How do you prove Let φ : R → S be a EPIMORPHISM of rings. Then the image of φ is isomorphic to the factor...












1












$begingroup$


Below I have proved this question for a ring homomorphism.



MY QUESTION: How do you prove Let φ : R → S be a EPIMORPHISM of rings. Then the image of φ is isomorphic to the factor ring R/ ker φ



Let φ : R → S be a homomorphism of rings. Then the image of φ is isomorphic to the factor ring R/ ker φ



Proof:



Let I denote the kernel of φ, so I is a two-sided ideal of R. Define a function



φ ̄ : R/I → Imφ by:



φ ̄ (a + I) = φ(a) for a ∈ R.




  1. φ ̄ is well-defined (i.e. the image of a + I does not depend on a choice of coset representative). Suppose that a + I = a1 + I for some a, a1 ∈ R. Then a−a1 ∈IbyLemma3.3.2. Henceφ(a−a1)=0S =φ(a)−φ(a1). Thus φ(a) = φ(a1 ) as required.



  2. φ ̄ is a ring homomorphism.
    Suppose a + I, b + I are elements of R/I. Then



    ̄ φ((a +I) +(b +I)) = φ ̄ ((a +b) +I)




= φ(a+b)



= φ(a) + φ(b)



= φ ̄(a+I)+φ ̄(b+I).



So φ is additive. Also



̄ φ((a+I)(b+I)) = φ ̄(ab+I) = φ(ab)



= φ(a)φ(b)



= φ ̄(a+I)φ ̄(b+I)




  1. φ ̄ is injective.
    Suppose a+I ∈ kerφ. Thenφ(a+I) = 0S soφ(a) = 0S. This means a ∈ ker φ, so a ∈ I. Then a + I = I = 0R + I, a + I is the zero element of R/I. Thus ker φ ̄ contains only the zero element of R/I


  2. φ ̄ is surjective.
    Let s∈Imφ. Thens=φ(r)for some r∈R. Thus s=φ(r+I)and every element of Imφ is the image under φ ̄ of some coset of I in R.



Thus φ ̄ : R/ ker φ −→ Imφ is a ring isomorphism, and Imφ is isomorphic to the factor ring R/ ker φ.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    An epimorphism of rings is just a surjective homomorphism of rings, so you've already proven it. Note that in this case $operatorname{Im} varphi = S$.
    $endgroup$
    – ÍgjøgnumMeg
    Dec 2 '18 at 16:45












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you I was just checking that I wasn't assuming that incorrectly @ÍgjøgnumMeg
    $endgroup$
    – JacobKnight
    Dec 4 '18 at 15:22
















1












$begingroup$


Below I have proved this question for a ring homomorphism.



MY QUESTION: How do you prove Let φ : R → S be a EPIMORPHISM of rings. Then the image of φ is isomorphic to the factor ring R/ ker φ



Let φ : R → S be a homomorphism of rings. Then the image of φ is isomorphic to the factor ring R/ ker φ



Proof:



Let I denote the kernel of φ, so I is a two-sided ideal of R. Define a function



φ ̄ : R/I → Imφ by:



φ ̄ (a + I) = φ(a) for a ∈ R.




  1. φ ̄ is well-defined (i.e. the image of a + I does not depend on a choice of coset representative). Suppose that a + I = a1 + I for some a, a1 ∈ R. Then a−a1 ∈IbyLemma3.3.2. Henceφ(a−a1)=0S =φ(a)−φ(a1). Thus φ(a) = φ(a1 ) as required.



  2. φ ̄ is a ring homomorphism.
    Suppose a + I, b + I are elements of R/I. Then



    ̄ φ((a +I) +(b +I)) = φ ̄ ((a +b) +I)




= φ(a+b)



= φ(a) + φ(b)



= φ ̄(a+I)+φ ̄(b+I).



So φ is additive. Also



̄ φ((a+I)(b+I)) = φ ̄(ab+I) = φ(ab)



= φ(a)φ(b)



= φ ̄(a+I)φ ̄(b+I)




  1. φ ̄ is injective.
    Suppose a+I ∈ kerφ. Thenφ(a+I) = 0S soφ(a) = 0S. This means a ∈ ker φ, so a ∈ I. Then a + I = I = 0R + I, a + I is the zero element of R/I. Thus ker φ ̄ contains only the zero element of R/I


  2. φ ̄ is surjective.
    Let s∈Imφ. Thens=φ(r)for some r∈R. Thus s=φ(r+I)and every element of Imφ is the image under φ ̄ of some coset of I in R.



Thus φ ̄ : R/ ker φ −→ Imφ is a ring isomorphism, and Imφ is isomorphic to the factor ring R/ ker φ.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    An epimorphism of rings is just a surjective homomorphism of rings, so you've already proven it. Note that in this case $operatorname{Im} varphi = S$.
    $endgroup$
    – ÍgjøgnumMeg
    Dec 2 '18 at 16:45












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you I was just checking that I wasn't assuming that incorrectly @ÍgjøgnumMeg
    $endgroup$
    – JacobKnight
    Dec 4 '18 at 15:22














1












1








1





$begingroup$


Below I have proved this question for a ring homomorphism.



MY QUESTION: How do you prove Let φ : R → S be a EPIMORPHISM of rings. Then the image of φ is isomorphic to the factor ring R/ ker φ



Let φ : R → S be a homomorphism of rings. Then the image of φ is isomorphic to the factor ring R/ ker φ



Proof:



Let I denote the kernel of φ, so I is a two-sided ideal of R. Define a function



φ ̄ : R/I → Imφ by:



φ ̄ (a + I) = φ(a) for a ∈ R.




