upper bound for integration of log of primes











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I want to give an upper bound for



$$int limits_{a}^{b} log{p_t} dt,$$



where $p_t$ is the $t$-th prime number, and one can generalize the idea of $p_t$ even for $t$ real numbers, simply by $p_t = p_{lfloor t rfloor}$ or any other approximation.



I think I have a good approximation, but I could not prove its an upper bound,



$$int limits_{a}^{b} ln{p_t} dt = F(b)-F(a),$$



where $F(x) = -x + x ln{(x ln {x} +2x ln ln x)}-li(x)$.



Could any one prove this is an upper bound, or give an upper bound with proof it's an upper bound.










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  • 1




    The integral expression is needlessly complicated. You are basically summing the log of successive primes. The prime number theorem (which is true) is equivalent to $sum_{p le x} log p sim x$ meaning the quotient of the LHS and the RHS tends to $1$ as $x to infty$.
    – mathworker21
    Dec 28 '17 at 6:07















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I want to give an upper bound for



$$int limits_{a}^{b} log{p_t} dt,$$



where $p_t$ is the $t$-th prime number, and one can generalize the idea of $p_t$ even for $t$ real numbers, simply by $p_t = p_{lfloor t rfloor}$ or any other approximation.



I think I have a good approximation, but I could not prove its an upper bound,



$$int limits_{a}^{b} ln{p_t} dt = F(b)-F(a),$$



where $F(x) = -x + x ln{(x ln {x} +2x ln ln x)}-li(x)$.



Could any one prove this is an upper bound, or give an upper bound with proof it's an upper bound.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    The integral expression is needlessly complicated. You are basically summing the log of successive primes. The prime number theorem (which is true) is equivalent to $sum_{p le x} log p sim x$ meaning the quotient of the LHS and the RHS tends to $1$ as $x to infty$.
    – mathworker21
    Dec 28 '17 at 6:07













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I want to give an upper bound for



$$int limits_{a}^{b} log{p_t} dt,$$



where $p_t$ is the $t$-th prime number, and one can generalize the idea of $p_t$ even for $t$ real numbers, simply by $p_t = p_{lfloor t rfloor}$ or any other approximation.



I think I have a good approximation, but I could not prove its an upper bound,



$$int limits_{a}^{b} ln{p_t} dt = F(b)-F(a),$$



where $F(x) = -x + x ln{(x ln {x} +2x ln ln x)}-li(x)$.



Could any one prove this is an upper bound, or give an upper bound with proof it's an upper bound.










share|cite|improve this question















I want to give an upper bound for



$$int limits_{a}^{b} log{p_t} dt,$$



where $p_t$ is the $t$-th prime number, and one can generalize the idea of $p_t$ even for $t$ real numbers, simply by $p_t = p_{lfloor t rfloor}$ or any other approximation.



I think I have a good approximation, but I could not prove its an upper bound,



$$int limits_{a}^{b} ln{p_t} dt = F(b)-F(a),$$



where $F(x) = -x + x ln{(x ln {x} +2x ln ln x)}-li(x)$.



Could any one prove this is an upper bound, or give an upper bound with proof it's an upper bound.







integration prime-numbers approximation upper-lower-bounds






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Nov 21 at 12:51









Glorfindel

3,38471730




3,38471730










asked Dec 28 '17 at 6:03









Ahmad

2,4921625




2,4921625








  • 1




    The integral expression is needlessly complicated. You are basically summing the log of successive primes. The prime number theorem (which is true) is equivalent to $sum_{p le x} log p sim x$ meaning the quotient of the LHS and the RHS tends to $1$ as $x to infty$.
    – mathworker21
    Dec 28 '17 at 6:07














  • 1




    The integral expression is needlessly complicated. You are basically summing the log of successive primes. The prime number theorem (which is true) is equivalent to $sum_{p le x} log p sim x$ meaning the quotient of the LHS and the RHS tends to $1$ as $x to infty$.
    – mathworker21
    Dec 28 '17 at 6:07








1




1




The integral expression is needlessly complicated. You are basically summing the log of successive primes. The prime number theorem (which is true) is equivalent to $sum_{p le x} log p sim x$ meaning the quotient of the LHS and the RHS tends to $1$ as $x to infty$.
– mathworker21
Dec 28 '17 at 6:07




The integral expression is needlessly complicated. You are basically summing the log of successive primes. The prime number theorem (which is true) is equivalent to $sum_{p le x} log p sim x$ meaning the quotient of the LHS and the RHS tends to $1$ as $x to infty$.
– mathworker21
Dec 28 '17 at 6:07















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