Show that if $a$ has order $3bmod p$ then $a+1$ has order $6bmod p$.
$begingroup$
Show that if $a$ has order $3bmod p$ then $a+1$ has order $6bmod p$. I know I am supposed to use primitive roots but I think this is where I am getting caught up. The definition of primitive root is "if $a$ is a least residue and the order of $abmod p$ is $phi(m)$ then $a$ is a primitive root of $m$. But I really am not sure how to use this to my advantage in solving anything.
Thanks!
number-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Show that if $a$ has order $3bmod p$ then $a+1$ has order $6bmod p$. I know I am supposed to use primitive roots but I think this is where I am getting caught up. The definition of primitive root is "if $a$ is a least residue and the order of $abmod p$ is $phi(m)$ then $a$ is a primitive root of $m$. But I really am not sure how to use this to my advantage in solving anything.
Thanks!
number-theory
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
math.stackexchange.com/questions/332325/…
$endgroup$
– Zach Teitler
Dec 14 '18 at 20:29
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Show that if $a$ has order $3bmod p$ then $a+1$ has order $6bmod p$. I know I am supposed to use primitive roots but I think this is where I am getting caught up. The definition of primitive root is "if $a$ is a least residue and the order of $abmod p$ is $phi(m)$ then $a$ is a primitive root of $m$. But I really am not sure how to use this to my advantage in solving anything.
Thanks!
number-theory
$endgroup$
Show that if $a$ has order $3bmod p$ then $a+1$ has order $6bmod p$. I know I am supposed to use primitive roots but I think this is where I am getting caught up. The definition of primitive root is "if $a$ is a least residue and the order of $abmod p$ is $phi(m)$ then $a$ is a primitive root of $m$. But I really am not sure how to use this to my advantage in solving anything.
Thanks!
number-theory
number-theory
edited Aug 8 '13 at 19:05
MvG
31k450105
31k450105
asked Aug 8 '13 at 18:08
KathyKathy
1019
1019
$begingroup$
math.stackexchange.com/questions/332325/…
$endgroup$
– Zach Teitler
Dec 14 '18 at 20:29
add a comment |
$begingroup$
math.stackexchange.com/questions/332325/…
$endgroup$
– Zach Teitler
Dec 14 '18 at 20:29
$begingroup$
math.stackexchange.com/questions/332325/…
$endgroup$
– Zach Teitler
Dec 14 '18 at 20:29
$begingroup$
math.stackexchange.com/questions/332325/…
$endgroup$
– Zach Teitler
Dec 14 '18 at 20:29
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Note that if $a=1$, $a$ has order $1$. Thus, we can assume $ane1$. Furthermore, $pne2$ since no element mod $2$ has order $3$. Therefore, $-1ne1pmod{p}$.
$$
begin{align}
(a+1)^3
&=a^3+3a^2+3a+1\
&=1+3a^2+3a+1\
&=-1+3(1+a+a^2)\
&=-1+3frac{a^3-1}{a-1}\
&=-1
end{align}
$$
Therefore, $(a+1)^3=-1$ and $(a+1)^6=1$. (Shortened a la ccorn).
$$
begin{align}
(a+1)^2
&=a^2+2a+1\
&=a+(a^2+a+1)\
&=a+frac{a^3-1}{a-1}\
&=a\
&ne1
end{align}
$$
Therefore, $(a+1)^2ne1$.
Thus, $(a+1)$ has order $6$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
$(a+1)^6=1$ also follows easily from $(a+1)^3=-1$
$endgroup$
– ccorn
Aug 8 '13 at 18:25
1
$begingroup$
@ccorn: indeed it does, but I had already written the part for $(a+1)^6$. I guess I could shorten the answer. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Aug 8 '13 at 18:27
$begingroup$
With the edit made the (a+1)^{2} is not needed right? If it is I don't understand.
