For $n,k in {mathbb{Z}}^{+}$ (excluding $n=1$), does $frac{(n+k)!}{n!}$ ever equal $n!$
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While investigating an integer sequence, I came across the following two OEIS entries:
A094331: Least k such that n! < (n+1)(n+2)(n+3)...(n+k).
A075357: a(n) = smallest k such that (n+1)(n+2)...(n+k) is just >= n!.
The generating rule for both of these sequences is basically identical, except A094331 uses $lt$ and A075357 uses $le$. This made me curious whether both sequences are actually identical (and I'm not the first; David Wasserman commented the same thing when he was adding more terms to A075357.) For the purposes of the OEIS, the sequences are technically different, because A094331(1) = 1 and A075357(1) = 0 (i.e. for $n=1$ and $k=0$, $frac{(n+k)!}{n!} = n!$.)
In approaching this problem, I first tried computational brute forcing. For values of $n$ from 2 to 1000000, $n ne k$. However, this approach is obviously limited. Since my ability in number theory is very weak, I was wondering if anyone with a greater knowledge of number theory may be able provide a definitive answer to this question.
number-theory oeis
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up vote
2
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favorite
While investigating an integer sequence, I came across the following two OEIS entries:
A094331: Least k such that n! < (n+1)(n+2)(n+3)...(n+k).
A075357: a(n) = smallest k such that (n+1)(n+2)...(n+k) is just >= n!.
The generating rule for both of these sequences is basically identical, except A094331 uses $lt$ and A075357 uses $le$. This made me curious whether both sequences are actually identical (and I'm not the first; David Wasserman commented the same thing when he was adding more terms to A075357.) For the purposes of the OEIS, the sequences are technically different, because A094331(1) = 1 and A075357(1) = 0 (i.e. for $n=1$ and $k=0$, $frac{(n+k)!}{n!} = n!$.)
In approaching this problem, I first tried computational brute forcing. For values of $n$ from 2 to 1000000, $n ne k$. However, this approach is obviously limited. Since my ability in number theory is very weak, I was wondering if anyone with a greater knowledge of number theory may be able provide a definitive answer to this question.
number-theory oeis
i'm confused. For $jne m$ then $frac {(n+j)!}{n!} ne frac {(n+m)!}{n1}$ so obviously that can't be true for all $k$ and furthermore $frac {(n+k)!}{n!} = n!implies (n+k)! = (n!)^2$ which can't ever be true for $n+k> 1$ as $m!$ is never a perfect square.
– fleablood
Nov 22 at 1:52
You mean $k = 0$ in your example, right?
– anomaly
Nov 22 at 1:53
Did you mean to ask does $frac{(n+k)!}{n!} = n!$ EVER true. As it stands it seems as though you are asking is it always true which of course it isn't.
– fleablood
Nov 22 at 2:03
@anomaly Yes, I've made an edit.
– Graham
Nov 22 at 3:11
@fleablood I've also made an edit regarding your comment.
– Graham
Nov 22 at 3:16
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
While investigating an integer sequence, I came across the following two OEIS entries:
A094331: Least k such that n! < (n+1)(n+2)(n+3)...(n+k).
A075357: a(n) = smallest k such that (n+1)(n+2)...(n+k) is just >= n!.
The generating rule for both of these sequences is basically identical, except A094331 uses $lt$ and A075357 uses $le$. This made me curious whether both sequences are actually identical (and I'm not the first; David Wasserman commented the same thing when he was adding more terms to A075357.) For the purposes of the OEIS, the sequences are technically different, because A094331(1) = 1 and A075357(1) = 0 (i.e. for $n=1$ and $k=0$, $frac{(n+k)!}{n!} = n!$.)
In approaching this problem, I first tried computational brute forcing. For values of $n$ from 2 to 1000000, $n ne k$. However, this approach is obviously limited. Since my ability in number theory is very weak, I was wondering if anyone with a greater knowledge of number theory may be able provide a definitive answer to this question.
number-theory oeis
While investigating an integer sequence, I came across the following two OEIS entries:
A094331: Least k such that n! < (n+1)(n+2)(n+3)...(n+k).
