is



      $(A)$ most efficient



      $(B)$ sufficient



      $(C)$ consistent



      $(D)$ admissible




      I can show that the the variance is most efficient. But I'm unable to test whether it is consistent or NOT.



      Please help me.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      If the variance of an estimator attains the Cramer-Rao lower bound
      then the estimator is



      $(A)$ most efficient



      $(B)$ sufficient



      $(C)$ consistent



      $(D)$ admissible




      I can show that the the variance is most efficient. But I'm unable to test whether it is consistent or NOT.



      Please help me.







      probability statistics statistical-inference






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Aug 16 '16 at 12:40









      Michael Hardy

      1




      1










      asked Aug 14 '16 at 13:59









      TopoTopo

      311214




      311214






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          Given an ubiased estimator $hattheta$ of the parameter $thetainTheta$, this estimator is efficient if its var-cov matrix equals the Cramér-Rao lower bound. In other words, the Cramér-Rao inequality provides a lower bound for the var-cov matrix of unbiased estimators. As you know, unbiasedness is different from consistency.



          To show the consistency of $hattheta$, one must show that $plimhattheta$ = $theta_0$. If the set $Theta$ is compact; the objective function $mathbb{Q}_0(theta)$ is continuous and has a unique maximum in $theta_0$, and; $widehat{mathbb{Q}_n}(theta)$ converges (uniformily) in probability to $mathbb{Q}_0(theta)$; then $plimhattheta=hattheta_0$.



          Lets consider the case of a linear model $Y_i=X_itheta$ + $epsilon_i$. The OLS estimator or MLE is $hattheta=theta_0+(X'X)^{-1}X'epsilon$. If one assumes that plim $n^{-1}(X'epsilon)=0$ and that $lim_{nto infty}n^{-1}X'X=Q$ where $Q$ is not singular, then $hatthetarightarrow_ptheta_0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Okk...So both options (A) and (C) are correct. Is it ?
            $endgroup$
            – Topo
            Aug 15 '16 at 4:22













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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          2












          $begingroup$

          Given an ubiased estimator $hattheta$ of the parameter $thetainTheta$, this estimator is efficient if its var-cov matrix equals the Cramér-Rao lower bound. In other words, the Cramér-Rao inequality provides a lower bound for the var-cov matrix of unbiased estimators. As you know, unbiasedness is different from consistency.



          To show the consistency of $hattheta$, one must show that $plimhattheta$ = $theta_0$. If the set $Theta$ is compact; the objective function $mathbb{Q}_0(theta)$ is continuous and has a unique maximum in $theta_0$, and; $widehat{mathbb{Q}_n}(theta)$ converges (uniformily) in probability to $mathbb{Q}_0(theta)$; then $plimhattheta=hattheta_0$.



          Lets consider the case of a linear model $Y_i=X_itheta$ + $epsilon_i$. The OLS estimator or MLE is $hattheta=theta_0+(X'X)^{-1}X'epsilon$. If one assumes that plim $n^{-1}(X'epsilon)=0$ and that $lim_{nto infty}n^{-1}X'X=Q$ where $Q$ is not singular, then $hatthetarightarrow_ptheta_0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Okk...So both options (A) and (C) are correct. Is it ?
            $endgroup$
            – Topo
            Aug 15 '16 at 4:22


















          2












          $begingroup$

          Given an ubiased estimator $hattheta$ of the parameter $thetainTheta$, this estimator is efficient if its var-cov matrix equals the Cramér-Rao lower bound. In other words, the Cramér-Rao inequality provides a lower bound for the var-cov matrix of unbiased estimators. As you know, unbiasedness is different from consistency.



          To show the consistency of $hattheta$, one must show that $plimhattheta$ = $theta_0$. If the set $Theta$ is compact; the objective function $mathbb{Q}_0(theta)$ is continuous and has a unique maximum in $theta_0$, and; $widehat{mathbb{Q}_n}(theta)$ converges (uniformily) in probability to $mathbb{Q}_0(theta)$; then $plimhattheta=hattheta_0$.



          Lets consider the case of a linear model $Y_i=X_itheta$ + $epsilon_i$. The OLS estimator or MLE is $hattheta=theta_0+(X'X)^{-1}X'epsilon$. If one assumes that plim $n^{-1}(X'epsilon)=0$ and that $lim_{nto infty}n^{-1}X'X=Q$ where $Q$ is not singular, then $hatthetarightarrow_ptheta_0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Okk...So both options (A) and (C) are correct. Is it ?
            $endgroup$
            – Topo
            Aug 15 '16 at 4:22
















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Given an ubiased estimator $hattheta$ of the parameter $thetainTheta$, this estimator is efficient if its var-cov matrix equals the Cramér-Rao lower bound. In other words, the Cramér-Rao inequality provides a lower bound for the var-cov matrix of unbiased estimators. As you know, unbiasedness is different from consistency.



          To show the consistency of $hattheta$, one must show that $plimhattheta$ = $theta_0$. If the set $Theta$ is compact; the objective function $mathbb{Q}_0(theta)$ is continuous and has a unique maximum in $theta_0$, and; $widehat{mathbb{Q}_n}(theta)$ converges (uniformily) in probability to $mathbb{Q}_0(theta)$; then $plimhattheta=hattheta_0$.



          Lets consider the case of a linear model $Y_i=X_itheta$ + $epsilon_i$. The OLS estimator or MLE is $hattheta=theta_0+(X'X)^{-1}X'epsilon$. If one assumes that plim $n^{-1}(X'epsilon)=0$ and that $lim_{nto infty}n^{-1}X'X=Q$ where $Q$ is not singular, then $hatthetarightarrow_ptheta_0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Given an ubiased estimator $hattheta$ of the parameter $thetainTheta$, this estimator is efficient if its var-cov matrix equals the Cramér-Rao lower bound. In other words, the Cramér-Rao inequality provides a lower bound for the var-cov matrix of unbiased estimators. As you know, unbiasedness is different from consistency.



          To show the consistency of $hattheta$, one must show that $plimhattheta$ = $theta_0$. If the set $Theta$ is compact; the objective function $mathbb{Q}_0(theta)$ is continuous and has a unique maximum in $theta_0$, and; $widehat{mathbb{Q}_n}(theta)$ converges (uniformily) in probability to $mathbb{Q}_0(theta)$; then $plimhattheta=hattheta_0$.



          Lets consider the case of a linear model $Y_i=X_itheta$ + $epsilon_i$. The OLS estimator or MLE is $hattheta=theta_0+(X'X)^{-1}X'epsilon$. If one assumes that plim $n^{-1}(X'epsilon)=0$ and that $lim_{nto infty}n^{-1}X'X=Q$ where $Q$ is not singular, then $hatthetarightarrow_ptheta_0$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Aug 14 '16 at 18:26









          jgastaizajgastaiza

          314




          314












          • $begingroup$
            Okk...So both options (A) and (C) are correct. Is it ?
            $endgroup$
            – Topo
            Aug 15 '16 at 4:22




















          • $begingroup$
            Okk...So both options (A) and (C) are correct. Is it ?
            $endgroup$
            – Topo
            Aug 15 '16 at 4:22


















          $begingroup$
          Okk...So both options (A) and (C) are correct. Is it ?
          $endgroup$
          – Topo
          Aug 15 '16 at 4:22






          $begingroup$
          Okk...So both options (A) and (C) are correct. Is it ?
          $endgroup$
          – Topo
          Aug 15 '16 at 4:22




















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