In Bayesian games, is the actions set for a player fixed?
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
In a Bayesian game, is the actions set for a player fixed? Or does her actions set depend on her type?
In other words, can I model as a Bayesian game the following situation.
I have two players: master and worker. The worker is honest or malicious.
- If the worker is honest, she can only work honestly (she has only one action).
- If the worker is malicious, she can work honestly or maliciously (she has two actions).
game-theory
edited Nov 24 at 13:32
mlc
4,87931332
asked Nov 22 at 11:30
Tail of Godzilla
535
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
In a Bayesian game, is the actions set for a player fixed? Or does her actions set depend on her type?
In other words, can I model as a Bayesian game the following situation.
I have two players: master and worker. The worker is honest or malicious.
- If the worker is honest, she can only work honestly (she has only one action).
- If the worker is malicious, she can work honestly or maliciously (she has two actions).
game-theory
edited Nov 24 at 13:32
mlc
4,87931332
asked Nov 22 at 11:30
Tail of Godzilla
535
So you're saying the probability of being malicious when the type is honest is given by $p(action=malicious|type=honest)=0$? I think this might work for a Bayesian game.
– Jay Schyler Raadt
Nov 23 at 4:36
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
In a Bayesian game, is the actions set for a player fixed? Or does her actions set depend on her type?
In other words, can I model as a Bayesian game the following situation.
I have two players: master and worker. The worker is honest or malicious.
- If the worker is honest, she can only work honestly (she has only one action).
- If the worker is malicious, she can work honestly or maliciously (she has two actions).
game-theory
edited Nov 24 at 13:32
mlc
4,87931332
asked Nov 22 at 11:30
Tail of Godzilla
535
In a Bayesian game, is the actions set for a player fixed? Or does her actions set depend on her type?
In other words, can I model as a Bayesian game the following situation.
I have two players: master and worker. The worker is honest or malicious.
- If the worker is honest, she can only work honestly (she has only one action).
- If the worker is malicious, she can work honestly or maliciously (she has two actions).
game-theory
game-theory
edited Nov 24 at 13:32
mlc
4,87931332
asked Nov 22 at 11:30
Tail of Godzilla
535
edited Nov 24 at 13:32
mlc
4,87931332
asked Nov 22 at 11:30
Tail of Godzilla
535
edited Nov 24 at 13:32
mlc
4,87931332
edited Nov 24 at 13:32
mlc
4,87931332
edited Nov 24 at 13:32
mlc
4,87931332
4,87931332
asked Nov 22 at 11:30
Tail of Godzilla
535
asked Nov 22 at 11:30
Tail of Godzilla
535
asked Nov 22 at 11:30
Tail of Godzilla
535
535
So you're saying the probability of being malicious when the type is honest is given by $p(action=malicious|type=honest)=0$? I think this might work for a Bayesian game.
– Jay Schyler Raadt
Nov 23 at 4:36
add a comment |
So you're saying the probability of being malicious when the type is honest is given by $p(action=malicious|type=honest)=0$? I think this might work for a Bayesian game.
– Jay Schyler Raadt
Nov 23 at 4:36
So you're saying the probability of being malicious when the type is honest is given by $p(action=malicious|type=honest)=0$? I think this might work for a Bayesian game.
– Jay Schyler Raadt
Nov 23 at 4:36
So you're saying the probability of being malicious when the type is honest is given by $p(action=malicious|type=honest)=0$? I think this might work for a Bayesian game.
– Jay Schyler Raadt
Nov 23 at 4:36
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Yes, you can assume different action sets for different types of a player.
To simplify notation, it is a common assumption in the literature to assume that all types of a player have the same set of actions.
If you like this approach for your example, assume that both types can work honestly or maliciously but the honest type has a payoff of $- infty$ (or some other very low value) if he works maliciously, so that he would never opt for this action. In other words, assume that working honestly strictly dominates working maliciously for the honest type.
answered Nov 24 at 13:36
mlc
4,87931332
add a comment |
Your Answer
StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
});
});
}, "mathjax-editing");
StackExchange.ready(function() {
var channelOptions = {
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
};
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);
StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
createEditor();
});
}
else {
createEditor();
}
});
function createEditor() {
StackExchange.prepareEditor({
heartbeatType: 'answer',
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: true,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
imageUploader: {
brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
allowUrls: true
},
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
});
}
});
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3009021%2fin-bayesian-games-is-the-actions-set-for-a-player-fixed%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Yes, you can assume different action sets for different types of a player.
To simplify notation, it is a common assumption in the literature to assume that all types of a player have the same set of actions.
If you like this approach for your example, assume that both types can work honestly or maliciously but the honest type has a payoff of $- infty$ (or some other very low value) if he works maliciously, so that he would never opt for this action. In other words, assume that working honestly strictly dominates working maliciously for the honest type.
answered Nov 24 at 13:36
mlc
4,87931332
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Yes, you can assume different action sets for different types of a player.
To simplify notation, it is a common assumption in the literature to assume that all types of a player have the same set of actions.
If you like this approach for your example, assume that both types can work honestly or maliciously but the honest type has a payoff of $- infty$ (or some other very low value) if he works maliciously, so that he would never opt for this action. In other words, assume that working honestly strictly dominates working maliciously for the honest type.
answered Nov 24 at 13:36
mlc
4,87931332
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Yes, you can assume different action sets for different types of a player.
To simplify notation, it is a common assumption in the literature to assume that all types of a player have the same set of actions.
If you like this approach for your example, assume that both types can work honestly or maliciously but the honest type has a payoff of $- infty$ (or some other very low value) if he works maliciously, so that he would never opt for this action. In other words, assume that working honestly strictly dominates working maliciously for the honest type.
answered Nov 24 at 13:36
mlc
4,87931332
Yes, you can assume different action sets for different types of a player.
To simplify notation, it is a common assumption in the literature to assume that all types of a player have the same set of actions.
If you like this approach for your example, assume that both types can work honestly or maliciously but the honest type has a payoff of $- infty$ (or some other very low value) if he works maliciously, so that he would never opt for this action. In other words, assume that working honestly strictly dominates working maliciously for the honest type.
answered Nov 24 at 13:36
mlc
4,87931332
answered Nov 24 at 13:36
mlc
4,87931332
answered Nov 24 at 13:36
mlc
4,87931332
answered Nov 24 at 13:36
mlc
4,87931332
4,87931332
add a comment |
add a comment |
Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!
- Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!
But avoid …
- Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.
- Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.
Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.
To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.
Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.
Please pay close attention to the following guidance:
- Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!
But avoid …
- Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.
- Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.
To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3009021%2fin-bayesian-games-is-the-actions-set-for-a-player-fixed%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
So you're saying the probability of being malicious when the type is honest is given by $p(action=malicious|type=honest)=0$? I think this might work for a Bayesian game.
– Jay Schyler Raadt
Nov 23 at 4:36