Prove a limit involving the ceiling function











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I found a pattern that I want to prove:




$$f(x) = 2^{lceil log_2(3^x)rceil} - 3^xquad {xinmathbb{Z}^+} $$
$$ lim_{xrightarrowinfty} f(x) = infty $$




Discussion:



$$ f(x) = 2^{lceil log_2(3^x)rceil} - 3^x = 3^x(2^{lceil log_2(3^x)rceil-log_2(3^x)}-1)$$



$$0<lceil log_2(3^x)rceil-log_2(3^x)<1 Rightarrow 0<f(x)<3^x$$



$f(x)$'s lower bound is zero and its upper bound tends to infinity. As far as I know, $f(x)$ can oscillate anywhere in between. However, after checking a few first thousands values of $f$, I am convinced that the function indeed tends to infinity. I guess the fact that $x$ is an integer plays a role in that.



If $lceil log_2(3^x) rceil$ was really close to $log_2(3^x)$, $f(x)$ would be really close to $0$, so the limit would not hold. Experimental results suggest the limit exists, so I guess there are some restrictions on how close $log_2(3^x)$ can be to its ceiling integer.



I don't know how to proceed from that.










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  • @abiessu Formally, a function goes to $infty$ has no limit, if that what you're talking about; however, I guess you understand what I mean by $f(x) rightarrow infty$.
    – Felix Fourcolor
    Nov 20 at 5:27






  • 1




    Btw +1 for the nice question.
    – Paramanand Singh
    Nov 20 at 5:35










  • @FelixFourcolor: a function that goes to $infty$ has that limit. A function that goes to multiple values repeatedly without converging to just one does not have a limit.
    – abiessu
    Nov 20 at 5:38










  • @abiessu I guess it's the matter of convention. However if that's the case, I don't understand your previous comment.
    – Felix Fourcolor
    Nov 20 at 5:52






  • 2




    oeis.org/A063003
    – John Wayland Bales
    Nov 20 at 6:56















up vote
4
down vote

favorite
3












I found a pattern that I want to prove:




$$f(x) = 2^{lceil log_2(3^x)rceil} - 3^xquad {xinmathbb{Z}^+} $$
$$ lim_{xrightarrowinfty} f(x) = infty $$




Discussion:



$$ f(x) = 2^{lceil log_2(3^x)rceil} - 3^x = 3^x(2^{lceil log_2(3^x)rceil-log_2(3^x)}-1)$$



$$0<lceil log_2(3^x)rceil-log_2(3^x)<1 Rightarrow 0<f(x)<3^x$$



$f(x)$'s lower bound is zero and its upper bound tends to infinity. As far as I know, $f(x)$ can oscillate anywhere in between. However, after checking a few first thousands values of $f$, I am convinced that the function indeed tends to infinity. I guess the fact that $x$ is an integer plays a role in that.



If $lceil log_2(3^x) rceil$ was really close to $log_2(3^x)$, $f(x)$ would be really close to $0$, so the limit would not hold. Experimental results suggest the limit exists, so I guess there are some restrictions on how close $log_2(3^x)$ can be to its ceiling integer.



I don't know how to proceed from that.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • @abiessu Formally, a function goes to $infty$ has no limit, if that what you're talking about; however, I guess you understand what I mean by $f(x) rightarrow infty$.
    – Felix Fourcolor
    Nov 20 at 5:27






  • 1




    Btw +1 for the nice question.
    – Paramanand Singh
    Nov 20 at 5:35










  • @FelixFourcolor: a function that goes to $infty$ has that limit. A function that goes to multiple values repeatedly without converging to just one does not have a limit.
    – abiessu
    Nov 20 at 5:38










  • @abiessu I guess it's the matter of convention. However if that's the case, I don't understand your previous comment.
    – Felix Fourcolor
    Nov 20 at 5:52






  • 2




    oeis.org/A063003
    – John Wayland Bales
    Nov 20 at 6:56













up vote
4
down vote

favorite
3









up vote
4
down vote

favorite
3






3





I found a pattern that I want to prove:




$$f(x) = 2^{lceil log_2(3^x)rceil} - 3^xquad {xinmathbb{Z}^+} $$
$$ lim_{xrightarrowinfty} f(x) = infty $$




Discussion:



$$ f(x) = 2^{lceil log_2(3^x)rceil} - 3^x = 3^x(2^{lceil log_2(3^x)rceil-log_2(3^x)}-1)$$



$$0<lceil log_2(3^x)rceil-log_2(3^x)<1 Rightarrow 0<f(x)<3^x$$



$f(x)$'s lower bound is zero and its upper bound tends to infinity. As far as I know, $f(x)$ can oscillate anywhere in between. However, after checking a few first thousands values of $f$, I am convinced that the function indeed tends to infinity. I guess the fact that $x$ is an integer plays a role in that.