A075357: a(n) = smallest k such that (n+1)(n+2)...(n+k) is just >= n!.
The generating rule for both of these sequences is basically identical, except A094331 uses $lt$ and A075357 uses $le$. This made me curious whether both sequences are actually identical (and I'm not the first; David Wasserman commented the same thing when he was adding more terms to A075357.) For the purposes of the OEIS, the sequences are technically different, because A094331(1) = 1 and A075357(1) = 0 (i.e. for $n=1$ and $k=0$, $frac{(n+k)!}{n!} = n!$.)
In approaching this problem, I first tried computational brute forcing. For values of $n$ from 2 to 1000000, $n ne k$. However, this approach is obviously limited. Since my ability in number theory is very weak, I was wondering if anyone with a greater knowledge of number theory may be able provide a definitive answer to this question.
number-theory oeis
number-theory oeis
edited Nov 22 at 3:11
asked Nov 22 at 1:25
Graham
1157
1157
i'm confused. For $jne m$ then $frac {(n+j)!}{n!} ne frac {(n+m)!}{n1}$ so obviously that can't be true for all $k$ and furthermore $frac {(n+k)!}{n!} = n!implies (n+k)! = (n!)^2$ which can't ever be true for $n+k> 1$ as $m!$ is never a perfect square.
– fleablood
Nov 22 at 1:52
You mean $k = 0$ in your example, right?
– anomaly
Nov 22 at 1:53
Did you mean to ask does $frac{(n+k)!}{n!} = n!$ EVER true. As it stands it seems as though you are asking is it always true which of course it isn't.
– fleablood
Nov 22 at 2:03
@anomaly Yes, I've made an edit.
– Graham
Nov 22 at 3:11
@fleablood I've also made an edit regarding your comment.
– Graham
Nov 22 at 3:16
add a comment |
i'm confused. For $jne m$ then $frac {(n+j)!}{n!} ne frac {(n+m)!}{n1}$ so obviously that can't be true for all $k$ and furthermore $frac {(n+k)!}{n!} = n!implies (n+k)! = (n!)^2$ which can't ever be true for $n+k> 1$ as $m!$ is never a perfect square.
– fleablood
Nov 22 at 1:52
You mean $k = 0$ in your example, right?
– anomaly
Nov 22 at 1:53
Did you mean to ask does $frac{(n+k)!}{n!} = n!$ EVER true. As it stands it seems as though you are asking is it always true which of course it isn't.
– fleablood
Nov 22 at 2:03
@anomaly Yes, I've made an edit.
– Graham
Nov 22 at 3:11
@fleablood I've also made an edit regarding your comment.
– Graham
Nov 22 at 3:16
i'm confused. For $jne m$ then $frac {(n+j)!}{n!} ne frac {(n+m)!}{n1}$ so obviously that can't be true for all $k$ and furthermore $frac {(n+k)!}{n!} = n!implies (n+k)! = (n!)^2$ which can't ever be true for $n+k> 1$ as $m!$ is never a perfect square.
– fleablood
Nov 22 at 1:52
i'm confused. For $jne m$ then $frac {(n+j)!}{n!} ne frac {(n+m)!}{n1}$ so obviously that can't be true for all $k$ and furthermore $frac {(n+k)!}{n!} = n!implies (n+k)! = (n!)^2$ which can't ever be true for $n+k> 1$ as $m!$ is never a perfect square.
– fleablood
Nov 22 at 1:52
You mean $k = 0$ in your example, right?
– anomaly
Nov 22 at 1:53
You mean $k = 0$ in your example, right?
– anomaly
Nov 22 at 1:53
Did you mean to ask does $frac{(n+k)!}{n!} = n!$ EVER true. As it stands it seems as though you are asking is it always true which of course it isn't.
– fleablood
Nov 22 at 2:03
Did you mean to ask does $frac{(n+k)!}{n!} = n!$ EVER true. As it stands it seems as though you are asking is it always true which of course it isn't.
– fleablood
Nov 22 at 2:03
@anomaly Yes, I've made an edit.
