Mapping the cycle graph into the real line












1












$begingroup$


I am trying to work on the following exercise.




Suppose $f: (C_n, d_n) to (mathbf{R}, |cdot|)$ is a map of the cycle graph $C_n$ (with nodes labelled, $1, 2, dots, n$) with the shortest path metric $d_n$ into $mathbf{R}$ with the usual metric $|cdot|$. Show that if $f$ is non-expansive, which means $|f(i) - f(j)| leq d_n(i,j)$ for all $i,j in {1, dots, n}$, then there exist two nodes $i,j$ for which
$$frac{d_n(i, j)}{|f(i) - f(j)|} = Omega(n).$$




(By the way $f(n) = Omega(n)$ means that for all $n$ big enough, $f(n) geq Cn$, where $C > 0$ is a universal constant.)



I know if you look at an equilateral triangle on the graph, then you can show that the distances contract by at least a constant factor, but I don't know how to go from this to th result, or if this is even helpful.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    I am trying to work on the following exercise.




    Suppose $f: (C_n, d_n) to (mathbf{R}, |cdot|)$ is a map of the cycle graph $C_n$ (with nodes labelled, $1, 2, dots, n$) with the shortest path metric $d_n$ into $mathbf{R}$ with the usual metric $|cdot|$. Show that if $f$ is non-expansive, which means $|f(i) - f(j)| leq d_n(i,j)$ for all $i,j in {1, dots, n}$, then there exist two nodes $i,j$ for which
    $$frac{d_n(i, j)}{|f(i) - f(j)|} = Omega(n).$$




    (By the way $f(n) = Omega(n)$ means that for all $n$ big enough, $f(n) geq Cn$, where $C > 0$ is a universal constant.)



    I know if you look at an equilateral triangle on the graph, then you can show that the distances contract by at least a constant factor, but I don't know how to go from this to th result, or if this is even helpful.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      I am trying to work on the following exercise.




      Suppose $f: (C_n, d_n) to (mathbf{R}, |cdot|)$ is a map of the cycle graph $C_n$ (with nodes labelled, $1, 2, dots, n$) with the shortest path metric $d_n$ into $mathbf{R}$ with the usual metric $|cdot|$. Show that if $f$ is non-expansive, which means $|f(i) - f(j)| leq d_n(i,j)$ for all $i,j in {1, dots, n}$, then there exist two nodes $i,j$ for which
      $$frac{d_n(i, j)}{|f(i) - f(j)|} = Omega(n).$$




      (By the way $f(n) = Omega(n)$ means that for all $n$ big enough, $f(n) geq Cn$, where $C > 0$ is a universal constant.)



      I know if you look at an equilateral triangle on the graph, then you can show that the distances contract by at least a constant factor, but I don't know how to go from this to th result, or if this is even helpful.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I am trying to work on the following exercise.




      Suppose $f: (C_n, d_n) to (mathbf{R}, |cdot|)$ is a map of the cycle graph $C_n$ (with nodes labelled, $1, 2, dots, n$) with the shortest path metric $d_n$ into $mathbf{R}$ with the usual metric $|cdot|$. Show that if $f$ is non-expansive, which means $|f(i) - f(j)| leq d_n(i,j)$ for all $i,j in {1, dots, n}$, then there exist two nodes $i,j$ for which
      $$frac{d_n(i, j)}{|f(i) - f(j)|} = Omega(n).$$




      (By the way $f(n) = Omega(n)$ means that for all $n$ big enough, $f(n) geq Cn$, where $C > 0$ is a universal constant.)



