Is $cos(frac x6) cdot cos( frac {x cdot pi}{6})$ periodic?











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3
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Aim : To obtain the period of $cos(x/6)cos(xpi/6)$, if it exists



What I've done as of now :



$$cosleft(frac x6right)cosleft(frac {xpi}{6}right)
= frac{1}{2} cdot left[cosleft(frac {x(pi+1)}{6}right) + cosleft(frac {x cdot (pi-1)}{6}right)right].$$



And since both, $cos(x)$ components are in summation therefore individually calculating the periods and then taking LCM of them should do the trick.
However, the main issue comes over here. If I use the $2{pi}k$ thing, then the period for the first component comes out to be $frac{12pi}{pi + 1}$ for the first one and $frac{12pi}{pi - 1}$ for the second component. Thus making the function look non-periodic.



But the graph of the same function looks like this...



The above picture to me appears to be periodic.



Issue : I'm still in a state of confusion because of the result that I calculated above and the graph obtained below. How to resolve this discrepancy?










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  • Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/681750/…
    – b00n heT
    Nov 17 at 10:46










  • Use mathworld.wolfram.com/WernerFormulas.html and math.stackexchange.com/questions/873723/…
    – lab bhattacharjee
    Nov 17 at 10:47










  • You cannot answer this with a graph. Replace the $pi$ in your formula with any rational number and it would be periodic but with any irrational number, such as $pi$, it won't be. However, since you can find rational numbers arbitrarily close to $pi$, you can get very close approximations which are periodic. If you created that graph with a computer then it will be periodic as you will not have used $pi$, just a fairly good approximation. Floating point numbers in a point (regardless of the precision) are rational.
    – badjohn
    Nov 17 at 10:54










  • $*$ for multiplication is a bit too computery. In maths, multiplication is usually indicated just by adjacency. If you must be explicit then use $times$. $cos(frac x6)cos( frac {pi x}{6})$
    – badjohn
    Nov 17 at 10:58












  • Got it. Thanks a lot. So from now on I'll refrain from comparing mathematical results like these with the graphs/results obtained via approximation.
    – Argon
    Nov 17 at 11:23















up vote
3
down vote

favorite












Aim : To obtain the period of $cos(x/6)cos(xpi/6)$, if it exists



What I've done as of now :



$$cosleft(frac x6right)cosleft(frac {xpi}{6}right)
= frac{1}{2} cdot left[cosleft(frac {x(pi+1)}{6}right) + cosleft(frac {x cdot (pi-1)}{6}right)right].$$



And since both, $cos(x)$ components are in summation therefore individually calculating the periods and then taking LCM of them should do the trick.
However, the main issue comes over here. If I use the $2{pi}k$ thing, then the period for the first component comes out to be $frac{12pi}{pi + 1}$ for the first one and $frac{12pi}{pi - 1}$ for the second component. Thus making the function look non-periodic.



But the graph of the same function looks like this...



The above picture to me appears to be periodic.



Issue : I'm still in a state of confusion because of the result that I calculated above and the graph obtained below. How to resolve this discrepancy?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/681750/…
    – b00n heT
    Nov 17 at 10:46










  • Use mathworld.wolfram.com/WernerFormulas.html and math.stackexchange.com/questions/873723/…
    – lab bhattacharjee
    Nov 17 at 10:47










  • You cannot answer this with a graph. Replace the $pi$ in your formula with any rational number and it would be periodic but with any irrational number, such as $pi$, it won't be. However, since you can find rational numbers arbitrarily close to $pi$, you can get very close approximations which are periodic. If you created that graph with a computer then it will be periodic as you will not have used $pi$, just a fairly good approximation. Floating point numbers in a point (regardless of the precision) are rational.
    – badjohn
    Nov 17 at 10:54










  • $*$ for multiplication is a bit too computery. In maths, multiplication is usually indicated just by adjacency. If you must be explicit then use $times$. $cos(frac x6)cos( frac {pi x}{6})$
    – badjohn
    Nov 17 at 10:58












