How to solve $int_0^pi(sin x +2sin^2 x+3sin^3 x+dots +100sin^{100} x)^2 dx$
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How to solve this integration? $int_0^pi (sin x +2sin^2 x+3sin^3 x+dots +100sin^{100} x)^2 dx$
I tried to solve by using geometric sequence but couldn't solve it. Does anyone have an idea?
calculus integration sequences-and-series algebra-precalculus analysis
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show 1 more comment
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How to solve this integration? $int_0^pi (sin x +2sin^2 x+3sin^3 x+dots +100sin^{100} x)^2 dx$
I tried to solve by using geometric sequence but couldn't solve it. Does anyone have an idea?
calculus integration sequences-and-series algebra-precalculus analysis
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Welcome to MSE. Here is an idea which might help. Notice that inside the brackets, you can factor out $sin x$, then divide by $cos x$ on the outside and multiply by $cos x$ on the all of the terms on the inside to get $frac{sin x}{cos x}left(cos x + 2 cos x sin x + 3 cos x sin^2 x + cdots 100 cos x sin^{99} x right)$. Next, notice the factor outside is $tan x$ and each term inside is the derivative of a power of $sin x$. However, based on the other comment & the answer, their suggestions will likely be easier to use.
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– John Omielan
Dec 27 '18 at 5:28
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Do you know the sum of series $sum_{k=1}^{n}kx^{k-1}$?
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– Paramanand Singh
Dec 27 '18 at 5:28
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@JohnOmielan The whole term has a second power.
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– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:26
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@ParamanandSingh The whole term has a second power
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– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:26
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$sqrt{pi}sum_{a,b=1}^{100}abfrac{Gammaleft(frac{a+b+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{a+b+2}{2}right)}$ is approximately $5.68cdot 10^6$. Reasonably the exercise is intended as an application of the central limit theorem: the integrand function, without the square, is well-approximated by $5050 expleft[-frac{67}{2}left(x-pi/2right)^2right]$, so the value of the integral is close to $5050^2sqrt{frac{pi}{67}}$.
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– Jack D'Aurizio
Dec 27 '18 at 9:54
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
How to solve this integration? $int_0^pi (sin x +2sin^2 x+3sin^3 x+dots +100sin^{100} x)^2 dx$
I tried to solve by using geometric sequence but couldn't solve it. Does anyone have an idea?
calculus integration sequences-and-series algebra-precalculus analysis
$endgroup$
How to solve this integration? $int_0^pi (sin x +2sin^2 x+3sin^3 x+dots +100sin^{100} x)^2 dx$
I tried to solve by using geometric sequence but couldn't solve it. Does anyone have an idea?
calculus integration sequences-and-series algebra-precalculus analysis
calculus integration sequences-and-series algebra-precalculus analysis
edited Dec 27 '18 at 9:28
Selena
asked Dec 27 '18 at 5:16
SelenaSelena
214
214
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Welcome to MSE. Here is an idea which might help. Notice that inside the brackets, you can factor out $sin x$, then divide by $cos x$ on the outside and multiply by $cos x$ on the all of the terms on the inside to get $frac{sin x}{cos x}left(cos x + 2 cos x sin x + 3 cos x sin^2 x + cdots 100 cos x sin^{99} x right)$. Next, notice the factor outside is $tan x$ and each term inside is the derivative of a power of $sin x$. However, based on the other comment & the answer, their suggestions will likely be easier to use.
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– John Omielan
Dec 27 '18 at 5:28
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Do you know the sum of series $sum_{k=1}^{n}kx^{k-1}$?
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– Paramanand Singh
Dec 27 '18 at 5:28
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@JohnOmielan The whole term has a second power.