      I know if you look at an equilateral triangle on the graph, then you can show that the distances contract by at least a constant factor, but I don't know how to go from this to th result, or if this is even helpful.







      geometry discrete-mathematics graph-theory metric-spaces






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Oct 19 '18 at 21:58









      Drew BradyDrew Brady

      682315




      682315






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          0












          $begingroup$

          Put $I={1,dots,n}$ and $n’in {1,dots,lfloor n/2rfloor}$. We prove a stronger claim: there exist $i,jin I$ such that $d_n(i,j)=n’$ and $|f(i)-f(j)|le 1$. For each $i,jin I$ let $i+’j$ equals $i+j$, if $i+jle n$, and equals $i+j-n$, otherwise. Remark that $d_n(i, i+’n’)=n’$ for each $i$. Put $I_1={iin I:f(i)le f(i+’n’)}$ and $I_2={iin I:f(i)ge f(i+n’)}$. Then $I_1cup I_2$ is a cover of $I$ by its two non-empty subsets. It is easy to see that there exists $iin I$ such that $iin I_1$ and $i+1in I_2$ or $iin I_2$ and $i+1in I_1$. Assume that $iin I_1$ and $i+1in I_2$. Then $f(i)le f(i+'n’)$ and $f(i+1)ge f(i+1+’n’)$. If $f(i)<f(i+'n’)-1$ and $f(i+1)>f(i+1+’n’)+1$ then $f(i+1+’n’)<f(i+1)-1le f(i)< f(i+'n’)-1$, a contradiction. The case $iin I_2$ and $i+1in I_1$ is considered similarly.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













            Your Answer





            StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
            return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
            StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
            StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
            });
            });
            }, "mathjax-editing");

            StackExchange.ready(function() {
            var channelOptions = {
            tags: "".split(" "),
            id: "69"
            };
            initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

            StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
            // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
            if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
            StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
            createEditor();
            });
            }
            else {
            createEditor();
            }
            });

            function createEditor() {
            StackExchange.prepareEditor({
            heartbeatType: 'answer',
            autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
            convertImagesToLinks: true,
            noModals: true,
            showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
            reputationToPostImages: 10,
            bindNavPrevention: true,
            postfix: "",
            imageUploader: {
            brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
            contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
            allowUrls: true
            },
            noCode: true, onDemand: true,
            discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
            ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
            });


            }
            });














            draft saved

            draft discarded


















            StackExchange.ready(
            function () {
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2962656%2fmapping-the-cycle-graph-into-the-real-line%23new-answer', 'question_page');
            }
            );

            Post as a guest















            Required, but never shown

























            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes








            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            0












            $begingroup$

            Put $I={1,dots,n}$ and $n’in {1,dots,lfloor n/2rfloor}$. We prove a stronger claim: there exist $i,jin I$ such that $d_n(i,j)=n’$ and $|f(i)-f(j)|le 1$. For each $i,jin I$ let $i+’j$ equals $i+j$, if $i+jle n$, and equals $i+j-n$, otherwise. Remark that $d_n(i, i+’n’)=n’$ for each $i$. Put $I_1={iin I:f(i)le f(i+’n’)}$ and $I_2={iin I:f(i)ge f(i+n’)}$. Then $I_1cup I_2$ is a cover of $I$ by its two non-empty subsets. It is easy to see that there exists $iin I$ such that $iin I_1$ and $i+1in I_2$ or $iin I_2$ and $i+1in I_1$. Assume that $iin I_1$ and $i+1in I_2$. Then $f(i)le f(i+'n’)$ and $f(i+1)ge f(i+1+’n’)$. If $f(i)<f(i+'n’)-1$ and $f(i+1)>f(i+1+’n’)+1$ then $f(i+1+’n’)<f(i+1)-1le f(i)< f(i+'n’)-1$, a contradiction. The case $iin I_2$ and $i+1in I_1$ is considered similarly.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              0












