A random variable X has range from $(0,a)$. Show that $Var(X)le a^2/4$












0














A random variable X has range from $(0,a)$. Show that $Var(X)le a^2/4$.

The given hint is to show $E[X^2]le aE[X]$ first, and use that to show $Var(X)le a^2[beta(1-beta)]$, where $beta=E[X]/a$.

I don't know how to start. I've tried using Cheyshev's inequality but it doesn't work. Can anyone give me a hint how to start? Any concept I've been missing?










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  • is that all the information in the question?
    – Siong Thye Goh
    Nov 27 '18 at 1:12










  • @SiongThyeGoh I've edited some typos. And yes, that is all
    – Yibei He
    Nov 27 '18 at 1:19
















0














A random variable X has range from $(0,a)$. Show that $Var(X)le a^2/4$.

The given hint is to show $E[X^2]le aE[X]$ first, and use that to show $Var(X)le a^2[beta(1-beta)]$, where $beta=E[X]/a$.

I don't know how to start. I've tried using Cheyshev's inequality but it doesn't work. Can anyone give me a hint how to start? Any concept I've been missing?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • is that all the information in the question?
    – Siong Thye Goh
    Nov 27 '18 at 1:12










  • @SiongThyeGoh I've edited some typos. And yes, that is all
    – Yibei He
    Nov 27 '18 at 1:19














0












0








0







A random variable X has range from $(0,a)$. Show that $Var(X)le a^2/4$.

The given hint is to show $E[X^2]le aE[X]$ first, and use that to show $Var(X)le a^2[beta(1-beta)]$, where $beta=E[X]/a$.

I don't know how to start. I've tried using Cheyshev's inequality but it doesn't work. Can anyone give me a hint how to start? Any concept I've been missing?










share|cite|improve this question















A random variable X has range from $(0,a)$. Show that $Var(X)le a^2/4$.

The given hint is to show $E[X^2]le aE[X]$ first, and use that to show $Var(X)le a^2[beta(1-beta)]$, where $beta=E[X]/a$.

I don't know how to start. I've tried using Cheyshev's inequality but it doesn't work. Can anyone give me a hint how to start? Any concept I've been missing?







probability






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edited Nov 27 '18 at 1:16

























asked Nov 27 '18 at 1:09









Yibei He

708




708












  • is that all the information in the question?
    – Siong Thye Goh
    Nov 27 '18 at 1:12










  • @SiongThyeGoh I've edited some typos. And yes, that is all
    – Yibei He
    Nov 27 '18 at 1:19


















  • is that all the information in the question?
    – Siong Thye Goh
    Nov 27 '18 at 1:12










  • @SiongThyeGoh I've edited some typos. And yes, that is all
    – Yibei He
    Nov 27 '18 at 1:19
















is that all the information in the question?
– Siong Thye Goh
Nov 27 '18 at 1:12




is that all the information in the question?
– Siong Thye Goh
Nov 27 '18 at 1:12












@SiongThyeGoh I've edited some typos. And yes, that is all
– Yibei He
Nov 27 '18 at 1:19




@SiongThyeGoh I've edited some typos. And yes, that is all
– Yibei He
Nov 27 '18 at 1:19










2 Answers
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$$E[aX-X^2]=E[X(a-X)]ge 0$$



$$Var(X)=E[X^2]-E[X]^2le aE[X]-E[X]^2$$






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    You know that $Var(X)=int_0^a(x-mu)^2dx=int_0^ax^2p(x)dx-left(int_0^axp(x)dxright)^2$, where
    $p(x)geq0$ is the probability distribution and $mu=E(X)$. Hence,
    $$
    Var(X)leq aint_0^axp(x)dx-mu^2=mu(a-mu)=a^2beta(1-beta)=-a^2(beta^2-beta+1/4-1/4)=-a^2(beta-1/2)^2+a^2/4leq a^2/4
    $$

    since $0leq xleq a$.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
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      3














      $$E[aX-X^2]=E[X(a-X)]ge 0$$



      $$Var(X)=E[X^2]-E[X]^2le aE[X]-E[X]^2$$






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        3














        $$E[aX-X^2]=E[X(a-X)]ge 0$$



        $$Var(X)=E[X^2]-E[X]^2le aE[X]-E[X]^2$$






        share|cite|improve this answer
























          3












          3








          3






          $$E[aX-X^2]=E[X(a-X)]ge 0$$



          $$Var(X)=E[X^2]-E[X]^2le aE[X]-E[X]^2$$






          share|cite|improve this answer












          $$E[aX-X^2]=E[X(a-X)]ge 0$$



          $$Var(X)=E[X^2]-E[X]^2le aE[X]-E[X]^2$$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 27 '18 at 1:25









          Siong Thye Goh

          99.4k1464117




          99.4k1464117























              0














              You know that $Var(X)=int_0^a(x-mu)^2dx=int_0^ax^2p(x)dx-left(int_0^axp(x)dxright)^2$, where
              $p(x)geq0$ is the probability distribution and $mu=E(X)$. Hence,
              $$
              Var(X)leq aint_0^axp(x)dx-mu^2=mu(a-mu)=a^2beta(1-beta)=-a^2(beta^2-beta+1/4-1/4)=-a^2(beta-1/2)^2+a^2/4leq a^2/4
              $$

              since $0leq xleq a$.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                0














                You know that $Var(X)=int_0^a(x-mu)^2dx=int_0^ax^2p(x)dx-left(int_0^axp(x)dxright)^2$, where
                $p(x)geq0$ is the probability distribution and $mu=E(X)$. Hence,
                $$
                Var(X)leq aint_0^axp(x)dx-mu^2=mu(a-mu)=a^2beta(1-beta)=-a^2(beta^2-beta+1/4-1/4)=-a^2(beta-1/2)^2+a^2/4leq a^2/4
                $$

                since $0leq xleq a$.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  0












                  0








                  0






                  You know that $Var(X)=int_0^a(x-mu)^2dx=int_0^ax^2p(x)dx-left(int_0^axp(x)dxright)^2$, where
                  $p(x)geq0$ is the probability distribution and $mu=E(X)$. Hence,
                  $$
                  Var(X)leq aint_0^axp(x)dx-mu^2=mu(a-mu)=a^2beta(1-beta)=-a^2(beta^2-beta+1/4-1/4)=-a^2(beta-1/2)^2+a^2/4leq a^2/4
                  $$

                  since $0leq xleq a$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  You know that $Var(X)=int_0^a(x-mu)^2dx=int_0^ax^2p(x)dx-left(int_0^axp(x)dxright)^2$, where
                  $p(x)geq0$ is the probability distribution and $mu=E(X)$. Hence,
                  $$
                  Var(X)leq aint_0^axp(x)dx-mu^2=mu(a-mu)=a^2beta(1-beta)=-a^2(beta^2-beta+1/4-1/4)=-a^2(beta-1/2)^2+a^2/4leq a^2/4
                  $$

                  since $0leq xleq a$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 27 '18 at 1:34









                  minmax

                  48518




                  48518






























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