– Graham
Nov 22 at 3:11
@anomaly Yes, I've made an edit.
– Graham
Nov 22 at 3:11
@fleablood I've also made an edit regarding your comment.
– Graham
Nov 22 at 3:16
@fleablood I've also made an edit regarding your comment.
– Graham
Nov 22 at 3:16
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
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up vote
5
down vote
accepted
By a theorem of Chebyshev, there exists for any integer $n > 1$ a prime $p$ with $n < p < 2n$. Hence $(2n)!$ and $(2n+1)$! are not perfect squares, since they're divisible by $p$ but not $p^2$. It follows that $(n+k)!/n! not = n!$ for any integers $n, k > 0$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
With the exception of $N=1$, $N!$ is never a square. This is because, by Bertrand's Postulate, there is always a prime between $N$ and $lfloor N/2rfloor$ (to be precise, a prime $p$ satisfying $lfloor N/2rfloorlt ple N$), and such a prime can only divide $N!$ once. So if we take $N=n+k$ with positive integers $n$ and $k$, we have $Ngt1$ and so $N!=(n+k)!$ is not a square. In particular, it cannot be the case that $(n+k)!=(n!)^2$. Thus it is never the case that $(n+k)!/n!=n!$.
It might be of interest to see if there is a proof that $N!$ is never the square of a factorial that doesn't rely on Bertrand's Postulate.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
The only cases where those two sequences would differ would be when $n! = frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ or $(n+k)! = (n!)^2$ and that is the only time you can have $n! le frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ and $n! < frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ not both be true or not both be false.
anomaly's answer explains why that can never for $n > 1$.
I just want to add that if $n = 1$ then this is $(k+1)! = 1$ which is true only if $k =0$.
Hence the sequences do differ at $n=1$. The first term of A075357 is $0$ while the term of A094331 is $1$. Otherwise the sequences are identical. But they do differ and $n=1$
So for A075357 you want the least $k$ so that $1! < frac {(1+k)!}{1!}$ and that is $1! = frac {1!}{1!}$ and $1! < frac {2!}{1!}$ and that is when $1+ k = 2$ or $k =1$. But of A094331 you want the least $k$ so that $1! le frac {(1+k)!}{1!}$ and because $1! = frac {1!}{1!}$ that is $1+k =1$ or $k = 0$.
As for any other $n > 1$ we have $frac {(n+k)!}{n!}ne n!$ we have $n! le frac {(n+k)!}{n!} iff n! < frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ and the sequences are equal.
add a comment |
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
By a theorem of Chebyshev, there exists for any integer $n > 1$ a prime $p$ with $n < p < 2n$. Hence $(2n)!$ and $(2n+1)$! are not perfect squares, since they're divisible by $p$ but not $p^2$. It follows that $(n+k)!/n! not = n!$ for any integers $n, k > 0$.
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
By a theorem of Chebyshev, there exists for any integer $n > 1$ a prime $p$ with $n < p < 2n$. Hence $(2n)!$ and $(2n+1)$! are not perfect squares, since they're divisible by $p$ but not $p^2$. It follows that $(n+k)!/n! not = n!$ for any integers $n, k > 0$.
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
By a theorem of Chebyshev, there exists for any integer $n > 1$ a prime $p$ with $n < p < 2n$. Hence $(2n)!$ and $(2n+1)$! are not perfect squares, since they're divisible by $p$ but not $p^2$. It follows that $(n+k)!/n! not = n!$ for any integers $n, k > 0$.
By a theorem of Chebyshev, there exists for any integer $n > 1$ a prime $p$ with $n < p < 2n$. Hence $(2n)!$ and $(2n+1)$! are not perfect squares, since they're divisible by $p$ but not $p^2$. It follows that $(n+k)!/n! not = n!$ for any integers $n, k > 0$.
answered Nov 22 at 1:48
anomaly
17.2k42662
17.2k42662
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
With the exception of $N=1$, $N!$ is never a square. This is because, by Bertrand's Postulate, there is always a prime between $N$ and $lfloor N/2rfloor$ (to be precise, a prime $p$ satisfying $lfloor N/2rfloorlt ple N$), and such a prime can only divide $N!$ once. So if we take $N=n+k$ with positive integers $n$ and $k$, we have $Ngt1$ and so $N!=(n+k)!$ is not a square. In particular, it cannot be the case that $(n+k)!=(n!)^2$. Thus it is never the case that $(n+k)!/n!=n!$.
