A sequence of rationals converging to an irrational point (proving that $mathbb Q$ is not locally compact)












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Here is my attempt to prove that $mathbb Q$ is not locally compact. (My questions are below the proof.)



Suppose $mathbb Q$ is locally compact. Then it is locally compact at every point. Let $xin mathbb Q$. By the local compactness at $x$, there is a compact subset $K$ of $mathbb Q$ and a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ in $mathbb Q$ such that $xin Usubseteq Ksubseteq Q$. (The neighborhood $U$ is of the form $(a,b)cap mathbb Q$ for some $a,binmathbb Q$; here $xin (a,b)subset mathbb R$.) Consider a sequence of points of $U$ in the topological space $K$ that converges to an irrational point. Then the irrational limit lies in $overline K$. But since $K$ is a compact subspace of the Hausdorff space $mathbb Q$, it is closed in $mathbb Q$, so $overline K=K$. So the irrational limit lies in $K$, which is a contradiction to the fact that $Ksubseteq Q$.



The only moment that I'm not sure about is the existence of the sequence. Is that part true at all? How to prove it? I do know that given an irrational number in $mathbb R$, one can take a sequence of shrinking neighborhoods of that irrational number, and that will give a sequence of rational points converging to that irrational number, but in our case the sequence consists of points of $K$, and $K$ is a subset of $mathbb Q$.



And otherwise does the proof look okay?










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    $begingroup$


    Here is my attempt to prove that $mathbb Q$ is not locally compact. (My questions are below the proof.)



    Suppose $mathbb Q$ is locally compact. Then it is locally compact at every point. Let $xin mathbb Q$. By the local compactness at $x$, there is a compact subset $K$ of $mathbb Q$ and a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ in $mathbb Q$ such that $xin Usubseteq Ksubseteq Q$. (The neighborhood $U$ is of the form $(a,b)cap mathbb Q$ for some $a,binmathbb Q$; here $xin (a,b)subset mathbb R$.) Consider a sequence of points of $U$ in the topological space $K$ that converges to an irrational point. Then the irrational limit lies in $overline K$. But since $K$ is a compact subspace of the Hausdorff space $mathbb Q$, it is closed in $mathbb Q$, so $overline K=K$. So the irrational limit lies in $K$, which is a contradiction to the fact that $Ksubseteq Q$.



    The only moment that I'm not sure about is the existence of the sequence. Is that part true at all? How to prove it? I do know that given an irrational number in $mathbb R$, one can take a sequence of shrinking neighborhoods of that irrational number, and that will give a sequence of rational points converging to that irrational number, but in our case the sequence consists of points of $K$, and $K$ is a subset of $mathbb Q$.



    And otherwise does the proof look okay?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Here is my attempt to prove that $mathbb Q$ is not locally compact. (My questions are below the proof.)



      Suppose $mathbb Q$ is locally compact. Then it is locally compact at every point. Let $xin mathbb Q$. By the local compactness at $x$, there is a compact subset $K$ of $mathbb Q$ and a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ in $mathbb Q$ such that $xin Usubseteq Ksubseteq Q$. (The neighborhood $U$ is of the form $(a,b)cap mathbb Q$ for some $a,binmathbb Q$; here $xin (a,b)subset mathbb R$.) Consider a sequence of points of $U$ in the topological space $K$ that converges to an irrational point. Then the irrational limit lies in $overline K$. But since $K$ is a compact subspace of the Hausdorff space $mathbb Q$, it is closed in $mathbb Q$, so $overline K=K$. So the irrational limit lies in $K$, which is a contradiction to the fact that $Ksubseteq Q$.



      The only moment that I'm not sure about is the existence of the sequence. Is that part true at all? How to prove it? I do know that given an irrational number in $mathbb R$, one can take a sequence of shrinking neighborhoods of that irrational number, and that will give a sequence of rational points converging to that irrational number, but in our case the sequence consists of points of $K$, and $K$ is a subset of $mathbb Q$.



      And otherwise does the proof look okay?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Here is my attempt to prove that $mathbb Q$ is not locally compact. (My questions are below the proof.)



      Suppose $mathbb Q$ is locally compact. Then it is locally compact at every point. Let $xin mathbb Q$. By the local compactness at $x$, there is a compact subset $K$ of $mathbb Q$ and a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ in $mathbb Q$ such that $xin Usubseteq Ksubseteq Q$. (The neighborhood $U$ is of the form $(a,b)cap mathbb Q$ for some $a,binmathbb Q$; here $xin (a,b)subset mathbb R$.) Consider a sequence of points of $U$ in the topological space $K$ that converges to an irrational point. Then the irrational limit lies in $overline K$. But since $K$ is a compact subspace of the Hausdorff space $mathbb Q$, it is closed in $mathbb Q$, so $overline K=K$. So the irrational limit lies in $K$, which is a contradiction to the fact that $Ksubseteq Q$.