  • Got it. Thanks a lot. So from now on I'll refrain from comparing mathematical results like these with the graphs/results obtained via approximation.
    – Argon
    Nov 17 at 11:23













up vote
3
down vote

favorite









up vote
3
down vote

favorite











Aim : To obtain the period of $cos(x/6)cos(xpi/6)$, if it exists



What I've done as of now :



$$cosleft(frac x6right)cosleft(frac {xpi}{6}right)
= frac{1}{2} cdot left[cosleft(frac {x(pi+1)}{6}right) + cosleft(frac {x cdot (pi-1)}{6}right)right].$$



And since both, $cos(x)$ components are in summation therefore individually calculating the periods and then taking LCM of them should do the trick.
However, the main issue comes over here. If I use the $2{pi}k$ thing, then the period for the first component comes out to be $frac{12pi}{pi + 1}$ for the first one and $frac{12pi}{pi - 1}$ for the second component. Thus making the function look non-periodic.



But the graph of the same function looks like this...



The above picture to me appears to be periodic.



Issue : I'm still in a state of confusion because of the result that I calculated above and the graph obtained below. How to resolve this discrepancy?










share|cite|improve this question















Aim : To obtain the period of $cos(x/6)cos(xpi/6)$, if it exists



What I've done as of now :



$$cosleft(frac x6right)cosleft(frac {xpi}{6}right)
= frac{1}{2} cdot left[cosleft(frac {x(pi+1)}{6}right) + cosleft(frac {x cdot (pi-1)}{6}right)right].$$



And since both, $cos(x)$ components are in summation therefore individually calculating the periods and then taking LCM of them should do the trick.
However, the main issue comes over here. If I use the $2{pi}k$ thing, then the period for the first component comes out to be $frac{12pi}{pi + 1}$ for the first one and $frac{12pi}{pi - 1}$ for the second component. Thus making the function look non-periodic.



But the graph of the same function looks like this...



The above picture to me appears to be periodic.



Issue : I'm still in a state of confusion because of the result that I calculated above and the graph obtained below. How to resolve this discrepancy?







real-analysis trigonometry periodic-functions






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Nov 17 at 11:19









amWhy

191k27223437




191k27223437










asked Nov 17 at 10:41









Argon

204




204












  • Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/681750/…
    – b00n heT
    Nov 17 at 10:46










  • Use mathworld.wolfram.com/WernerFormulas.html and math.stackexchange.com/questions/873723/…
    – lab bhattacharjee
    Nov 17 at 10:47










  • You cannot answer this with a graph. Replace the $pi$ in your formula with any rational number and it would be periodic but with any irrational number, such as $pi$, it won't be. However, since you can find rational numbers arbitrarily close to $pi$, you can get very close approximations which are periodic. If you created that graph with a computer then it will be periodic as you will not have used $pi$, just a fairly good approximation. Floating point numbers in a point (regardless of the precision) are rational.
    – badjohn
    Nov 17 at 10:54










  • $*$ for multiplication is a bit too computery. In maths, multiplication is usually indicated just by adjacency. If you must be explicit then use $times$. $cos(frac x6)cos( frac {pi x}{6})$
    – badjohn
    Nov 17 at 10:58












  • Got it. Thanks a lot. So from now on I'll refrain from comparing mathematical results like these with the graphs/results obtained via approximation.
    – Argon
    Nov 17 at 11:23


















  • Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/681750/…
    – b00n heT
    Nov 17 at 10:46










  • Use mathworld.wolfram.com/WernerFormulas.html and math.stackexchange.com/questions/873723/…
    – lab bhattacharjee
    Nov 17 at 10:47










  • You cannot answer this with a graph. Replace the $pi$ in your formula with any rational number and it would be periodic but with any irrational number, such as $pi$, it won't be. However, since you can find rational numbers arbitrarily close to $pi$, you can get very close approximations which are periodic. If you created that graph with a computer then it will be periodic as you will not have used $pi$, just a fairly good approximation. Floating point numbers in a point (regardless of the precision) are rational.
    – badjohn
    Nov 17 at 10:54










  • $*$ for multiplication is a bit too computery. In maths, multiplication is usually indicated just by adjacency. If you must be explicit then use $times$. $cos(frac x6)cos( frac {pi x}{6})$
    – badjohn
    Nov 17 at 10:58