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– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:26
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@ParamanandSingh The whole term has a second power
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– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:26
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$sqrt{pi}sum_{a,b=1}^{100}abfrac{Gammaleft(frac{a+b+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{a+b+2}{2}right)}$ is approximately $5.68cdot 10^6$. Reasonably the exercise is intended as an application of the central limit theorem: the integrand function, without the square, is well-approximated by $5050 expleft[-frac{67}{2}left(x-pi/2right)^2right]$, so the value of the integral is close to $5050^2sqrt{frac{pi}{67}}$.
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– Jack D'Aurizio
Dec 27 '18 at 9:54
|
show 1 more comment
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Welcome to MSE. Here is an idea which might help. Notice that inside the brackets, you can factor out $sin x$, then divide by $cos x$ on the outside and multiply by $cos x$ on the all of the terms on the inside to get $frac{sin x}{cos x}left(cos x + 2 cos x sin x + 3 cos x sin^2 x + cdots 100 cos x sin^{99} x right)$. Next, notice the factor outside is $tan x$ and each term inside is the derivative of a power of $sin x$. However, based on the other comment & the answer, their suggestions will likely be easier to use.
$endgroup$
– John Omielan
Dec 27 '18 at 5:28
$begingroup$
Do you know the sum of series $sum_{k=1}^{n}kx^{k-1}$?
$endgroup$
– Paramanand Singh
Dec 27 '18 at 5:28
$begingroup$
@JohnOmielan The whole term has a second power.
$endgroup$
– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:26
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@ParamanandSingh The whole term has a second power
$endgroup$
– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:26
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$sqrt{pi}sum_{a,b=1}^{100}abfrac{Gammaleft(frac{a+b+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{a+b+2}{2}right)}$ is approximately $5.68cdot 10^6$. Reasonably the exercise is intended as an application of the central limit theorem: the integrand function, without the square, is well-approximated by $5050 expleft[-frac{67}{2}left(x-pi/2right)^2right]$, so the value of the integral is close to $5050^2sqrt{frac{pi}{67}}$.
$endgroup$
– Jack D'Aurizio
Dec 27 '18 at 9:54
$begingroup$
Welcome to MSE. Here is an idea which might help. Notice that inside the brackets, you can factor out $sin x$, then divide by $cos x$ on the outside and multiply by $cos x$ on the all of the terms on the inside to get $frac{sin x}{cos x}left(cos x + 2 cos x sin x + 3 cos x sin^2 x + cdots 100 cos x sin^{99} x right)$. Next, notice the factor outside is $tan x$ and each term inside is the derivative of a power of $sin x$. However, based on the other comment & the answer, their suggestions will likely be easier to use.
$endgroup$
– John Omielan
Dec 27 '18 at 5:28
$begingroup$
Welcome to MSE. Here is an idea which might help. Notice that inside the brackets, you can factor out $sin x$, then divide by $cos x$ on the outside and multiply by $cos x$ on the all of the terms on the inside to get $frac{sin x}{cos x}left(cos x + 2 cos x sin x + 3 cos x sin^2 x + cdots 100 cos x sin^{99} x right)$. Next, notice the factor outside is $tan x$ and each term inside is the derivative of a power of $sin x$. However, based on the other comment & the answer, their suggestions will likely be easier to use.
$endgroup$
– John Omielan
Dec 27 '18 at 5:28
$begingroup$
Do you know the sum of series $sum_{k=1}^{n}kx^{k-1}$?
$endgroup$
– Paramanand Singh
Dec 27 '18 at 5:28
$begingroup$
Do you know the sum of series $sum_{k=1}^{n}kx^{k-1}$?
$endgroup$
– Paramanand Singh
Dec 27 '18 at 5:28
$begingroup$
@JohnOmielan The whole term has a second power.
$endgroup$
– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:26
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@JohnOmielan The whole term has a second power.
$endgroup$
– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:26
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@ParamanandSingh The whole term has a second power
$endgroup$
– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:26
$begingroup$
@ParamanandSingh The whole term has a second power
$endgroup$
– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:26
$begingroup$
$sqrt{pi}sum_{a,b=1}^{100}abfrac{Gammaleft(frac{a+b+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{a+b+2}{2}right)}$ is approximately $5.68cdot 10^6$. Reasonably the exercise is intended as an application of the central limit theorem: the integrand function, without the square, is well-approximated by $5050 expleft[-frac{67}{2}left(x-pi/2right)^2right]$, so the value of the integral is close to $5050^2sqrt{frac{pi}{67}}$.
