Suppose $V, $and $W$ are both finite dimensional . Prove that there exits an injective linear map from $V$ to...












0












$begingroup$


Suppose $V$ and $W$ are both finite dimensional. Prove that there exits an injective linear map from $V$ to $W$ if and only if $dim V leq dim W$.



Proof: Suppose $V$ and $W$ are both finite dimensional. Then we have $dim V = dim(text{null} (T)) + dim (text{range} (T))$. Then we have $dim V= dim text{range} (T)leq dim W$.
So there exists an injective map, so that $dim V leq dim W$.



Conversely, suppose $dim Vleq dim W$. Then let $dim V = n, dim W = m$. Define a basis for $V$ by $v_1,ldots,v_n $ for $V$ and $w_1,ldots,w_m$ for $W$.
Can someone please help me? I dont really know how to show there is an injective linear map .










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You can just show that there exists one, for example the one which maps $v_i$ to $w_i$.
    $endgroup$
    – anderstood
    Sep 28 '16 at 21:47










  • $begingroup$
    Note: For "only if" you could show that the image of a basis of $V$ is linearly independent in $W$ using the injective property. (You haven't, incidentally, said what $T$ is).
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Bennet
    Sep 28 '16 at 21:52










  • $begingroup$
    $T$ can be defined as $T: V→W$
    $endgroup$
    – user5956
    Sep 28 '16 at 21:53
















0












$begingroup$


Suppose $V$ and $W$ are both finite dimensional. Prove that there exits an injective linear map from $V$ to $W$ if and only if $dim V leq dim W$.



Proof: Suppose $V$ and $W$ are both finite dimensional. Then we have $dim V = dim(text{null} (T)) + dim (text{range} (T))$. Then we have $dim V= dim text{range} (T)leq dim W$.
So there exists an injective map, so that $dim V leq dim W$.



Conversely, suppose $dim Vleq dim W$. Then let $dim V = n, dim W = m$. Define a basis for $V$ by $v_1,ldots,v_n $ for $V$ and $w_1,ldots,w_m$ for $W$.
Can someone please help me? I dont really know how to show there is an injective linear map .










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You can just show that there exists one, for example the one which maps $v_i$ to $w_i$.
    $endgroup$
    – anderstood
    Sep 28 '16 at 21:47










  • $begingroup$
    Note: For "only if" you could show that the image of a basis of $V$ is linearly independent in $W$ using the injective property. (You haven't, incidentally, said what $T$ is).
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Bennet
    Sep 28 '16 at 21:52










  • $begingroup$
    $T$ can be defined as $T: V→W$
    $endgroup$
    – user5956
    Sep 28 '16 at 21:53














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Suppose $V$ and $W$ are both finite dimensional. Prove that there exits an injective linear map from $V$ to $W$ if and only if $dim V leq dim W$.



Proof: Suppose $V$ and $W$ are both finite dimensional. Then we have $dim V = dim(text{null} (T)) + dim (text{range} (T))$. Then we have $dim V= dim text{range} (T)leq dim W$.
So there exists an injective map, so that $dim V leq dim W$.



Conversely, suppose $dim Vleq dim W$. Then let $dim V = n, dim W = m$. Define a basis for $V$ by $v_1,ldots,v_n $ for $V$ and $w_1,ldots,w_m$ for $W$.
Can someone please help me? I dont really know how to show there is an injective linear map .










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Suppose $V$ and $W$ are both finite dimensional. Prove that there exits an injective linear map from $V$ to $W$ if and only if $dim V leq dim W$.



Proof: Suppose $V$ and $W$ are both finite dimensional. Then we have $dim V = dim(text{null} (T)) + dim (text{range} (T))$. Then we have $dim V= dim text{range} (T)leq dim W$.
So there exists an injective map, so that $dim V leq dim W$.



Conversely, suppose $dim Vleq dim W$. Then let $dim V = n, dim W = m$. Define a basis for $V$ by $v_1,ldots,v_n $ for $V$ and $w_1,ldots,w_m$ for $W$.
Can someone please help me? I dont really know how to show there is an injective linear map .







linear-algebra






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Sep 28 '16 at 22:28









Lonidard

2,93311021




2,93311021










asked Sep 28 '16 at 21:44









user5956user5956

82




82








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You can just show that there exists one, for example the one which maps $v_i$ to $w_i$.
    $endgroup$
    – anderstood
    Sep 28 '16 at 21:47










  • $begingroup$
    Note: For "only if" you could show that the image of a basis of $V$ is linearly independent in $W$ using the injective property. (You haven't, incidentally, said what $T$ is).
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Bennet
    Sep 28 '16 at 21:52