$endgroup$
– Kathy
Aug 8 '13 at 19:19
1
$begingroup$
@Kathy: we still have to show that $a+1$ doesn't have order $2$. We could argue that if $(a+1)^2=1$ and $(a+1)^3=-1$, then $a+1=-1$; that is, $a=-2$. Since $a^3=1$ we have that $-8equiv1pmod{p}$, which implies that $pmid9$, whence $p=3$. Since there are no elements of order $3$ mod $3$, we could stop. Personally, I think the argument in my answer is simpler.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Aug 8 '13 at 19:38
$begingroup$
Is there a problem with this answer? Just wondering if the downvote means something needs fixing.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jan 1 at 19:45
add a comment |
$begingroup$
ord_$pa=3iff p$ divides $(a^3-1)=(a-1)(a^2+a+1)$
But $pnotmid (a-1)$ as ord_$pa=3 $
$displaystyleimplies a^2+a+1equiv0pmod p$
$displaystyleiff a(a+1)equiv-1pmod p$
Method $1:$
$implies a^3(a+1)^3equiv-1pmod pimplies (a+1)^3equiv-1$ and $(a+1)^6equiv1$
$implies $ord_$p(a+1)mid 6$ but does not divide $3$
If ord_$p(a+1)mid 2, (a+1)^2equiv1pmod p$ and $a^2(a+1)^2equiv1pmod pimplies a^2equiv1$ which is impossible as ord$_pa=3$
$implies $ord$_p(a+1)=6$
Method $2:$
$displaystyle a(a+1)equiv-1pmod piff a+1equiv (-a)^{-1}pmod p$
Again as $a^3equiv1pmod p, (-a)^3=-a^3equiv-1pmod pimplies (-a)^6equiv1implies $ord$_p(-a)=6$
Using this, ord$_p{(-a)^{-1}})=$ord$_p(-a)=6$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
Your Answer
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
2
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votes
$begingroup$
Note that if $a=1$, $a$ has order $1$. Thus, we can assume $ane1$. Furthermore, $pne2$ since no element mod $2$ has order $3$. Therefore, $-1ne1pmod{p}$.
$$
begin{align}
(a+1)^3
&=a^3+3a^2+3a+1\
&=1+3a^2+3a+1\
&=-1+3(1+a+a^2)\
&=-1+3frac{a^3-1}{a-1}\
&=-1
end{align}
$$
Therefore, $(a+1)^3=-1$ and $(a+1)^6=1$. (Shortened a la ccorn).
$$
begin{align}
(a+1)^2
&=a^2+2a+1\
&=a+(a^2+a+1)\
&=a+frac{a^3-1}{a-1}\
&=a\
&ne1
end{align}
$$
Therefore, $(a+1)^2ne1$.
Thus, $(a+1)$ has order $6$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
$(a+1)^6=1$ also follows easily from $(a+1)^3=-1$
$endgroup$
– ccorn
Aug 8 '13 at 18:25
1
$begingroup$
@ccorn: indeed it does, but I had already written the part for $(a+1)^6$. I guess I could shorten the answer. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Aug 8 '13 at 18:27
$begingroup$
With the edit made the (a+1)^{2} is not needed right? If it is I don't understand.
$endgroup$
– Kathy
Aug 8 '13 at 19:19
1
$begingroup$
@Kathy: we still have to show that $a+1$ doesn't have order $2$. We could argue that if $(a+1)^2=1$ and $(a+1)^3=-1$, then $a+1=-1$; that is, $a=-2$. Since $a^3=1$ we have that $-8equiv1pmod{p}$, which implies that $pmid9$, whence $p=3$. Since there are no elements of order $3$ mod $3$, we could stop. Personally, I think the argument in my answer is simpler.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Aug 8 '13 at 19:38
$begingroup$
Is there a problem with this answer? Just wondering if the downvote means something needs fixing.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jan 1 at 19:45
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that if $a=1$, $a$ has order $1$. Thus, we can assume $ane1$. Furthermore, $pne2$ since no element mod $2$ has order $3$. Therefore, $-1ne1pmod{p}$.
$$
begin{align}
(a+1)^3
&=a^3+3a^2+3a+1\
&=1+3a^2+3a+1\
&=-1+3(1+a+a^2)\
&=-1+3frac{a^3-1}{a-1}\
&=-1
end{align}
$$
Therefore, $(a+1)^3=-1$ and $(a+1)^6=1$. (Shortened a la ccorn).
$$
begin{align}
(a+1)^2
&=a^2+2a+1\
&=a+(a^2+a+1)\
&=a+frac{a^3-1}{a-1}\
&=a\
&ne1
end{align}
$$
Therefore, $(a+1)^2ne1$.