  • Got it. Thanks a lot. So from now on I'll refrain from comparing mathematical results like these with the graphs/results obtained via approximation.
    – Argon
    Nov 17 at 11:23
















Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/681750/…
– b00n heT
Nov 17 at 10:46




Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/681750/…
– b00n heT
Nov 17 at 10:46












Use mathworld.wolfram.com/WernerFormulas.html and math.stackexchange.com/questions/873723/…
– lab bhattacharjee
Nov 17 at 10:47




Use mathworld.wolfram.com/WernerFormulas.html and math.stackexchange.com/questions/873723/…
– lab bhattacharjee
Nov 17 at 10:47












You cannot answer this with a graph. Replace the $pi$ in your formula with any rational number and it would be periodic but with any irrational number, such as $pi$, it won't be. However, since you can find rational numbers arbitrarily close to $pi$, you can get very close approximations which are periodic. If you created that graph with a computer then it will be periodic as you will not have used $pi$, just a fairly good approximation. Floating point numbers in a point (regardless of the precision) are rational.
– badjohn
Nov 17 at 10:54




You cannot answer this with a graph. Replace the $pi$ in your formula with any rational number and it would be periodic but with any irrational number, such as $pi$, it won't be. However, since you can find rational numbers arbitrarily close to $pi$, you can get very close approximations which are periodic. If you created that graph with a computer then it will be periodic as you will not have used $pi$, just a fairly good approximation. Floating point numbers in a point (regardless of the precision) are rational.
– badjohn
Nov 17 at 10:54












$*$ for multiplication is a bit too computery. In maths, multiplication is usually indicated just by adjacency. If you must be explicit then use $times$. $cos(frac x6)cos( frac {pi x}{6})$
– badjohn
Nov 17 at 10:58






$*$ for multiplication is a bit too computery. In maths, multiplication is usually indicated just by adjacency. If you must be explicit then use $times$. $cos(frac x6)cos( frac {pi x}{6})$
– badjohn
Nov 17 at 10:58














Got it. Thanks a lot. So from now on I'll refrain from comparing mathematical results like these with the graphs/results obtained via approximation.
– Argon
Nov 17 at 11:23




Got it. Thanks a lot. So from now on I'll refrain from comparing mathematical results like these with the graphs/results obtained via approximation.
– Argon
Nov 17 at 11:23










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










The previous question linked by b00n het discusses the sum of two periodic functions but the same argument applies to the product.



Sum of two periodic functions is periodic?



The answer is that the sum or product of two periodic functions is periodic if and only if the ratio of their periods is rational. If the ratio of the periods is not rational then you cannot calculate the LCM. Even if the ratio of the periods is rational, the period of the sum or product will not necessarily be the LCM of the periods of components; it could be shorter. What's the period of $sin(x)$, $sin(x) - sin(x)$, and $sin(x) times sin(x)$? However it won't be longer. The sum or product will either be constant or its period will be the LCM divided by an integer.



Consider $sin(x) times sin(3.14159 x)$, what's its period? It's rather large: $628318 times pi$. How about $sin(x) times sin(3.1415926535 x)$?



The point of these examples is that they are close approximations to $sin(x) times sin(pi x)$. You would need a very wide or very accurate graph to tell them apart. If your graph was wide enough then you would notice that $sin(x) times sin(pi x)$ would drift slowly from these approximations.



Another thing to consider is whether $sin(pi x)$ could share a zero with $sin(x)$ other than at $x = 0$. It should be obvious that this would only be possible if $pi$ was rational. However, name any non-zero error margin and it will come within that margin eventually.



Finally note that a computer generated graph, at least one which uses standard floating point arithmetic, will never show this since any value than can be stored in floating point format, regardless of the precision, will be rational. Even if you used some fancy techniques that overcame this, you could still not distinguish the periodic and non-periodic cases without an infinite size and precision graph.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Suppose $cos(ax)+cos(bx)$ is periodic with period $T>0$. Then $cos(aT)+cos(bT)=2$, but also $cos(2aT)+cos(2bT)=2$, which translates into
    $$
    2cos^2(aT)+2cos^2(bT)-2=2
    $$

    that is, $cos^2(aT)+cos^2(bT)=2$. Using $x^2+y^2=(x+y)-2xy$, we obtain
    $$
    4-2cos(aT)cos(bT)=2
    $$

    that is $cos(aT)cos(bT)=1$. Hence, we need $cos(aT)=cos(bT)=1$.