  • $begingroup$
    $T$ can be defined as $T: V→W$
    $endgroup$
    – user5956
    Sep 28 '16 at 21:53














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You can just show that there exists one, for example the one which maps $v_i$ to $w_i$.
    $endgroup$
    – anderstood
    Sep 28 '16 at 21:47










  • $begingroup$
    Note: For "only if" you could show that the image of a basis of $V$ is linearly independent in $W$ using the injective property. (You haven't, incidentally, said what $T$ is).
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Bennet
    Sep 28 '16 at 21:52










  • $begingroup$
    $T$ can be defined as $T: V→W$
    $endgroup$
    – user5956
    Sep 28 '16 at 21:53








1




1




$begingroup$
You can just show that there exists one, for example the one which maps $v_i$ to $w_i$.
$endgroup$
– anderstood
Sep 28 '16 at 21:47




$begingroup$
You can just show that there exists one, for example the one which maps $v_i$ to $w_i$.
$endgroup$
– anderstood
Sep 28 '16 at 21:47












$begingroup$
Note: For "only if" you could show that the image of a basis of $V$ is linearly independent in $W$ using the injective property. (You haven't, incidentally, said what $T$ is).
$endgroup$
– Mark Bennet
Sep 28 '16 at 21:52




$begingroup$
Note: For "only if" you could show that the image of a basis of $V$ is linearly independent in $W$ using the injective property. (You haven't, incidentally, said what $T$ is).
$endgroup$
– Mark Bennet
Sep 28 '16 at 21:52












$begingroup$
$T$ can be defined as $T: V→W$
$endgroup$
– user5956
Sep 28 '16 at 21:53




$begingroup$
$T$ can be defined as $T: V→W$
$endgroup$
– user5956
Sep 28 '16 at 21:53










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

Hint: define $T$ by $v_ilongmapsto w_i$, $i=1,dots n$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    So if I define T as you say we have $T: V → W$ by $Tv_1 = w_1,...,Tv_n = w_n$. and $n leq m.$ So $T(v_1,...,v_n) = a_1v_1 + ....+ a_nv_n$ and each $a_1v_1 + ...+ a_nv_n = 0 $ if and only if $(v_1,...,v_n) = (0,....,0)$ since $(v_1,...,v_n)$ is linearly independent , we have $null T = {{0,...,0}}$ so $T $ is one to one. Can someone please verify this?
    $endgroup$
    – user5956
    Sep 28 '16 at 21:51












  • $begingroup$
    HI Martin , can you please give me some feedback? thanks
    $endgroup$
    – user5956
    Sep 28 '16 at 23:27










  • $begingroup$
    @user5956, right.
    $endgroup$
    – Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
    Sep 29 '16 at 7:40











Your Answer





StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
});
});
}, "mathjax-editing");

StackExchange.ready(function() {
var channelOptions = {
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
};
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
createEditor();
});
}
else {
createEditor();
}
});

function createEditor() {
StackExchange.prepareEditor({
heartbeatType: 'answer',
autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: true,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
imageUploader: {
brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
allowUrls: true
},
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
});


}
});














draft saved

draft discarded


















StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f1945646%2fsuppose-v-and-w-are-both-finite-dimensional-prove-that-there-exits-an-inj%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown

























1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

Hint: define $T$ by $v_ilongmapsto w_i$, $i=1,dots n$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    So if I define T as you say we have $T: V → W$ by $Tv_1 = w_1,...,Tv_n = w_n$. and $n leq m.$ So $T(v_1,...,v_n) = a_1v_1 + ....+ a_nv_n$ and each $a_1v_1 + ...+ a_nv_n = 0 $ if and only if $(v_1,...,v_n) = (0,....,0)$ since $(v_1,...,v_n)$ is linearly independent , we have $null T = {{0,...,0}}$ so $T $ is one to one. Can someone please verify this?
    $endgroup$
    – user5956
    Sep 28 '16 at 21:51












  • $begingroup$
    HI Martin , can you please give me some feedback? thanks
    $endgroup$
    – user5956
    Sep 28 '16 at 23:27










  • $begingroup$
    @user5956, right.
    $endgroup$
    – Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
    Sep 29 '16 at 7:40
















2












$begingroup$

Hint: define $T$ by $v_ilongmapsto w_i$, $i=1,dots n$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    So if I define T as you say we have $T: V → W$ by $Tv_1 = w_1,...,Tv_n = w_n$. and $n leq m.$ So $T(v_1,...,v_n) = a_1v_1 + ....+ a_nv_n$ and each $a_1v_1 + ...+ a_nv_n = 0 $ if and only if $(v_1,...,v_n) = (0,....,0)$ since $(v_1,...,v_n)$ is linearly independent , we have $null T = {{0,...,0}}$ so $T $ is one to one. Can someone please verify this?
    $endgroup$
    – user5956
    Sep 28 '16 at 21:51