Thus, $(a+1)$ has order $6$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
$(a+1)^6=1$ also follows easily from $(a+1)^3=-1$
$endgroup$
– ccorn
Aug 8 '13 at 18:25
1
$begingroup$
@ccorn: indeed it does, but I had already written the part for $(a+1)^6$. I guess I could shorten the answer. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Aug 8 '13 at 18:27
$begingroup$
With the edit made the (a+1)^{2} is not needed right? If it is I don't understand.
$endgroup$
– Kathy
Aug 8 '13 at 19:19
1
$begingroup$
@Kathy: we still have to show that $a+1$ doesn't have order $2$. We could argue that if $(a+1)^2=1$ and $(a+1)^3=-1$, then $a+1=-1$; that is, $a=-2$. Since $a^3=1$ we have that $-8equiv1pmod{p}$, which implies that $pmid9$, whence $p=3$. Since there are no elements of order $3$ mod $3$, we could stop. Personally, I think the argument in my answer is simpler.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Aug 8 '13 at 19:38
$begingroup$
Is there a problem with this answer? Just wondering if the downvote means something needs fixing.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jan 1 at 19:45
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that if $a=1$, $a$ has order $1$. Thus, we can assume $ane1$. Furthermore, $pne2$ since no element mod $2$ has order $3$. Therefore, $-1ne1pmod{p}$.
$$
begin{align}
(a+1)^3
&=a^3+3a^2+3a+1\
&=1+3a^2+3a+1\
&=-1+3(1+a+a^2)\
&=-1+3frac{a^3-1}{a-1}\
&=-1
end{align}
$$
Therefore, $(a+1)^3=-1$ and $(a+1)^6=1$. (Shortened a la ccorn).
$$
begin{align}
(a+1)^2
&=a^2+2a+1\
&=a+(a^2+a+1)\
&=a+frac{a^3-1}{a-1}\
&=a\
&ne1
end{align}
$$
Therefore, $(a+1)^2ne1$.
Thus, $(a+1)$ has order $6$.
$endgroup$
Note that if $a=1$, $a$ has order $1$. Thus, we can assume $ane1$. Furthermore, $pne2$ since no element mod $2$ has order $3$. Therefore, $-1ne1pmod{p}$.
$$
begin{align}
(a+1)^3
&=a^3+3a^2+3a+1\
&=1+3a^2+3a+1\
&=-1+3(1+a+a^2)\
&=-1+3frac{a^3-1}{a-1}\
&=-1
end{align}
$$
Therefore, $(a+1)^3=-1$ and $(a+1)^6=1$. (Shortened a la ccorn).
$$
begin{align}
(a+1)^2
&=a^2+2a+1\
&=a+(a^2+a+1)\
&=a+frac{a^3-1}{a-1}\
&=a\
&ne1
end{align}
$$
Therefore, $(a+1)^2ne1$.
Thus, $(a+1)$ has order $6$.
edited Jan 1 at 20:27
answered Aug 8 '13 at 18:24
robjohn♦robjohn
268k27308634
268k27308634
1
$begingroup$
$(a+1)^6=1$ also follows easily from $(a+1)^3=-1$
$endgroup$
– ccorn
Aug 8 '13 at 18:25
1
$begingroup$
@ccorn: indeed it does, but I had already written the part for $(a+1)^6$. I guess I could shorten the answer. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Aug 8 '13 at 18:27
$begingroup$
With the edit made the (a+1)^{2} is not needed right? If it is I don't understand.
$endgroup$
– Kathy
Aug 8 '13 at 19:19
1
$begingroup$
@Kathy: we still have to show that $a+1$ doesn't have order $2$. We could argue that if $(a+1)^2=1$ and $(a+1)^3=-1$, then $a+1=-1$; that is, $a=-2$. Since $a^3=1$ we have that $-8equiv1pmod{p}$, which implies that $pmid9$, whence $p=3$. Since there are no elements of order $3$ mod $3$, we could stop. Personally, I think the argument in my answer is simpler.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Aug 8 '13 at 19:38
$begingroup$
Is there a problem with this answer? Just wondering if the downvote means something needs fixing.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jan 1 at 19:45
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
$(a+1)^6=1$ also follows easily from $(a+1)^3=-1$
$endgroup$
– ccorn
Aug 8 '13 at 18:25
1
$begingroup$
@ccorn: indeed it does, but I had already written the part for $(a+1)^6$. I guess I could shorten the answer. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Aug 8 '13 at 18:27
$begingroup$
With the edit made the (a+1)^{2} is not needed right? If it is I don't understand.