$endgroup$
– Jack D'Aurizio
Dec 27 '18 at 9:54
$begingroup$
$sqrt{pi}sum_{a,b=1}^{100}abfrac{Gammaleft(frac{a+b+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{a+b+2}{2}right)}$ is approximately $5.68cdot 10^6$. Reasonably the exercise is intended as an application of the central limit theorem: the integrand function, without the square, is well-approximated by $5050 expleft[-frac{67}{2}left(x-pi/2right)^2right]$, so the value of the integral is close to $5050^2sqrt{frac{pi}{67}}$.
$endgroup$
– Jack D'Aurizio
Dec 27 '18 at 9:54
|
show 1 more comment
2 Answers
2
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$$S_n=int_{0}^{pi}[a_1sinx+a_2sin^2x+...+a_{n}sin^{200}x]dx$$ for some coefficients $a_1,a_2,...,a_n$.
Now let's look at the coefficient of $sin^{100}x$, this is all the sine terms multiplied such that the sum of the product is 100, eg. $1times99,2times98,...,99times1$. Now you can observe that the coefficient must be of the form $sum_{i=1}^{99}i(100-i)=sum_{i=1}^{100}i(100-i)$(since the i=100 term is just zero). Similarly, for the kth power, you can write
$$a_k=sum_{i=1}^{k}i(k-i)=sum_{i=1}^{k}(ik-i^2)=ktimesfrac{k(k+1)}{2}-frac{k(k+1)(2k+1)}{6}=frac{k(k+1)(3k-2k-1)}{6}=frac{k(k^2-1)}{6}$$
So that
$$S_n=int_{0}^{pi}[sum_{n=1}^{200}frac{n(n^2-1)}{6}sin^{n}x]dx$$
Now, let us evaluate$int_{0}^{pi}sin^{n}xdx$
$I_n=int_{0}^{pi}sin^{n}xdx=[-cosxsin^{n-1}x]_{0}^{pi}+int_{0}^{pi}(n-1)sin^{n-2}xcosxtimes cosxdx=int_{0}^{pi}(n-1)sin^{n-2}x(1-sin^2x)dx=(n-1)int_{0}^{pi}sin^{n-2}x-(n-1)int_{0}^{pi}sin^nxdx$
$$Rightarrow I_n=(n-1)I_{n-2}-(n-1)I_nRightarrow I_n=frac{(n-1)}{n}I_{n-2}$$
Also, you can check that $I_1=frac{pi}{2}(int_{0}^{pi}sin^2xdx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{1-cos2x}{2}dx)$ and $I_2=frac{3pi}{8}(int_{0}^{pi}sin^4xdx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{(1-cos2x)^2}{4}dx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{(1+cos^22x+2cos2x)}{4}dx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{(1+frac{1+cos4x}{2}+cos2x)}{4}dx)$(I did this mainly using the result $sin^2x=frac{1-cos2x}{2} and cos^2x=frac{1+cos2x}{2}$ and the fact that $int_{0}^{pi}cos2nxdx=0=int_{0}^{pi}sin2nxdx,ninmathbb{N}$). So, if n is odd, $I_n=frac{(n-1)pi}{2n}$ and $I_n=frac{3(n-1)pi}{8n}$ if its even.
Now, you can use this in the original sequence to find the result which would give-
$S_n=sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{2n(4n^2-1)times 3(n-1)pi}{6times 8}+sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{(2n-1)(4n^2+1-2n-1)times (n-1)pi}{6times 2}=sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{2n(2n-1)(n-1)pi (3(2n+1)+8n-4)}{6times 8}=sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{n(n-1)(2n-1)(14n-1)pi}{24}$
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1
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$sin^k x > 0$ in $(0,pi)$ for any $k in Bbb N$, so how can its integral be $0$?