  • $begingroup$
    HI Martin , can you please give me some feedback? thanks
    $endgroup$
    – user5956
    Sep 28 '16 at 23:27










  • $begingroup$
    @user5956, right.
    $endgroup$
    – Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
    Sep 29 '16 at 7:40














2












2








2





$begingroup$

Hint: define $T$ by $v_ilongmapsto w_i$, $i=1,dots n$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Hint: define $T$ by $v_ilongmapsto w_i$, $i=1,dots n$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Sep 28 '16 at 21:47









Martín-Blas Pérez PinillaMartín-Blas Pérez Pinilla

34.2k42871




34.2k42871












  • $begingroup$
    So if I define T as you say we have $T: V → W$ by $Tv_1 = w_1,...,Tv_n = w_n$. and $n leq m.$ So $T(v_1,...,v_n) = a_1v_1 + ....+ a_nv_n$ and each $a_1v_1 + ...+ a_nv_n = 0 $ if and only if $(v_1,...,v_n) = (0,....,0)$ since $(v_1,...,v_n)$ is linearly independent , we have $null T = {{0,...,0}}$ so $T $ is one to one. Can someone please verify this?
    $endgroup$
    – user5956
    Sep 28 '16 at 21:51












  • $begingroup$
    HI Martin , can you please give me some feedback? thanks
    $endgroup$
    – user5956
    Sep 28 '16 at 23:27










  • $begingroup$
    @user5956, right.
    $endgroup$
    – Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
    Sep 29 '16 at 7:40


















  • $begingroup$
    So if I define T as you say we have $T: V → W$ by $Tv_1 = w_1,...,Tv_n = w_n$. and $n leq m.$ So $T(v_1,...,v_n) = a_1v_1 + ....+ a_nv_n$ and each $a_1v_1 + ...+ a_nv_n = 0 $ if and only if $(v_1,...,v_n) = (0,....,0)$ since $(v_1,...,v_n)$ is linearly independent , we have $null T = {{0,...,0}}$ so $T $ is one to one. Can someone please verify this?
    $endgroup$
    – user5956
    Sep 28 '16 at 21:51












  • $begingroup$
    HI Martin , can you please give me some feedback? thanks
    $endgroup$
    – user5956
    Sep 28 '16 at 23:27










  • $begingroup$
    @user5956, right.
    $endgroup$
    – Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
    Sep 29 '16 at 7:40
















$begingroup$
So if I define T as you say we have $T: V → W$ by $Tv_1 = w_1,...,Tv_n = w_n$. and $n leq m.$ So $T(v_1,...,v_n) = a_1v_1 + ....+ a_nv_n$ and each $a_1v_1 + ...+ a_nv_n = 0 $ if and only if $(v_1,...,v_n) = (0,....,0)$ since $(v_1,...,v_n)$ is linearly independent , we have $null T = {{0,...,0}}$ so $T $ is one to one. Can someone please verify this?
$endgroup$
– user5956
Sep 28 '16 at 21:51






$begingroup$
So if I define T as you say we have $T: V → W$ by $Tv_1 = w_1,...,Tv_n = w_n$. and $n leq m.$ So $T(v_1,...,v_n) = a_1v_1 + ....+ a_nv_n$ and each $a_1v_1 + ...+ a_nv_n = 0 $ if and only if $(v_1,...,v_n) = (0,....,0)$ since $(v_1,...,v_n)$ is linearly independent , we have $null T = {{0,...,0}}$ so $T $ is one to one. Can someone please verify this?
$endgroup$
– user5956
Sep 28 '16 at 21:51














$begingroup$
HI Martin , can you please give me some feedback? thanks
$endgroup$
– user5956
Sep 28 '16 at 23:27




$begingroup$
HI Martin , can you please give me some feedback? thanks
$endgroup$
– user5956
Sep 28 '16 at 23:27












$begingroup$
@user5956, right.
$endgroup$
– Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
Sep 29 '16 at 7:40




$begingroup$
@user5956, right.
$endgroup$
– Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
Sep 29 '16 at 7:40


















draft saved

draft discarded




















































Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


  • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

But avoid



  • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

  • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




draft saved


draft discarded














StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f1945646%2fsuppose-v-and-w-are-both-finite-dimensional-prove-that-there-exits-an-inj%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown





















































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown

































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown







Popular posts from this blog

Quarter-circle Tiles

build a pushdown automaton that recognizes the reverse language of a given pushdown automaton?

Mont Emei