  1. φ ̄ is well-defined (i.e. the image of a + I does not depend on a choice of coset representative). Suppose that a + I = a1 + I for some a, a1 ∈ R. Then a−a1 ∈IbyLemma3.3.2. Henceφ(a−a1)=0S =φ(a)−φ(a1). Thus φ(a) = φ(a1 ) as required.



  2. φ ̄ is a ring homomorphism.
    Suppose a + I, b + I are elements of R/I. Then



    ̄ φ((a +I) +(b +I)) = φ ̄ ((a +b) +I)




= φ(a+b)



= φ(a) + φ(b)



= φ ̄(a+I)+φ ̄(b+I).



So φ is additive. Also



̄ φ((a+I)(b+I)) = φ ̄(ab+I) = φ(ab)



= φ(a)φ(b)



= φ ̄(a+I)φ ̄(b+I)




  1. φ ̄ is injective.
    Suppose a+I ∈ kerφ. Thenφ(a+I) = 0S soφ(a) = 0S. This means a ∈ ker φ, so a ∈ I. Then a + I = I = 0R + I, a + I is the zero element of R/I. Thus ker φ ̄ contains only the zero element of R/I


  2. φ ̄ is surjective.
    Let s∈Imφ. Thens=φ(r)for some r∈R. Thus s=φ(r+I)and every element of Imφ is the image under φ ̄ of some coset of I in R.



Thus φ ̄ : R/ ker φ −→ Imφ is a ring isomorphism, and Imφ is isomorphic to the factor ring R/ ker φ.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Below I have proved this question for a ring homomorphism.



MY QUESTION: How do you prove Let φ : R → S be a EPIMORPHISM of rings. Then the image of φ is isomorphic to the factor ring R/ ker φ



Let φ : R → S be a homomorphism of rings. Then the image of φ is isomorphic to the factor ring R/ ker φ



Proof:



Let I denote the kernel of φ, so I is a two-sided ideal of R. Define a function



φ ̄ : R/I → Imφ by:



φ ̄ (a + I) = φ(a) for a ∈ R.




  1. φ ̄ is well-defined (i.e. the image of a + I does not depend on a choice of coset representative). Suppose that a + I = a1 + I for some a, a1 ∈ R. Then a−a1 ∈IbyLemma3.3.2. Henceφ(a−a1)=0S =φ(a)−φ(a1). Thus φ(a) = φ(a1 ) as required.



  2. φ ̄ is a ring homomorphism.
    Suppose a + I, b + I are elements of R/I. Then



    ̄ φ((a +I) +(b +I)) = φ ̄ ((a +b) +I)




= φ(a+b)



= φ(a) + φ(b)



= φ ̄(a+I)+φ ̄(b+I).



So φ is additive. Also



̄ φ((a+I)(b+I)) = φ ̄(ab+I) = φ(ab)



= φ(a)φ(b)



= φ ̄(a+I)φ ̄(b+I)




  1. φ ̄ is injective.
    Suppose a+I ∈ kerφ. Thenφ(a+I) = 0S soφ(a) = 0S. This means a ∈ ker φ, so a ∈ I. Then a + I = I = 0R + I, a + I is the zero element of R/I. Thus ker φ ̄ contains only the zero element of R/I


  2. φ ̄ is surjective.
    Let s∈Imφ. Thens=φ(r)for some r∈R. Thus s=φ(r+I)and every element of Imφ is the image under φ ̄ of some coset of I in R.



Thus φ ̄ : R/ ker φ −→ Imφ is a ring isomorphism, and Imφ is isomorphic to the factor ring R/ ker φ.







ring-theory






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asked Dec 2 '18 at 16:02









JacobKnightJacobKnight

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  • $begingroup$
    An epimorphism of rings is just a surjective homomorphism of rings, so you've already proven it. Note that in this case $operatorname{Im} varphi = S$.
    $endgroup$
    – ÍgjøgnumMeg
    Dec 2 '18 at 16:45












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you I was just checking that I wasn't assuming that incorrectly @ÍgjøgnumMeg
    $endgroup$
    – JacobKnight
    Dec 4 '18 at 15:22


















  • $begingroup$
    An epimorphism of rings is just a surjective homomorphism of rings, so you've already proven it. Note that in this case $operatorname{Im} varphi = S$.
    $endgroup$
    – ÍgjøgnumMeg
    Dec 2 '18 at 16:45












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you I was just checking that I wasn't assuming that incorrectly @ÍgjøgnumMeg
    $endgroup$
    – JacobKnight
    Dec 4 '18 at 15:22
















$begingroup$
An epimorphism of rings is just a surjective homomorphism of rings, so you've already proven it. Note that in this case $operatorname{Im} varphi = S$.
$endgroup$
– ÍgjøgnumMeg
Dec 2 '18 at 16:45






$begingroup$
An epimorphism of rings is just a surjective homomorphism of rings, so you've already proven it. Note that in this case $operatorname{Im} varphi = S$.
$endgroup$
– ÍgjøgnumMeg
Dec 2 '18 at 16:45














$begingroup$
Thank you I was just checking that I wasn't assuming that incorrectly @ÍgjøgnumMeg
$endgroup$
– JacobKnight
Dec 4 '18 at 15:22




$begingroup$
Thank you I was just checking that I wasn't assuming that incorrectly @ÍgjøgnumMeg
$endgroup$
– JacobKnight
Dec 4 '18 at 15:22










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