    Hence $aT=2mpi$ and $bT=2npi$, for some (nonzero) integers $m$ and $n$. In particular,
    $$
    frac{a}{b}=frac{m}{n}
    $$

    is rational. In your case
    $$
    frac{a}{b}=frac{pi+1}{pi-1}=r
    $$

    with rational $r$ would imply
    $$
    pi=frac{r+1}{r-1}
    $$

    is rational.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • ..thus making $pi$ rational, in contradiction to our belief. Thanks a lot for this explanation. I will probably use this process to solve any future questions of the same kind.
      – Argon
      Nov 18 at 12:58













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    2 Answers
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    active

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

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    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    The previous question linked by b00n het discusses the sum of two periodic functions but the same argument applies to the product.



    Sum of two periodic functions is periodic?



    The answer is that the sum or product of two periodic functions is periodic if and only if the ratio of their periods is rational. If the ratio of the periods is not rational then you cannot calculate the LCM. Even if the ratio of the periods is rational, the period of the sum or product will not necessarily be the LCM of the periods of components; it could be shorter. What's the period of $sin(x)$, $sin(x) - sin(x)$, and $sin(x) times sin(x)$? However it won't be longer. The sum or product will either be constant or its period will be the LCM divided by an integer.



    Consider $sin(x) times sin(3.14159 x)$, what's its period? It's rather large: $628318 times pi$. How about $sin(x) times sin(3.1415926535 x)$?



    The point of these examples is that they are close approximations to $sin(x) times sin(pi x)$. You would need a very wide or very accurate graph to tell them apart. If your graph was wide enough then you would notice that $sin(x) times sin(pi x)$ would drift slowly from these approximations.



    Another thing to consider is whether $sin(pi x)$ could share a zero with $sin(x)$ other than at $x = 0$. It should be obvious that this would only be possible if $pi$ was rational. However, name any non-zero error margin and it will come within that margin eventually.



    Finally note that a computer generated graph, at least one which uses standard floating point arithmetic, will never show this since any value than can be stored in floating point format, regardless of the precision, will be rational. Even if you used some fancy techniques that overcame this, you could still not distinguish the periodic and non-periodic cases without an infinite size and precision graph.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      The previous question linked by b00n het discusses the sum of two periodic functions but the same argument applies to the product.



      Sum of two periodic functions is periodic?



      The answer is that the sum or product of two periodic functions is periodic if and only if the ratio of their periods is rational. If the ratio of the periods is not rational then you cannot calculate the LCM. Even if the ratio of the periods is rational, the period of the sum or product will not necessarily be the LCM of the periods of components; it could be shorter. What's the period of $sin(x)$, $sin(x) - sin(x)$, and $sin(x) times sin(x)$? However it won't be longer. The sum or product will either be constant or its period will be the LCM divided by an integer.



      Consider $sin(x) times sin(3.14159 x)$, what's its period? It's rather large: $628318 times pi$. How about $sin(x) times sin(3.1415926535 x)$?



      The point of these examples is that they are close approximations to $sin(x) times sin(pi x)$. You would need a very wide or very accurate graph to tell them apart. If your graph was wide enough then you would notice that $sin(x) times sin(pi x)$ would drift slowly from these approximations.



      Another thing to consider is whether $sin(pi x)$ could share a zero with $sin(x)$ other than at $x = 0$. It should be obvious that this would only be possible if $pi$ was rational. However, name any non-zero error margin and it will come within that margin eventually.



      Finally note that a computer generated graph, at least one which uses standard floating point arithmetic, will never show this since any value than can be stored in floating point format, regardless of the precision, will be rational. Even if you used some fancy techniques that overcame this, you could still not distinguish the periodic and non-periodic cases without an infinite size and precision graph.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted






        The previous question linked by b00n het discusses the sum of two periodic functions but the same argument applies to the product.



        Sum of two periodic functions is periodic?