It might be of interest to see if there is a proof that $N!$ is never the square of a factorial that doesn't rely on Bertrand's Postulate.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
With the exception of $N=1$, $N!$ is never a square. This is because, by Bertrand's Postulate, there is always a prime between $N$ and $lfloor N/2rfloor$ (to be precise, a prime $p$ satisfying $lfloor N/2rfloorlt ple N$), and such a prime can only divide $N!$ once. So if we take $N=n+k$ with positive integers $n$ and $k$, we have $Ngt1$ and so $N!=(n+k)!$ is not a square. In particular, it cannot be the case that $(n+k)!=(n!)^2$. Thus it is never the case that $(n+k)!/n!=n!$.
It might be of interest to see if there is a proof that $N!$ is never the square of a factorial that doesn't rely on Bertrand's Postulate.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
With the exception of $N=1$, $N!$ is never a square. This is because, by Bertrand's Postulate, there is always a prime between $N$ and $lfloor N/2rfloor$ (to be precise, a prime $p$ satisfying $lfloor N/2rfloorlt ple N$), and such a prime can only divide $N!$ once. So if we take $N=n+k$ with positive integers $n$ and $k$, we have $Ngt1$ and so $N!=(n+k)!$ is not a square. In particular, it cannot be the case that $(n+k)!=(n!)^2$. Thus it is never the case that $(n+k)!/n!=n!$.
It might be of interest to see if there is a proof that $N!$ is never the square of a factorial that doesn't rely on Bertrand's Postulate.
With the exception of $N=1$, $N!$ is never a square. This is because, by Bertrand's Postulate, there is always a prime between $N$ and $lfloor N/2rfloor$ (to be precise, a prime $p$ satisfying $lfloor N/2rfloorlt ple N$), and such a prime can only divide $N!$ once. So if we take $N=n+k$ with positive integers $n$ and $k$, we have $Ngt1$ and so $N!=(n+k)!$ is not a square. In particular, it cannot be the case that $(n+k)!=(n!)^2$. Thus it is never the case that $(n+k)!/n!=n!$.
It might be of interest to see if there is a proof that $N!$ is never the square of a factorial that doesn't rely on Bertrand's Postulate.
answered Nov 22 at 2:16
Barry Cipra
58.6k653122
58.6k653122
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
The only cases where those two sequences would differ would be when $n! = frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ or $(n+k)! = (n!)^2$ and that is the only time you can have $n! le frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ and $n! < frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ not both be true or not both be false.
anomaly's answer explains why that can never for $n > 1$.
I just want to add that if $n = 1$ then this is $(k+1)! = 1$ which is true only if $k =0$.
Hence the sequences do differ at $n=1$. The first term of A075357 is $0$ while the term of A094331 is $1$. Otherwise the sequences are identical. But they do differ and $n=1$
So for A075357 you want the least $k$ so that $1! < frac {(1+k)!}{1!}$ and that is $1! = frac {1!}{1!}$ and $1! < frac {2!}{1!}$ and that is when $1+ k = 2$ or $k =1$. But of A094331 you want the least $k$ so that $1! le frac {(1+k)!}{1!}$ and because $1! = frac {1!}{1!}$ that is $1+k =1$ or $k = 0$.
As for any other $n > 1$ we have $frac {(n+k)!}{n!}ne n!$ we have $n! le frac {(n+k)!}{n!} iff n! < frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ and the sequences are equal.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
The only cases where those two sequences would differ would be when $n! = frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ or $(n+k)! = (n!)^2$ and that is the only time you can have $n! le frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ and $n! < frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ not both be true or not both be false.
anomaly's answer explains why that can never for $n > 1$.
I just want to add that if $n = 1$ then this is $(k+1)! = 1$ which is true only if $k =0$.