$endgroup$
– Kathy
Aug 8 '13 at 19:19
1
$begingroup$
@Kathy: we still have to show that $a+1$ doesn't have order $2$. We could argue that if $(a+1)^2=1$ and $(a+1)^3=-1$, then $a+1=-1$; that is, $a=-2$. Since $a^3=1$ we have that $-8equiv1pmod{p}$, which implies that $pmid9$, whence $p=3$. Since there are no elements of order $3$ mod $3$, we could stop. Personally, I think the argument in my answer is simpler.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Aug 8 '13 at 19:38
$begingroup$
Is there a problem with this answer? Just wondering if the downvote means something needs fixing.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jan 1 at 19:45
1
1
$begingroup$
$(a+1)^6=1$ also follows easily from $(a+1)^3=-1$
$endgroup$
– ccorn
Aug 8 '13 at 18:25
$begingroup$
$(a+1)^6=1$ also follows easily from $(a+1)^3=-1$
$endgroup$
– ccorn
Aug 8 '13 at 18:25
1
1
$begingroup$
@ccorn: indeed it does, but I had already written the part for $(a+1)^6$. I guess I could shorten the answer. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Aug 8 '13 at 18:27
$begingroup$
@ccorn: indeed it does, but I had already written the part for $(a+1)^6$. I guess I could shorten the answer. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Aug 8 '13 at 18:27
$begingroup$
With the edit made the (a+1)^{2} is not needed right? If it is I don't understand.
$endgroup$
– Kathy
Aug 8 '13 at 19:19
$begingroup$
With the edit made the (a+1)^{2} is not needed right? If it is I don't understand.
$endgroup$
– Kathy
Aug 8 '13 at 19:19
1
1
$begingroup$
@Kathy: we still have to show that $a+1$ doesn't have order $2$. We could argue that if $(a+1)^2=1$ and $(a+1)^3=-1$, then $a+1=-1$; that is, $a=-2$. Since $a^3=1$ we have that $-8equiv1pmod{p}$, which implies that $pmid9$, whence $p=3$. Since there are no elements of order $3$ mod $3$, we could stop. Personally, I think the argument in my answer is simpler.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Aug 8 '13 at 19:38
$begingroup$
@Kathy: we still have to show that $a+1$ doesn't have order $2$. We could argue that if $(a+1)^2=1$ and $(a+1)^3=-1$, then $a+1=-1$; that is, $a=-2$. Since $a^3=1$ we have that $-8equiv1pmod{p}$, which implies that $pmid9$, whence $p=3$. Since there are no elements of order $3$ mod $3$, we could stop. Personally, I think the argument in my answer is simpler.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Aug 8 '13 at 19:38
$begingroup$
Is there a problem with this answer? Just wondering if the downvote means something needs fixing.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jan 1 at 19:45
$begingroup$
Is there a problem with this answer? Just wondering if the downvote means something needs fixing.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jan 1 at 19:45
add a comment |
$begingroup$
ord_$pa=3iff p$ divides $(a^3-1)=(a-1)(a^2+a+1)$
But $pnotmid (a-1)$ as ord_$pa=3 $
$displaystyleimplies a^2+a+1equiv0pmod p$