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– Dylan
Dec 27 '18 at 7:33
2
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This is embarassing.
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– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 7:40
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Apparently the method used seems more general, i believe it should still work(i've edited that part). Can you please check.
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– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 7:47
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this is basically the second approach Masacroso suggests in his answer
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– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:02
add a comment |
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HINT: note that
$$sum_{k=1}^m k y^k=ysum_{k=1}^mky^{k-1}=ysum_{k=1}^mfrac{d}{dy} y^k=yfrac{d}{dy}sum_{k=1}^m y^k$$
Alternatively you can try to use the following formula to expand the square of the sum
$$left(sum_{k=1}^m k y^kright)^2=sum_{k=2}^{2m}c_k y^k$$
where
$$begin{align}c_k:=&sum_{j=1}^k j(k-j)=ksum_{j=1}^k j-sum_{j=1}^k j^2\&=frac12k^2(k+1)-frac13(k+1)k(k-1)-frac12 k(k+1)\
&=(k+1)kleft(frac{k}2-frac{k-1}3-frac12right)\
&=frac16(k+1)k(k-1)end{align}$$
However the value of the integral using this method would be a sum of $2m$ terms, that you would want to write in some compact form.
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Please explain more. Thanks.
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– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:20
1
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@Selena using the first approach, using the formula for geometric sums, you get $$frac{d}{dy}sum_{k=1}^{100} y^k=frac{d}{dy}left(frac{y^{101}-1}{y-1}-1right)\=frac{101 y^{100}(y-1)-y^{101}+1}{(y-1)^2}=frac{100 y^{101}-101y^{100}+1}{(y-1)^2}$$ Hence $$int_0^{pi/2}left(sum_{k=1}^{100} ksin^k xright)^2, dx=int_0^{pi/2}sin^2 xfrac{(100(sin x)^{101}-101(sin x)^{100}+1)^2}{(sin x-1)^4}, dx$$ However the last integral seems not so easy to solve. Try the second approach with this
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– Masacroso
Dec 27 '18 at 14:00
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@Masacroso do you think that the form of $int_{0}^{frac{pi}{2}}sin^zxdx$(as mentioned in the link) reduces to the same form as what I got below? If not, can you point out the problem?
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– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:07
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@Masacroso it seems I made an error here-"if n is odd, $I_n=frac{(n-1)pi}{2n}$ and $I_n=frac{3(n-1)pi}{8n}$"
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– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:18
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
$$S_n=int_{0}^{pi}[a_1sinx+a_2sin^2x+...+a_{n}sin^{200}x]dx$$ for some coefficients $a_1,a_2,...,a_n$.