Hence the sequences do differ at $n=1$. The first term of A075357 is $0$ while the term of A094331 is $1$. Otherwise the sequences are identical. But they do differ and $n=1$
So for A075357 you want the least $k$ so that $1! < frac {(1+k)!}{1!}$ and that is $1! = frac {1!}{1!}$ and $1! < frac {2!}{1!}$ and that is when $1+ k = 2$ or $k =1$. But of A094331 you want the least $k$ so that $1! le frac {(1+k)!}{1!}$ and because $1! = frac {1!}{1!}$ that is $1+k =1$ or $k = 0$.
As for any other $n > 1$ we have $frac {(n+k)!}{n!}ne n!$ we have $n! le frac {(n+k)!}{n!} iff n! < frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ and the sequences are equal.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
The only cases where those two sequences would differ would be when $n! = frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ or $(n+k)! = (n!)^2$ and that is the only time you can have $n! le frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ and $n! < frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ not both be true or not both be false.
anomaly's answer explains why that can never for $n > 1$.
I just want to add that if $n = 1$ then this is $(k+1)! = 1$ which is true only if $k =0$.
Hence the sequences do differ at $n=1$. The first term of A075357 is $0$ while the term of A094331 is $1$. Otherwise the sequences are identical. But they do differ and $n=1$
So for A075357 you want the least $k$ so that $1! < frac {(1+k)!}{1!}$ and that is $1! = frac {1!}{1!}$ and $1! < frac {2!}{1!}$ and that is when $1+ k = 2$ or $k =1$. But of A094331 you want the least $k$ so that $1! le frac {(1+k)!}{1!}$ and because $1! = frac {1!}{1!}$ that is $1+k =1$ or $k = 0$.
As for any other $n > 1$ we have $frac {(n+k)!}{n!}ne n!$ we have $n! le frac {(n+k)!}{n!} iff n! < frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ and the sequences are equal.
The only cases where those two sequences would differ would be when $n! = frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ or $(n+k)! = (n!)^2$ and that is the only time you can have $n! le frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ and $n! < frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ not both be true or not both be false.
anomaly's answer explains why that can never for $n > 1$.
I just want to add that if $n = 1$ then this is $(k+1)! = 1$ which is true only if $k =0$.
Hence the sequences do differ at $n=1$. The first term of A075357 is $0$ while the term of A094331 is $1$. Otherwise the sequences are identical. But they do differ and $n=1$
So for A075357 you want the least $k$ so that $1! < frac {(1+k)!}{1!}$ and that is $1! = frac {1!}{1!}$ and $1! < frac {2!}{1!}$ and that is when $1+ k = 2$ or $k =1$. But of A094331 you want the least $k$ so that $1! le frac {(1+k)!}{1!}$ and because $1! = frac {1!}{1!}$ that is $1+k =1$ or $k = 0$.
As for any other $n > 1$ we have $frac {(n+k)!}{n!}ne n!$ we have $n! le frac {(n+k)!}{n!} iff n! < frac {(n+k)!}{n!}$ and the sequences are equal.
edited Nov 22 at 2:33
answered Nov 22 at 2:10
fleablood
67.5k22684
67.5k22684
add a comment |
add a comment |
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i'm confused. For $jne m$ then $frac {(n+j)!}{n!} ne frac {(n+m)!}{n1}$ so obviously that can't be true for all $k$ and furthermore $frac {(n+k)!}{n!} = n!implies (n+k)! = (n!)^2$ which can't ever be true for $n+k> 1$ as $m!$ is never a perfect square.
– fleablood
Nov 22 at 1:52
You mean $k = 0$ in your example, right?
– anomaly
Nov 22 at 1:53
Did you mean to ask does $frac{(n+k)!}{n!} = n!$ EVER true. As it stands it seems as though you are asking is it always true which of course it isn't.
– fleablood
Nov 22 at 2:03
@anomaly Yes, I've made an edit.
– Graham
Nov 22 at 3:11
@fleablood I've also made an edit regarding your comment.
– Graham
Nov 22 at 3:16