Proposition 1.39, Hatcher - Quotient By A Non-Normal Subgroup












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enter image description here



This is from Hatcher's Algebraic Topology. In the red box highlighted above, we're not requiring $H$ to be a normal subgroup of $pi_1(X,x_0)$, so I don't understand how the quotient can be a group - the group of deck transformations on $tilde{X}$.










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  • 1




    But $H$ is obviously a normal subgroup of its' normalizer
    – Morgan Rodgers
    Nov 27 '18 at 2:04










  • Oh, I didn't know that. Thank you.
    – Frederic Chopin
    Nov 27 '18 at 2:06










  • No problem, glad it helped.
    – Morgan Rodgers
    Nov 27 '18 at 2:07
















1














enter image description here



This is from Hatcher's Algebraic Topology. In the red box highlighted above, we're not requiring $H$ to be a normal subgroup of $pi_1(X,x_0)$, so I don't understand how the quotient can be a group - the group of deck transformations on $tilde{X}$.










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    But $H$ is obviously a normal subgroup of its' normalizer
    – Morgan Rodgers
    Nov 27 '18 at 2:04










  • Oh, I didn't know that. Thank you.
    – Frederic Chopin
    Nov 27 '18 at 2:06










  • No problem, glad it helped.
    – Morgan Rodgers
    Nov 27 '18 at 2:07














1












1








1







enter image description here



This is from Hatcher's Algebraic Topology. In the red box highlighted above, we're not requiring $H$ to be a normal subgroup of $pi_1(X,x_0)$, so I don't understand how the quotient can be a group - the group of deck transformations on $tilde{X}$.










share|cite|improve this question













enter image description here



This is from Hatcher's Algebraic Topology. In the red box highlighted above, we're not requiring $H$ to be a normal subgroup of $pi_1(X,x_0)$, so I don't understand how the quotient can be a group - the group of deck transformations on $tilde{X}$.







general-topology algebraic-topology






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asked Nov 27 '18 at 2:02









Frederic Chopin

321111




321111








  • 1




    But $H$ is obviously a normal subgroup of its' normalizer
    – Morgan Rodgers
    Nov 27 '18 at 2:04










  • Oh, I didn't know that. Thank you.
    – Frederic Chopin
    Nov 27 '18 at 2:06










  • No problem, glad it helped.
    – Morgan Rodgers
    Nov 27 '18 at 2:07














  • 1




    But $H$ is obviously a normal subgroup of its' normalizer
    – Morgan Rodgers
    Nov 27 '18 at 2:04










  • Oh, I didn't know that. Thank you.
    – Frederic Chopin
    Nov 27 '18 at 2:06










  • No problem, glad it helped.
    – Morgan Rodgers
    Nov 27 '18 at 2:07








1




1




But $H$ is obviously a normal subgroup of its' normalizer
– Morgan Rodgers
Nov 27 '18 at 2:04




But $H$ is obviously a normal subgroup of its' normalizer
– Morgan Rodgers
Nov 27 '18 at 2:04












Oh, I didn't know that. Thank you.
– Frederic Chopin
Nov 27 '18 at 2:06




Oh, I didn't know that. Thank you.
– Frederic Chopin
Nov 27 '18 at 2:06












No problem, glad it helped.
– Morgan Rodgers
Nov 27 '18 at 2:07




No problem, glad it helped.
– Morgan Rodgers
Nov 27 '18 at 2:07










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(I am just elaborating on things written in the comments.) If $H$ is a subgroup of a group $G$ then $N(H)$ (in Hatcher's notation) is the normalizer of $H$. That is, $N(H)={gin G: gHg^{-1}=H}.$ Then $Hsubseteq N(H)$ and is in particular a normal subgroup of $N(H)$ by definition. In conclusion, it makes perfect sense to consider the quotient group $N(H)/H$.






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    1 Answer
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    (I am just elaborating on things written in the comments.) If $H$ is a subgroup of a group $G$ then $N(H)$ (in Hatcher's notation) is the normalizer of $H$. That is, $N(H)={gin G: gHg^{-1}=H}.$ Then $Hsubseteq N(H)$ and is in particular a normal subgroup of $N(H)$ by definition. In conclusion, it makes perfect sense to consider the quotient group $N(H)/H$.






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      1














      (I am just elaborating on things written in the comments.) If $H$ is a subgroup of a group $G$ then $N(H)$ (in Hatcher's notation) is the normalizer of $H$. That is, $N(H)={gin G: gHg^{-1}=H}.$ Then $Hsubseteq N(H)$ and is in particular a normal subgroup of $N(H)$ by definition. In conclusion, it makes perfect sense to consider the quotient group $N(H)/H$.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        1












        1








        1






        (I am just elaborating on things written in the comments.) If $H$ is a subgroup of a group $G$ then $N(H)$ (in Hatcher's notation) is the normalizer of $H$. That is, $N(H)={gin G: gHg^{-1}=H}.$ Then $Hsubseteq N(H)$ and is in particular a normal subgroup of $N(H)$ by definition. In conclusion, it makes perfect sense to consider the quotient group $N(H)/H$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        (I am just elaborating on things written in the comments.) If $H$ is a subgroup of a group $G$ then $N(H)$ (in Hatcher's notation) is the normalizer of $H$. That is, $N(H)={gin G: gHg^{-1}=H}.$ Then $Hsubseteq N(H)$ and is in particular a normal subgroup of $N(H)$ by definition. In conclusion, it makes perfect sense to consider the quotient group $N(H)/H$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 27 '18 at 2:21









        Antonios-Alexandros Robotis

        9,20741640




        9,20741640






























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