Algebra - Square of natural numbers [duplicate]












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This question already has an answer here:




  • If a product of relatively prime integers is an $n$th power, then each is an $n$th power

    2 answers




$a$ and $b$ are natural numbers, their product $atimes b$ is full/complete sqare, prove that then $a$ and $b$ are full squares. $gcd (a,b)=1$ .



Natural number is full square if you can write it in form $n^2$.
I tried dividing with $3$, because full square when divided with three has remainder $0$ or $1$, but that doesn't help. Then i also tried to use the fact that when you divide $xtimes y$ with $z$, and $(x,z)=1$ then $z$ divides $y$, but I don't know how to use it in this case.
Can anyone help me and give me instructions what to do? Thanks a lot!










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marked as duplicate by Bill Dubuque, amWhy, Leucippus, KReiser, user10354138 Dec 5 '18 at 4:26


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.











  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "I tried dividing with $3$, because full square when divided with three has remainder $0$ or $1$, but that doesn't help." That's not so strange. There are lots of non-squares too which give $0$ or $1$ as a remainder. Dividing by $3$ can only prove (in some cases) that a number is not a square, by giving a remainder of $2$. It can never prove that something is a square.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:27








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is confusing to put an essential condition like $gcd(a,b)=1$ after the statement of the problem. I suggest "$a$ and $b$ are natural numbers, with $gcd(a,b)=1$..." (Also, in English, a full/complete square is called a perfect square.)
    $endgroup$
    – TonyK
    Dec 4 '18 at 15:02


















0












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • If a product of relatively prime integers is an $n$th power, then each is an $n$th power

    2 answers




$a$ and $b$ are natural numbers, their product $atimes b$ is full/complete sqare, prove that then $a$ and $b$ are full squares. $gcd (a,b)=1$ .



Natural number is full square if you can write it in form $n^2$.
I tried dividing with $3$, because full square when divided with three has remainder $0$ or $1$, but that doesn't help. Then i also tried to use the fact that when you divide $xtimes y$ with $z$, and $(x,z)=1$ then $z$ divides $y$, but I don't know how to use it in this case.
Can anyone help me and give me instructions what to do? Thanks a lot!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



marked as duplicate by Bill Dubuque, amWhy, Leucippus, KReiser, user10354138 Dec 5 '18 at 4:26


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.











  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "I tried dividing with $3$, because full square when divided with three has remainder $0$ or $1$, but that doesn't help." That's not so strange. There are lots of non-squares too which give $0$ or $1$ as a remainder. Dividing by $3$ can only prove (in some cases) that a number is not a square, by giving a remainder of $2$. It can never prove that something is a square.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:27








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is confusing to put an essential condition like $gcd(a,b)=1$ after the statement of the problem. I suggest "$a$ and $b$ are natural numbers, with $gcd(a,b)=1$..." (Also, in English, a full/complete square is called a perfect square.)
    $endgroup$
    – TonyK
    Dec 4 '18 at 15:02
















0












0








0





$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • If a product of relatively prime integers is an $n$th power, then each is an $n$th power

    2 answers




$a$ and $b$ are natural numbers, their product $atimes b$ is full/complete sqare, prove that then $a$ and $b$ are full squares. $gcd (a,b)=1$ .



Natural number is full square if you can write it in form $n^2$.
I tried dividing with $3$, because full square when divided with three has remainder $0$ or $1$, but that doesn't help. Then i also tried to use the fact that when you divide $xtimes y$ with $z$, and $(x,z)=1$ then $z$ divides $y$, but I don't know how to use it in this case.
Can anyone help me and give me instructions what to do? Thanks a lot!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • If a product of relatively prime integers is an $n$th power, then each is an $n$th power

    2 answers




$a$ and $b$ are natural numbers, their product $atimes b$ is full/complete sqare, prove that then $a$ and $b$ are full squares. $gcd (a,b)=1$ .



Natural number is full square if you can write it in form $n^2$.
I tried dividing with $3$, because full square when divided with three has remainder $0$ or $1$, but that doesn't help. Then i also tried to use the fact that when you divide $xtimes y$ with $z$, and $(x,z)=1$ then $z$ divides $y$, but I don't know how to use it in this case.
Can anyone help me and give me instructions what to do? Thanks a lot!





This question already has an answer here:




  • If a product of relatively prime integers is an $n$th power, then each is an $n$th power

    2 answers








elementary-number-theory square-numbers






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edited Dec 4 '18 at 14:44









Bill Dubuque

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209k29191635










asked Dec 4 '18 at 10:23









HausHaus

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marked as duplicate by Bill Dubuque, amWhy, Leucippus, KReiser, user10354138 Dec 5 '18 at 4:26


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.






marked as duplicate by Bill Dubuque, amWhy, Leucippus, KReiser, user10354138 Dec 5 '18 at 4:26


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.