        The answer is that the sum or product of two periodic functions is periodic if and only if the ratio of their periods is rational. If the ratio of the periods is not rational then you cannot calculate the LCM. Even if the ratio of the periods is rational, the period of the sum or product will not necessarily be the LCM of the periods of components; it could be shorter. What's the period of $sin(x)$, $sin(x) - sin(x)$, and $sin(x) times sin(x)$? However it won't be longer. The sum or product will either be constant or its period will be the LCM divided by an integer.



        Consider $sin(x) times sin(3.14159 x)$, what's its period? It's rather large: $628318 times pi$. How about $sin(x) times sin(3.1415926535 x)$?



        The point of these examples is that they are close approximations to $sin(x) times sin(pi x)$. You would need a very wide or very accurate graph to tell them apart. If your graph was wide enough then you would notice that $sin(x) times sin(pi x)$ would drift slowly from these approximations.



        Another thing to consider is whether $sin(pi x)$ could share a zero with $sin(x)$ other than at $x = 0$. It should be obvious that this would only be possible if $pi$ was rational. However, name any non-zero error margin and it will come within that margin eventually.



        Finally note that a computer generated graph, at least one which uses standard floating point arithmetic, will never show this since any value than can be stored in floating point format, regardless of the precision, will be rational. Even if you used some fancy techniques that overcame this, you could still not distinguish the periodic and non-periodic cases without an infinite size and precision graph.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        The previous question linked by b00n het discusses the sum of two periodic functions but the same argument applies to the product.



        Sum of two periodic functions is periodic?



        The answer is that the sum or product of two periodic functions is periodic if and only if the ratio of their periods is rational. If the ratio of the periods is not rational then you cannot calculate the LCM. Even if the ratio of the periods is rational, the period of the sum or product will not necessarily be the LCM of the periods of components; it could be shorter. What's the period of $sin(x)$, $sin(x) - sin(x)$, and $sin(x) times sin(x)$? However it won't be longer. The sum or product will either be constant or its period will be the LCM divided by an integer.



        Consider $sin(x) times sin(3.14159 x)$, what's its period? It's rather large: $628318 times pi$. How about $sin(x) times sin(3.1415926535 x)$?



        The point of these examples is that they are close approximations to $sin(x) times sin(pi x)$. You would need a very wide or very accurate graph to tell them apart. If your graph was wide enough then you would notice that $sin(x) times sin(pi x)$ would drift slowly from these approximations.



        Another thing to consider is whether $sin(pi x)$ could share a zero with $sin(x)$ other than at $x = 0$. It should be obvious that this would only be possible if $pi$ was rational. However, name any non-zero error margin and it will come within that margin eventually.



        Finally note that a computer generated graph, at least one which uses standard floating point arithmetic, will never show this since any value than can be stored in floating point format, regardless of the precision, will be rational. Even if you used some fancy techniques that overcame this, you could still not distinguish the periodic and non-periodic cases without an infinite size and precision graph.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 17 at 11:23









        badjohn

        4,1721620




        4,1721620






















            up vote
            1
            down vote













            Suppose $cos(ax)+cos(bx)$ is periodic with period $T>0$. Then $cos(aT)+cos(bT)=2$, but also $cos(2aT)+cos(2bT)=2$, which translates into
            $$
            2cos^2(aT)+2cos^2(bT)-2=2
            $$

            that is, $cos^2(aT)+cos^2(bT)=2$. Using $x^2+y^2=(x+y)-2xy$, we obtain
            $$
            4-2cos(aT)cos(bT)=2
            $$

            that is $cos(aT)cos(bT)=1$. Hence, we need $cos(aT)=cos(bT)=1$.