              $begingroup$

              Put $I={1,dots,n}$ and $n’in {1,dots,lfloor n/2rfloor}$. We prove a stronger claim: there exist $i,jin I$ such that $d_n(i,j)=n’$ and $|f(i)-f(j)|le 1$. For each $i,jin I$ let $i+’j$ equals $i+j$, if $i+jle n$, and equals $i+j-n$, otherwise. Remark that $d_n(i, i+’n’)=n’$ for each $i$. Put $I_1={iin I:f(i)le f(i+’n’)}$ and $I_2={iin I:f(i)ge f(i+n’)}$. Then $I_1cup I_2$ is a cover of $I$ by its two non-empty subsets. It is easy to see that there exists $iin I$ such that $iin I_1$ and $i+1in I_2$ or $iin I_2$ and $i+1in I_1$. Assume that $iin I_1$ and $i+1in I_2$. Then $f(i)le f(i+'n’)$ and $f(i+1)ge f(i+1+’n’)$. If $f(i)<f(i+'n’)-1$ and $f(i+1)>f(i+1+’n’)+1$ then $f(i+1+’n’)<f(i+1)-1le f(i)< f(i+'n’)-1$, a contradiction. The case $iin I_2$ and $i+1in I_1$ is considered similarly.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                Put $I={1,dots,n}$ and $n’in {1,dots,lfloor n/2rfloor}$. We prove a stronger claim: there exist $i,jin I$ such that $d_n(i,j)=n’$ and $|f(i)-f(j)|le 1$. For each $i,jin I$ let $i+’j$ equals $i+j$, if $i+jle n$, and equals $i+j-n$, otherwise. Remark that $d_n(i, i+’n’)=n’$ for each $i$. Put $I_1={iin I:f(i)le f(i+’n’)}$ and $I_2={iin I:f(i)ge f(i+n’)}$. Then $I_1cup I_2$ is a cover of $I$ by its two non-empty subsets. It is easy to see that there exists $iin I$ such that $iin I_1$ and $i+1in I_2$ or $iin I_2$ and $i+1in I_1$. Assume that $iin I_1$ and $i+1in I_2$. Then $f(i)le f(i+'n’)$ and $f(i+1)ge f(i+1+’n’)$. If $f(i)<f(i+'n’)-1$ and $f(i+1)>f(i+1+’n’)+1$ then $f(i+1+’n’)<f(i+1)-1le f(i)< f(i+'n’)-1$, a contradiction. The case $iin I_2$ and $i+1in I_1$ is considered similarly.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Put $I={1,dots,n}$ and $n’in {1,dots,lfloor n/2rfloor}$. We prove a stronger claim: there exist $i,jin I$ such that $d_n(i,j)=n’$ and $|f(i)-f(j)|le 1$. For each $i,jin I$ let $i+’j$ equals $i+j$, if $i+jle n$, and equals $i+j-n$, otherwise. Remark that $d_n(i, i+’n’)=n’$ for each $i$. Put $I_1={iin I:f(i)le f(i+’n’)}$ and $I_2={iin I:f(i)ge f(i+n’)}$. Then $I_1cup I_2$ is a cover of $I$ by its two non-empty subsets. It is easy to see that there exists $iin I$ such that $iin I_1$ and $i+1in I_2$ or $iin I_2$ and $i+1in I_1$. Assume that $iin I_1$ and $i+1in I_2$. Then $f(i)le f(i+'n’)$ and $f(i+1)ge f(i+1+’n’)$. If $f(i)<f(i+'n’)-1$ and $f(i+1)>f(i+1+’n’)+1$ then $f(i+1+’n’)<f(i+1)-1le f(i)< f(i+'n’)-1$, a contradiction. The case $iin I_2$ and $i+1in I_1$ is considered similarly.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 4 '18 at 8:37









                Alex RavskyAlex Ravsky

                39.9k32282




                39.9k32282






























                    draft saved

                    draft discarded




















































                    Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


                    • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                    But avoid



                    • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                    • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


                    Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


                    To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




                    draft saved


                    draft discarded














                    StackExchange.ready(
                    function () {
                    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2962656%2fmapping-the-cycle-graph-into-the-real-line%23new-answer', 'question_page');
                    }
                    );

                    Post as a guest















                    Required, but never shown





















































                    Required, but never shown














                    Required, but never shown












                    Required, but never shown







                    Required, but never shown

































                    Required, but never shown














                    Required, but never shown












                    Required, but never shown







                    Required, but never shown







                    Popular posts from this blog

                    Quarter-circle Tiles

                    build a pushdown automaton that recognizes the reverse language of a given pushdown automaton?

                    Mont Emei