If $lceil log_2(3^x) rceil$ was really close to $log_2(3^x)$, $f(x)$ would be really close to $0$, so the limit would not hold. Experimental results suggest the limit exists, so I guess there are some restrictions on how close $log_2(3^x)$ can be to its ceiling integer.



I don't know how to proceed from that.










share|cite|improve this question















I found a pattern that I want to prove:




$$f(x) = 2^{lceil log_2(3^x)rceil} - 3^xquad {xinmathbb{Z}^+} $$
$$ lim_{xrightarrowinfty} f(x) = infty $$




Discussion:



$$ f(x) = 2^{lceil log_2(3^x)rceil} - 3^x = 3^x(2^{lceil log_2(3^x)rceil-log_2(3^x)}-1)$$



$$0<lceil log_2(3^x)rceil-log_2(3^x)<1 Rightarrow 0<f(x)<3^x$$



$f(x)$'s lower bound is zero and its upper bound tends to infinity. As far as I know, $f(x)$ can oscillate anywhere in between. However, after checking a few first thousands values of $f$, I am convinced that the function indeed tends to infinity. I guess the fact that $x$ is an integer plays a role in that.



If $lceil log_2(3^x) rceil$ was really close to $log_2(3^x)$, $f(x)$ would be really close to $0$, so the limit would not hold. Experimental results suggest the limit exists, so I guess there are some restrictions on how close $log_2(3^x)$ can be to its ceiling integer.



I don't know how to proceed from that.







number-theory limits irrational-numbers ceiling-function






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 20 at 7:31

























asked Nov 20 at 4:52









Felix Fourcolor

282214




282214












  • @abiessu Formally, a function goes to $infty$ has no limit, if that what you're talking about; however, I guess you understand what I mean by $f(x) rightarrow infty$.
    – Felix Fourcolor
    Nov 20 at 5:27






  • 1




    Btw +1 for the nice question.
    – Paramanand Singh
    Nov 20 at 5:35










  • @FelixFourcolor: a function that goes to $infty$ has that limit. A function that goes to multiple values repeatedly without converging to just one does not have a limit.
    – abiessu
    Nov 20 at 5:38










  • @abiessu I guess it's the matter of convention. However if that's the case, I don't understand your previous comment.
    – Felix Fourcolor
    Nov 20 at 5:52






  • 2




    oeis.org/A063003
    – John Wayland Bales
    Nov 20 at 6:56


















  • @abiessu Formally, a function goes to $infty$ has no limit, if that what you're talking about; however, I guess you understand what I mean by $f(x) rightarrow infty$.
    – Felix Fourcolor
    Nov 20 at 5:27






  • 1




    Btw +1 for the nice question.
    – Paramanand Singh
    Nov 20 at 5:35










  • @FelixFourcolor: a function that goes to $infty$ has that limit. A function that goes to multiple values repeatedly without converging to just one does not have a limit.
    – abiessu
    Nov 20 at 5:38










  • @abiessu I guess it's the matter of convention. However if that's the case, I don't understand your previous comment.
    – Felix Fourcolor
    Nov 20 at 5:52






  • 2




    oeis.org/A063003
    – John Wayland Bales
    Nov 20 at 6:56
















@abiessu Formally, a function goes to $infty$ has no limit, if that what you're talking about; however, I guess you understand what I mean by $f(x) rightarrow infty$.
– Felix Fourcolor
Nov 20 at 5:27




@abiessu Formally, a function goes to $infty$ has no limit, if that what you're talking about; however, I guess you understand what I mean by $f(x) rightarrow infty$.
– Felix Fourcolor
Nov 20 at 5:27




1




1




Btw +1 for the nice question.
– Paramanand Singh
Nov 20 at 5:35




Btw +1 for the nice question.
– Paramanand Singh
Nov 20 at 5:35












@FelixFourcolor: a function that goes to $infty$ has that limit. A function that goes to multiple values repeatedly without converging to just one does not have a limit.
– abiessu
Nov 20 at 5:38




@FelixFourcolor: a function that goes to $infty$ has that limit. A function that goes to multiple values repeatedly without converging to just one does not have a limit.
– abiessu
Nov 20 at 5:38












@abiessu I guess it's the matter of convention. However if that's the case, I don't understand your previous comment.
– Felix Fourcolor
Nov 20 at 5:52




@abiessu I guess it's the matter of convention. However if that's the case, I don't understand your previous comment.
– Felix Fourcolor
Nov 20 at 5:52




2




2




oeis.org/A063003
– John Wayland Bales
Nov 20 at 6:56




oeis.org/A063003
– John Wayland Bales
Nov 20 at 6:56















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