            Hence $aT=2mpi$ and $bT=2npi$, for some (nonzero) integers $m$ and $n$. In particular,
            $$
            frac{a}{b}=frac{m}{n}
            $$

            is rational. In your case
            $$
            frac{a}{b}=frac{pi+1}{pi-1}=r
            $$

            with rational $r$ would imply
            $$
            pi=frac{r+1}{r-1}
            $$

            is rational.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • ..thus making $pi$ rational, in contradiction to our belief. Thanks a lot for this explanation. I will probably use this process to solve any future questions of the same kind.
              – Argon
              Nov 18 at 12:58

















            up vote
            1
            down vote













            Suppose $cos(ax)+cos(bx)$ is periodic with period $T>0$. Then $cos(aT)+cos(bT)=2$, but also $cos(2aT)+cos(2bT)=2$, which translates into
            $$
            2cos^2(aT)+2cos^2(bT)-2=2
            $$

            that is, $cos^2(aT)+cos^2(bT)=2$. Using $x^2+y^2=(x+y)-2xy$, we obtain
            $$
            4-2cos(aT)cos(bT)=2
            $$

            that is $cos(aT)cos(bT)=1$. Hence, we need $cos(aT)=cos(bT)=1$.



            Hence $aT=2mpi$ and $bT=2npi$, for some (nonzero) integers $m$ and $n$. In particular,
            $$
            frac{a}{b}=frac{m}{n}
            $$

            is rational. In your case
            $$
            frac{a}{b}=frac{pi+1}{pi-1}=r
            $$

            with rational $r$ would imply
            $$
            pi=frac{r+1}{r-1}
            $$

            is rational.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • ..thus making $pi$ rational, in contradiction to our belief. Thanks a lot for this explanation. I will probably use this process to solve any future questions of the same kind.
              – Argon
              Nov 18 at 12:58















            up vote
            1
            down vote










            up vote
            1
            down vote









            Suppose $cos(ax)+cos(bx)$ is periodic with period $T>0$. Then $cos(aT)+cos(bT)=2$, but also $cos(2aT)+cos(2bT)=2$, which translates into
            $$
            2cos^2(aT)+2cos^2(bT)-2=2
            $$

            that is, $cos^2(aT)+cos^2(bT)=2$. Using $x^2+y^2=(x+y)-2xy$, we obtain
            $$
            4-2cos(aT)cos(bT)=2
            $$

            that is $cos(aT)cos(bT)=1$. Hence, we need $cos(aT)=cos(bT)=1$.



            Hence $aT=2mpi$ and $bT=2npi$, for some (nonzero) integers $m$ and $n$. In particular,
            $$
            frac{a}{b}=frac{m}{n}
            $$

            is rational. In your case
            $$
            frac{a}{b}=frac{pi+1}{pi-1}=r
            $$

            with rational $r$ would imply
            $$
            pi=frac{r+1}{r-1}
            $$

            is rational.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Suppose $cos(ax)+cos(bx)$ is periodic with period $T>0$. Then $cos(aT)+cos(bT)=2$, but also $cos(2aT)+cos(2bT)=2$, which translates into
            $$
            2cos^2(aT)+2cos^2(bT)-2=2
            $$

            that is, $cos^2(aT)+cos^2(bT)=2$. Using $x^2+y^2=(x+y)-2xy$, we obtain
            $$
            4-2cos(aT)cos(bT)=2
            $$

            that is $cos(aT)cos(bT)=1$. Hence, we need $cos(aT)=cos(bT)=1$.



            Hence $aT=2mpi$ and $bT=2npi$, for some (nonzero) integers $m$ and $n$. In particular,
            $$
            frac{a}{b}=frac{m}{n}
            $$

            is rational. In your case
            $$
            frac{a}{b}=frac{pi+1}{pi-1}=r
            $$

            with rational $r$ would imply
            $$
            pi=frac{r+1}{r-1}
            $$

            is rational.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Nov 17 at 11:57









            egreg

            174k1383198




            174k1383198












            • ..thus making $pi$ rational, in contradiction to our belief. Thanks a lot for this explanation. I will probably use this process to solve any future questions of the same kind.
              – Argon
              Nov 18 at 12:58




















            • ..thus making $pi$ rational, in contradiction to our belief. Thanks a lot for this explanation. I will probably use this process to solve any future questions of the same kind.
              – Argon
              Nov 18 at 12:58


















            ..thus making $pi$ rational, in contradiction to our belief. Thanks a lot for this explanation. I will probably use this process to solve any future questions of the same kind.
            – Argon
            Nov 18 at 12:58






            ..thus making $pi$ rational, in contradiction to our belief. Thanks a lot for this explanation. I will probably use this process to solve any future questions of the same kind.
            – Argon
            Nov 18 at 12:58




















             

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