The Hartogs number of $A$ exists for any set $A$












0












$begingroup$



The Hartogs number of $A$ exists for any set $A$.




Does my attempt look fine or contain logical flaws/gaps? Any suggestion is greatly appreciated. Thank you for your help!





My attempt:



Let $H={(W,prec) in mathcal{P}(A) times mathcal{P}(Atimes A) mid prec text{ is a well-ordering on } W}$. It is well-known that every $(W,prec)in H$ is isomorphic to a unique ordinal.



By Axiom of Replacement, $h(A)={alpha in text{Ord} mid (alpha,<) text{ is isomorphic to some } (W,prec) in H}$ is a set. It follows that $h(A)$ is a set of ordinals.



Assume $gammainalphain h(A)$. Then there is an isomorphism $f$ between $(alpha,<)$ and some $(W,prec) in H$. Then $f restriction gamma$ is an isomorphism between $(gamma,<)$ and $(f[alpha],prec) in H$. Thus $gamma in H$. Hence, $h(A)$ is transitive.



To sum up, $h(A)$ is a set of ordinals and transitive. Thus $h(A)$ is an ordinal. Moreover, $h(A)$ is not equipotent to any subset of $A$. If not, there is a bijecton $g$ from $h(A)$ to some $W in mathcal{P}(A)$. We define a well-ordering $prec$ on $W$ by $w_1 prec w_2 iff g^{-1}(w_1) < g^{-1}(w_2)$. As such, $(h(A),<)$ is isomorphic to $(W,prec)$. Then $h(A)in h(A)$, which is a contradiction. This completes the proof.










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I see no problems with it.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Dec 5 '18 at 3:27










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you so much for your verification @HennoBrandsma :)
    $endgroup$
    – Le Anh Dung
    Dec 5 '18 at 3:28










  • $begingroup$
    Where do you think that your proof might contain a mistake?
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Dec 5 '18 at 7:25
















0












$begingroup$



The Hartogs number of $A$ exists for any set $A$.




Does my attempt look fine or contain logical flaws/gaps? Any suggestion is greatly appreciated. Thank you for your help!





My attempt:



Let $H={(W,prec) in mathcal{P}(A) times mathcal{P}(Atimes A) mid prec text{ is a well-ordering on } W}$. It is well-known that every $(W,prec)in H$ is isomorphic to a unique ordinal.



By Axiom of Replacement, $h(A)={alpha in text{Ord} mid (alpha,<) text{ is isomorphic to some } (W,prec) in H}$ is a set. It follows that $h(A)$ is a set of ordinals.



Assume $gammainalphain h(A)$. Then there is an isomorphism $f$ between $(alpha,<)$ and some $(W,prec) in H$. Then $f restriction gamma$ is an isomorphism between $(gamma,<)$ and $(f[alpha],prec) in H$. Thus $gamma in H$. Hence, $h(A)$ is transitive.



To sum up, $h(A)$ is a set of ordinals and transitive. Thus $h(A)$ is an ordinal. Moreover, $h(A)$ is not equipotent to any subset of $A$. If not, there is a bijecton $g$ from $h(A)$ to some $W in mathcal{P}(A)$. We define a well-ordering $prec$ on $W$ by $w_1 prec w_2 iff g^{-1}(w_1) < g^{-1}(w_2)$. As such, $(h(A),<)$ is isomorphic to $(W,prec)$. Then $h(A)in h(A)$, which is a contradiction. This completes the proof.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I see no problems with it.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Dec 5 '18 at 3:27










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you so much for your verification @HennoBrandsma :)
    $endgroup$
    – Le Anh Dung
    Dec 5 '18 at 3:28










  • $begingroup$
    Where do you think that your proof might contain a mistake?
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Dec 5 '18 at 7:25














0












0








0





$begingroup$



The Hartogs number of $A$ exists for any set $A$.




Does my attempt look fine or contain logical flaws/gaps? Any suggestion is greatly appreciated. Thank you for your help!





My attempt:



Let $H={(W,prec) in mathcal{P}(A) times mathcal{P}(Atimes A) mid prec text{ is a well-ordering on } W}$. It is well-known that every $(W,prec)in H$ is isomorphic to a unique ordinal.



