Specify whether the series $sum_{n=n_0}^{+ infty } a_n cdot b_n$ must be convergent in cases a) or b)












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Specify whether the series $sum_{n=n_0}^{+ infty } a_n cdot b_n$ must be convergent when:
a) $sum a_n$ convergent, $sum b_n$ convergent
b)$sum a_n$ convergent absolutely, $sum b_n$ convergent.
I need to check my reasoning and I need help to guide them further:
If $sum b_n$ convergent, then in particular a sequence of partial sum $sum b_n$ is convergent, so the second condition of Dirichlet's test is met. That is why we should take care of $a_n$. The first condition of Dirichlet's test is $a_n$ monotonic and $a_n$ convergent to $0$. So I think in the case of a) the series $sum_{n=n_0}^{+ infty } a_n cdot b_n$ not always is convergent and b) must be convergement, but there are only my thoughts and I do not know how to prove it.










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    $begingroup$


    Specify whether the series $sum_{n=n_0}^{+ infty } a_n cdot b_n$ must be convergent when:
    a) $sum a_n$ convergent, $sum b_n$ convergent
    b)$sum a_n$ convergent absolutely, $sum b_n$ convergent.
    I need to check my reasoning and I need help to guide them further:
    If $sum b_n$ convergent, then in particular a sequence of partial sum $sum b_n$ is convergent, so the second condition of Dirichlet's test is met. That is why we should take care of $a_n$. The first condition of Dirichlet's test is $a_n$ monotonic and $a_n$ convergent to $0$. So I think in the case of a) the series $sum_{n=n_0}^{+ infty } a_n cdot b_n$ not always is convergent and b) must be convergement, but there are only my thoughts and I do not know how to prove it.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Specify whether the series $sum_{n=n_0}^{+ infty } a_n cdot b_n$ must be convergent when:
      a) $sum a_n$ convergent, $sum b_n$ convergent
      b)$sum a_n$ convergent absolutely, $sum b_n$ convergent.
      I need to check my reasoning and I need help to guide them further:
      If $sum b_n$ convergent, then in particular a sequence of partial sum $sum b_n$ is convergent, so the second condition of Dirichlet's test is met. That is why we should take care of $a_n$. The first condition of Dirichlet's test is $a_n$ monotonic and $a_n$ convergent to $0$. So I think in the case of a) the series $sum_{n=n_0}^{+ infty } a_n cdot b_n$ not always is convergent and b) must be convergement, but there are only my thoughts and I do not know how to prove it.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Specify whether the series $sum_{n=n_0}^{+ infty } a_n cdot b_n$ must be convergent when:
      a) $sum a_n$ convergent, $sum b_n$ convergent
      b)$sum a_n$ convergent absolutely, $sum b_n$ convergent.
      I need to check my reasoning and I need help to guide them further:
      If $sum b_n$ convergent, then in particular a sequence of partial sum $sum b_n$ is convergent, so the second condition of Dirichlet's test is met. That is why we should take care of $a_n$. The first condition of Dirichlet's test is $a_n$ monotonic and $a_n$ convergent to $0$. So I think in the case of a) the series $sum_{n=n_0}^{+ infty } a_n cdot b_n$ not always is convergent and b) must be convergement, but there are only my thoughts and I do not know how to prove it.







      real-analysis






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      asked Dec 20 '18 at 14:12









      MP3129MP3129

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          $begingroup$

          For the first case a counter-example is given by



          $$a_n=b_n=frac{(-1)^n}{sqrt n}$$



          For the second and since $sum b_n$ is convergent so for sufficiently large $n$ we get
          $$vert b_nvert le 1$$
          hence
          $$vert a_n b_nvertle vert a_nvert$$
          hence the series $sum a_n b_n$ is absolutely convergent.






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            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes








            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            1












            $begingroup$

            For the first case a counter-example is given by



            $$a_n=b_n=frac{(-1)^n}{sqrt n}$$



            For the second and since $sum b_n$ is convergent so for sufficiently large $n$ we get
            $$vert b_nvert le 1$$
            hence
            $$vert a_n b_nvertle vert a_nvert$$
            hence the series $sum a_n b_n$ is absolutely convergent.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              For the first case a counter-example is given by



              $$a_n=b_n=frac{(-1)^n}{sqrt n}$$



              For the second and since $sum b_n$ is convergent so for sufficiently large $n$ we get
              $$vert b_nvert le 1$$
              hence
              $$vert a_n b_nvertle vert a_nvert$$
              hence the series $sum a_n b_n$ is absolutely convergent.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                For the first case a counter-example is given by



                $$a_n=b_n=frac{(-1)^n}{sqrt n}$$



                For the second and since $sum b_n$ is convergent so for sufficiently large $n$ we get
                $$vert b_nvert le 1$$
                hence
                $$vert a_n b_nvertle vert a_nvert$$
                hence the series $sum a_n b_n$ is absolutely convergent.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                For the first case a counter-example is given by



                $$a_n=b_n=frac{(-1)^n}{sqrt n}$$



                For the second and since $sum b_n$ is convergent so for sufficiently large $n$ we get
                $$vert b_nvert le 1$$
                hence
                $$vert a_n b_nvertle vert a_nvert$$
                hence the series $sum a_n b_n$ is absolutely convergent.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 20 '18 at 14:17









                user296113user296113

                6,955928




                6,955928






























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