Now let's look at the coefficient of $sin^{100}x$, this is all the sine terms multiplied such that the sum of the product is 100, eg. $1times99,2times98,...,99times1$. Now you can observe that the coefficient must be of the form $sum_{i=1}^{99}i(100-i)=sum_{i=1}^{100}i(100-i)$(since the i=100 term is just zero). Similarly, for the kth power, you can write
$$a_k=sum_{i=1}^{k}i(k-i)=sum_{i=1}^{k}(ik-i^2)=ktimesfrac{k(k+1)}{2}-frac{k(k+1)(2k+1)}{6}=frac{k(k+1)(3k-2k-1)}{6}=frac{k(k^2-1)}{6}$$
So that
$$S_n=int_{0}^{pi}[sum_{n=1}^{200}frac{n(n^2-1)}{6}sin^{n}x]dx$$
Now, let us evaluate$int_{0}^{pi}sin^{n}xdx$
$I_n=int_{0}^{pi}sin^{n}xdx=[-cosxsin^{n-1}x]_{0}^{pi}+int_{0}^{pi}(n-1)sin^{n-2}xcosxtimes cosxdx=int_{0}^{pi}(n-1)sin^{n-2}x(1-sin^2x)dx=(n-1)int_{0}^{pi}sin^{n-2}x-(n-1)int_{0}^{pi}sin^nxdx$
$$Rightarrow I_n=(n-1)I_{n-2}-(n-1)I_nRightarrow I_n=frac{(n-1)}{n}I_{n-2}$$
Also, you can check that $I_1=frac{pi}{2}(int_{0}^{pi}sin^2xdx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{1-cos2x}{2}dx)$ and $I_2=frac{3pi}{8}(int_{0}^{pi}sin^4xdx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{(1-cos2x)^2}{4}dx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{(1+cos^22x+2cos2x)}{4}dx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{(1+frac{1+cos4x}{2}+cos2x)}{4}dx)$(I did this mainly using the result $sin^2x=frac{1-cos2x}{2} and cos^2x=frac{1+cos2x}{2}$ and the fact that $int_{0}^{pi}cos2nxdx=0=int_{0}^{pi}sin2nxdx,ninmathbb{N}$). So, if n is odd, $I_n=frac{(n-1)pi}{2n}$ and $I_n=frac{3(n-1)pi}{8n}$ if its even.
Now, you can use this in the original sequence to find the result which would give-
$S_n=sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{2n(4n^2-1)times 3(n-1)pi}{6times 8}+sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{(2n-1)(4n^2+1-2n-1)times (n-1)pi}{6times 2}=sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{2n(2n-1)(n-1)pi (3(2n+1)+8n-4)}{6times 8}=sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{n(n-1)(2n-1)(14n-1)pi}{24}$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
$sin^k x > 0$ in $(0,pi)$ for any $k in Bbb N$, so how can its integral be $0$?
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Dec 27 '18 at 7:33
2
$begingroup$
This is embarassing.
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 7:40
$begingroup$
Apparently the method used seems more general, i believe it should still work(i've edited that part). Can you please check.
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 7:47
$begingroup$
this is basically the second approach Masacroso suggests in his answer
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:02
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$S_n=int_{0}^{pi}[a_1sinx+a_2sin^2x+...+a_{n}sin^{200}x]dx$$ for some coefficients $a_1,a_2,...,a_n$.
Now let's look at the coefficient of $sin^{100}x$, this is all the sine terms multiplied such that the sum of the product is 100, eg. $1times99,2times98,...,99times1$. Now you can observe that the coefficient must be of the form $sum_{i=1}^{99}i(100-i)=sum_{i=1}^{100}i(100-i)$(since the i=100 term is just zero). Similarly, for the kth power, you can write
$$a_k=sum_{i=1}^{k}i(k-i)=sum_{i=1}^{k}(ik-i^2)=ktimesfrac{k(k+1)}{2}-frac{k(k+1)(2k+1)}{6}=frac{k(k+1)(3k-2k-1)}{6}=frac{k(k^2-1)}{6}$$
So that
$$S_n=int_{0}^{pi}[sum_{n=1}^{200}frac{n(n^2-1)}{6}sin^{n}x]dx$$
Now, let us evaluate$int_{0}^{pi}sin^{n}xdx$
$I_n=int_{0}^{pi}sin^{n}xdx=[-cosxsin^{n-1}x]_{0}^{pi}+int_{0}^{pi}(n-1)sin^{n-2}xcosxtimes cosxdx=int_{0}^{pi}(n-1)sin^{n-2}x(1-sin^2x)dx=(n-1)int_{0}^{pi}sin^{n-2}x-(n-1)int_{0}^{pi}sin^nxdx$
$$Rightarrow I_n=(n-1)I_{n-2}-(n-1)I_nRightarrow I_n=frac{(n-1)}{n}I_{n-2}$$
Also, you can check that $I_1=frac{pi}{2}(int_{0}^{pi}sin^2xdx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{1-cos2x}{2}dx)$ and $I_2=frac{3pi}{8}(int_{0}^{pi}sin^4xdx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{(1-cos2x)^2}{4}dx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{(1+cos^22x+2cos2x)}{4}dx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{(1+frac{1+cos4x}{2}+cos2x)}{4}dx)$(I did this mainly using the result $sin^2x=frac{1-cos2x}{2} and cos^2x=frac{1+cos2x}{2}$ and the fact that $int_{0}^{pi}cos2nxdx=0=int_{0}^{pi}sin2nxdx,ninmathbb{N}$). So, if n is odd, $I_n=frac{(n-1)pi}{2n}$ and $I_n=frac{3(n-1)pi}{8n}$ if its even.