  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "I tried dividing with $3$, because full square when divided with three has remainder $0$ or $1$, but that doesn't help." That's not so strange. There are lots of non-squares too which give $0$ or $1$ as a remainder. Dividing by $3$ can only prove (in some cases) that a number is not a square, by giving a remainder of $2$. It can never prove that something is a square.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:27








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is confusing to put an essential condition like $gcd(a,b)=1$ after the statement of the problem. I suggest "$a$ and $b$ are natural numbers, with $gcd(a,b)=1$..." (Also, in English, a full/complete square is called a perfect square.)
    $endgroup$
    – TonyK
    Dec 4 '18 at 15:02
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "I tried dividing with $3$, because full square when divided with three has remainder $0$ or $1$, but that doesn't help." That's not so strange. There are lots of non-squares too which give $0$ or $1$ as a remainder. Dividing by $3$ can only prove (in some cases) that a number is not a square, by giving a remainder of $2$. It can never prove that something is a square.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:27








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is confusing to put an essential condition like $gcd(a,b)=1$ after the statement of the problem. I suggest "$a$ and $b$ are natural numbers, with $gcd(a,b)=1$..." (Also, in English, a full/complete square is called a perfect square.)
    $endgroup$
    – TonyK
    Dec 4 '18 at 15:02










1




1




$begingroup$
"I tried dividing with $3$, because full square when divided with three has remainder $0$ or $1$, but that doesn't help." That's not so strange. There are lots of non-squares too which give $0$ or $1$ as a remainder. Dividing by $3$ can only prove (in some cases) that a number is not a square, by giving a remainder of $2$. It can never prove that something is a square.
$endgroup$
– Arthur
Dec 4 '18 at 10:27






$begingroup$
"I tried dividing with $3$, because full square when divided with three has remainder $0$ or $1$, but that doesn't help." That's not so strange. There are lots of non-squares too which give $0$ or $1$ as a remainder. Dividing by $3$ can only prove (in some cases) that a number is not a square, by giving a remainder of $2$. It can never prove that something is a square.
$endgroup$
– Arthur
Dec 4 '18 at 10:27






1




1




$begingroup$
It is confusing to put an essential condition like $gcd(a,b)=1$ after the statement of the problem. I suggest "$a$ and $b$ are natural numbers, with $gcd(a,b)=1$..." (Also, in English, a full/complete square is called a perfect square.)
$endgroup$
– TonyK
Dec 4 '18 at 15:02






$begingroup$
It is confusing to put an essential condition like $gcd(a,b)=1$ after the statement of the problem. I suggest "$a$ and $b$ are natural numbers, with $gcd(a,b)=1$..." (Also, in English, a full/complete square is called a perfect square.)
$endgroup$
– TonyK
Dec 4 '18 at 15:02












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

hint:



every number can be written as a product of prime number to a certain power.



$n = prod_{p in mathbb{P}} p^{alpha_p} $



using this plus the definition of full square and your work you can do it:



$a = prod_{p in mathbb{P}} p^{alpha_p} $ and
$b = prod_{q in mathbb{P}} q^{alpha_q} $



we have also $ab = prod_{n in mathbb{P}} q^{2*alpha_n} $



using your hint, prove that every $alpha_p$ and $alpha_q$ is even






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$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    Hint:



    Use the fundamental theorem of arithmetic.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$




















      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      1












      $begingroup$

      hint:



      every number can be written as a product of prime number to a certain power.



      $n = prod_{p in mathbb{P}} p^{alpha_p} $



      using this plus the definition of full square and your work you can do it:



      $a = prod_{p in mathbb{P}} p^{alpha_p} $ and
      $b = prod_{q in mathbb{P}} q^{alpha_q} $



      we have also $ab = prod_{n in mathbb{P}} q^{2*alpha_n} $



      using your hint, prove that every $alpha_p$ and $alpha_q$ is even






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        1












        $begingroup$

        hint:



        every number can be written as a product of prime number to a certain power.



        $n = prod_{p in mathbb{P}} p^{alpha_p} $



        using this plus the definition of full square and your work you can do it:



        $a = prod_{p in mathbb{P}} p^{alpha_p} $ and
        $b = prod_{q in mathbb{P}} q^{alpha_q} $



        we have also $ab = prod_{n in mathbb{P}} q^{2*alpha_n} $



        using your hint, prove that every $alpha_p$ and $alpha_q$ is even






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          hint:



          every number can be written as a product of prime number to a certain power.



          $n = prod_{p in mathbb{P}} p^{alpha_p} $



          using this plus the definition of full square and your work you can do it:



          $a = prod_{p in mathbb{P}} p^{alpha_p} $ and
          $b = prod_{q in mathbb{P}} q^{alpha_q} $



          we have also $ab = prod_{n in mathbb{P}} q^{2*alpha_n} $



          using your hint, prove that every $alpha_p$ and $alpha_q$ is even






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          hint:



          every number can be written as a product of prime number to a certain power.



          $n = prod_{p in mathbb{P}} p^{alpha_p} $



          using this plus the definition of full square and your work you can do it:



          $a = prod_{p in mathbb{P}} p^{alpha_p} $ and
          $b = prod_{q in mathbb{P}} q^{alpha_q} $



          we have also $ab = prod_{n in mathbb{P}} q^{2*alpha_n} $



          using your hint, prove that every $alpha_p$ and $alpha_q$ is even







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 4 '18 at 10:26









          AlexisAlexis

          2199




          2199























              1












              $begingroup$

              Hint:



              Use the fundamental theorem of arithmetic.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                Hint:



                Use the fundamental theorem of arithmetic.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  Hint:



                  Use the fundamental theorem of arithmetic.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Hint:



                  Use the fundamental theorem of arithmetic.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 4 '18 at 10:26









                  5xum5xum

                  90.2k393161




                  90.2k393161















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