$displaystyleiff a(a+1)equiv-1pmod p$
Method $1:$
$implies a^3(a+1)^3equiv-1pmod pimplies (a+1)^3equiv-1$ and $(a+1)^6equiv1$
$implies $ord_$p(a+1)mid 6$ but does not divide $3$
If ord_$p(a+1)mid 2, (a+1)^2equiv1pmod p$ and $a^2(a+1)^2equiv1pmod pimplies a^2equiv1$ which is impossible as ord$_pa=3$
$implies $ord$_p(a+1)=6$
Method $2:$
$displaystyle a(a+1)equiv-1pmod piff a+1equiv (-a)^{-1}pmod p$
Again as $a^3equiv1pmod p, (-a)^3=-a^3equiv-1pmod pimplies (-a)^6equiv1implies $ord$_p(-a)=6$
Using this, ord$_p{(-a)^{-1}})=$ord$_p(-a)=6$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
ord_$pa=3iff p$ divides $(a^3-1)=(a-1)(a^2+a+1)$
But $pnotmid (a-1)$ as ord_$pa=3 $
$displaystyleimplies a^2+a+1equiv0pmod p$
$displaystyleiff a(a+1)equiv-1pmod p$
Method $1:$
$implies a^3(a+1)^3equiv-1pmod pimplies (a+1)^3equiv-1$ and $(a+1)^6equiv1$
$implies $ord_$p(a+1)mid 6$ but does not divide $3$
If ord_$p(a+1)mid 2, (a+1)^2equiv1pmod p$ and $a^2(a+1)^2equiv1pmod pimplies a^2equiv1$ which is impossible as ord$_pa=3$
$implies $ord$_p(a+1)=6$
Method $2:$
$displaystyle a(a+1)equiv-1pmod piff a+1equiv (-a)^{-1}pmod p$
Again as $a^3equiv1pmod p, (-a)^3=-a^3equiv-1pmod pimplies (-a)^6equiv1implies $ord$_p(-a)=6$
Using this, ord$_p{(-a)^{-1}})=$ord$_p(-a)=6$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
ord_$pa=3iff p$ divides $(a^3-1)=(a-1)(a^2+a+1)$
But $pnotmid (a-1)$ as ord_$pa=3 $
$displaystyleimplies a^2+a+1equiv0pmod p$
$displaystyleiff a(a+1)equiv-1pmod p$
Method $1:$
$implies a^3(a+1)^3equiv-1pmod pimplies (a+1)^3equiv-1$ and $(a+1)^6equiv1$
$implies $ord_$p(a+1)mid 6$ but does not divide $3$
If ord_$p(a+1)mid 2, (a+1)^2equiv1pmod p$ and $a^2(a+1)^2equiv1pmod pimplies a^2equiv1$ which is impossible as ord$_pa=3$
$implies $ord$_p(a+1)=6$
Method $2:$
$displaystyle a(a+1)equiv-1pmod piff a+1equiv (-a)^{-1}pmod p$
Again as $a^3equiv1pmod p, (-a)^3=-a^3equiv-1pmod pimplies (-a)^6equiv1implies $ord$_p(-a)=6$
Using this, ord$_p{(-a)^{-1}})=$ord$_p(-a)=6$
$endgroup$
ord_$pa=3iff p$ divides $(a^3-1)=(a-1)(a^2+a+1)$
But $pnotmid (a-1)$ as ord_$pa=3 $
$displaystyleimplies a^2+a+1equiv0pmod p$
$displaystyleiff a(a+1)equiv-1pmod p$
Method $1:$
$implies a^3(a+1)^3equiv-1pmod pimplies (a+1)^3equiv-1$ and $(a+1)^6equiv1$
$implies $ord_$p(a+1)mid 6$ but does not divide $3$
If ord_$p(a+1)mid 2, (a+1)^2equiv1pmod p$ and $a^2(a+1)^2equiv1pmod pimplies a^2equiv1$ which is impossible as ord$_pa=3$
$implies $ord$_p(a+1)=6$
Method $2:$
$displaystyle a(a+1)equiv-1pmod piff a+1equiv (-a)^{-1}pmod p$
Again as $a^3equiv1pmod p, (-a)^3=-a^3equiv-1pmod pimplies (-a)^6equiv1implies $ord$_p(-a)=6$
Using this, ord$_p{(-a)^{-1}})=$ord$_p(-a)=6$
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:19
Community♦
1
1
answered Aug 8 '13 at 18:12
lab bhattacharjeelab bhattacharjee
226k15157275
226k15157275
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
math.stackexchange.com/questions/332325/…
$endgroup$
– Zach Teitler
Dec 14 '18 at 20:29