      The only moment that I'm not sure about is the existence of the sequence. Is that part true at all? How to prove it? I do know that given an irrational number in $mathbb R$, one can take a sequence of shrinking neighborhoods of that irrational number, and that will give a sequence of rational points converging to that irrational number, but in our case the sequence consists of points of $K$, and $K$ is a subset of $mathbb Q$.



      And otherwise does the proof look okay?







      sequences-and-series general-topology compactness






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      asked Dec 9 '18 at 4:00









      user531587user531587

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          Yes, your proof is fine. I would just mention why you can suppose without loss of generality that $U$ is the intersection of an open interval $(a,b)$ and $mathbb{Q}$.



          As for the sequence, yes you may indeed find such a sequence. For this, pick any irrational number $rin (a,b)$. Then for any $nin mathbb{N}$, there exists a rational number $x_n$ such that
          $$
          r < x_n < r+frac{1}{n}.
          $$

          This gives you a sequence of rational numbers converging to $r$. Notice also that for all $n$ sufficiently large, $x_n in (a,b)$. Therefore, let $(y_n)$ be a subsequence of $(x_n)$ such that $y_nin (a,b)$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$. So we see that $(y_n)$ is in fact a sequence in $(a,b)capmathbb{Q} = U$ and therefore also in $K$ and $y_n$ converges to the irrational number $r$.






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            Yes, your proof is fine. I would just mention why you can suppose without loss of generality that $U$ is the intersection of an open interval $(a,b)$ and $mathbb{Q}$.



            As for the sequence, yes you may indeed find such a sequence. For this, pick any irrational number $rin (a,b)$. Then for any $nin mathbb{N}$, there exists a rational number $x_n$ such that
            $$
            r < x_n < r+frac{1}{n}.
            $$

            This gives you a sequence of rational numbers converging to $r$. Notice also that for all $n$ sufficiently large, $x_n in (a,b)$. Therefore, let $(y_n)$ be a subsequence of $(x_n)$ such that $y_nin (a,b)$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$. So we see that $(y_n)$ is in fact a sequence in $(a,b)capmathbb{Q} = U$ and therefore also in $K$ and $y_n$ converges to the irrational number $r$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









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              4












              $begingroup$

              Yes, your proof is fine. I would just mention why you can suppose without loss of generality that $U$ is the intersection of an open interval $(a,b)$ and $mathbb{Q}$.



              As for the sequence, yes you may indeed find such a sequence. For this, pick any irrational number $rin (a,b)$. Then for any $nin mathbb{N}$, there exists a rational number $x_n$ such that
              $$
              r < x_n < r+frac{1}{n}.
              $$

              This gives you a sequence of rational numbers converging to $r$. Notice also that for all $n$ sufficiently large, $x_n in (a,b)$. Therefore, let $(y_n)$ be a subsequence of $(x_n)$ such that $y_nin (a,b)$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$. So we see that $(y_n)$ is in fact a sequence in $(a,b)capmathbb{Q} = U$ and therefore also in $K$ and $y_n$ converges to the irrational number $r$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                4












                4








                4





                $begingroup$

                Yes, your proof is fine. I would just mention why you can suppose without loss of generality that $U$ is the intersection of an open interval $(a,b)$ and $mathbb{Q}$.



                As for the sequence, yes you may indeed find such a sequence. For this, pick any irrational number $rin (a,b)$. Then for any $nin mathbb{N}$, there exists a rational number $x_n$ such that
                $$
                r < x_n < r+frac{1}{n}.
                $$

                This gives you a sequence of rational numbers converging to $r$. Notice also that for all $n$ sufficiently large, $x_n in (a,b)$. Therefore, let $(y_n)$ be a subsequence of $(x_n)$ such that $y_nin (a,b)$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$. So we see that $(y_n)$ is in fact a sequence in $(a,b)capmathbb{Q} = U$ and therefore also in $K$ and $y_n$ converges to the irrational number $r$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Yes, your proof is fine. I would just mention why you can suppose without loss of generality that $U$ is the intersection of an open interval $(a,b)$ and $mathbb{Q}$.



                As for the sequence, yes you may indeed find such a sequence. For this, pick any irrational number $rin (a,b)$. Then for any $nin mathbb{N}$, there exists a rational number $x_n$ such that
                $$
                r < x_n < r+frac{1}{n}.
                $$

                This gives you a sequence of rational numbers converging to $r$. Notice also that for all $n$ sufficiently large, $x_n in (a,b)$. Therefore, let $(y_n)$ be a subsequence of $(x_n)$ such that $y_nin (a,b)$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$. So we see that $(y_n)$ is in fact a sequence in $(a,b)capmathbb{Q} = U$ and therefore also in $K$ and $y_n$ converges to the irrational number $r$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 9 '18 at 4:28









                QuokaQuoka

                1,247312




                1,247312






























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