By Axiom of Replacement, $h(A)={alpha in text{Ord} mid (alpha,<) text{ is isomorphic to some } (W,prec) in H}$ is a set. It follows that $h(A)$ is a set of ordinals.



Assume $gammainalphain h(A)$. Then there is an isomorphism $f$ between $(alpha,<)$ and some $(W,prec) in H$. Then $f restriction gamma$ is an isomorphism between $(gamma,<)$ and $(f[alpha],prec) in H$. Thus $gamma in H$. Hence, $h(A)$ is transitive.



To sum up, $h(A)$ is a set of ordinals and transitive. Thus $h(A)$ is an ordinal. Moreover, $h(A)$ is not equipotent to any subset of $A$. If not, there is a bijecton $g$ from $h(A)$ to some $W in mathcal{P}(A)$. We define a well-ordering $prec$ on $W$ by $w_1 prec w_2 iff g^{-1}(w_1) < g^{-1}(w_2)$. As such, $(h(A),<)$ is isomorphic to $(W,prec)$. Then $h(A)in h(A)$, which is a contradiction. This completes the proof.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$





The Hartogs number of $A$ exists for any set $A$.




Does my attempt look fine or contain logical flaws/gaps? Any suggestion is greatly appreciated. Thank you for your help!





My attempt:



Let $H={(W,prec) in mathcal{P}(A) times mathcal{P}(Atimes A) mid prec text{ is a well-ordering on } W}$. It is well-known that every $(W,prec)in H$ is isomorphic to a unique ordinal.



By Axiom of Replacement, $h(A)={alpha in text{Ord} mid (alpha,<) text{ is isomorphic to some } (W,prec) in H}$ is a set. It follows that $h(A)$ is a set of ordinals.



Assume $gammainalphain h(A)$. Then there is an isomorphism $f$ between $(alpha,<)$ and some $(W,prec) in H$. Then $f restriction gamma$ is an isomorphism between $(gamma,<)$ and $(f[alpha],prec) in H$. Thus $gamma in H$. Hence, $h(A)$ is transitive.



To sum up, $h(A)$ is a set of ordinals and transitive. Thus $h(A)$ is an ordinal. Moreover, $h(A)$ is not equipotent to any subset of $A$. If not, there is a bijecton $g$ from $h(A)$ to some $W in mathcal{P}(A)$. We define a well-ordering $prec$ on $W$ by $w_1 prec w_2 iff g^{-1}(w_1) < g^{-1}(w_2)$. As such, $(h(A),<)$ is isomorphic to $(W,prec)$. Then $h(A)in h(A)$, which is a contradiction. This completes the proof.







proof-verification elementary-set-theory ordinals






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asked Dec 5 '18 at 2:57









Le Anh DungLe Anh Dung

1,0291521




1,0291521








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I see no problems with it.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Dec 5 '18 at 3:27










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you so much for your verification @HennoBrandsma :)
    $endgroup$
    – Le Anh Dung
    Dec 5 '18 at 3:28










  • $begingroup$
    Where do you think that your proof might contain a mistake?
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Dec 5 '18 at 7:25














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I see no problems with it.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Dec 5 '18 at 3:27










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you so much for your verification @HennoBrandsma :)
    $endgroup$
    – Le Anh Dung
    Dec 5 '18 at 3:28










  • $begingroup$
    Where do you think that your proof might contain a mistake?
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Dec 5 '18 at 7:25








1




1




$begingroup$
I see no problems with it.
$endgroup$
– Henno Brandsma
Dec 5 '18 at 3:27




$begingroup$
I see no problems with it.
$endgroup$
– Henno Brandsma
Dec 5 '18 at 3:27












$begingroup$
Thank you so much for your verification @HennoBrandsma :)
$endgroup$
– Le Anh Dung
Dec 5 '18 at 3:28




$begingroup$
Thank you so much for your verification @HennoBrandsma :)
$endgroup$
– Le Anh Dung
Dec 5 '18 at 3:28












$begingroup$
Where do you think that your proof might contain a mistake?
$endgroup$
– Asaf Karagila
Dec 5 '18 at 7:25




$begingroup$
Where do you think that your proof might contain a mistake?
$endgroup$
– Asaf Karagila
Dec 5 '18 at 7:25










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