Now, you can use this in the original sequence to find the result which would give-
$S_n=sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{2n(4n^2-1)times 3(n-1)pi}{6times 8}+sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{(2n-1)(4n^2+1-2n-1)times (n-1)pi}{6times 2}=sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{2n(2n-1)(n-1)pi (3(2n+1)+8n-4)}{6times 8}=sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{n(n-1)(2n-1)(14n-1)pi}{24}$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
$sin^k x > 0$ in $(0,pi)$ for any $k in Bbb N$, so how can its integral be $0$?
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Dec 27 '18 at 7:33
2
$begingroup$
This is embarassing.
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 7:40
$begingroup$
Apparently the method used seems more general, i believe it should still work(i've edited that part). Can you please check.
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 7:47
$begingroup$
this is basically the second approach Masacroso suggests in his answer
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:02
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$S_n=int_{0}^{pi}[a_1sinx+a_2sin^2x+...+a_{n}sin^{200}x]dx$$ for some coefficients $a_1,a_2,...,a_n$.
Now let's look at the coefficient of $sin^{100}x$, this is all the sine terms multiplied such that the sum of the product is 100, eg. $1times99,2times98,...,99times1$. Now you can observe that the coefficient must be of the form $sum_{i=1}^{99}i(100-i)=sum_{i=1}^{100}i(100-i)$(since the i=100 term is just zero). Similarly, for the kth power, you can write
$$a_k=sum_{i=1}^{k}i(k-i)=sum_{i=1}^{k}(ik-i^2)=ktimesfrac{k(k+1)}{2}-frac{k(k+1)(2k+1)}{6}=frac{k(k+1)(3k-2k-1)}{6}=frac{k(k^2-1)}{6}$$
So that
$$S_n=int_{0}^{pi}[sum_{n=1}^{200}frac{n(n^2-1)}{6}sin^{n}x]dx$$
Now, let us evaluate$int_{0}^{pi}sin^{n}xdx$
$I_n=int_{0}^{pi}sin^{n}xdx=[-cosxsin^{n-1}x]_{0}^{pi}+int_{0}^{pi}(n-1)sin^{n-2}xcosxtimes cosxdx=int_{0}^{pi}(n-1)sin^{n-2}x(1-sin^2x)dx=(n-1)int_{0}^{pi}sin^{n-2}x-(n-1)int_{0}^{pi}sin^nxdx$
$$Rightarrow I_n=(n-1)I_{n-2}-(n-1)I_nRightarrow I_n=frac{(n-1)}{n}I_{n-2}$$
Also, you can check that $I_1=frac{pi}{2}(int_{0}^{pi}sin^2xdx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{1-cos2x}{2}dx)$ and $I_2=frac{3pi}{8}(int_{0}^{pi}sin^4xdx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{(1-cos2x)^2}{4}dx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{(1+cos^22x+2cos2x)}{4}dx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{(1+frac{1+cos4x}{2}+cos2x)}{4}dx)$(I did this mainly using the result $sin^2x=frac{1-cos2x}{2} and cos^2x=frac{1+cos2x}{2}$ and the fact that $int_{0}^{pi}cos2nxdx=0=int_{0}^{pi}sin2nxdx,ninmathbb{N}$). So, if n is odd, $I_n=frac{(n-1)pi}{2n}$ and $I_n=frac{3(n-1)pi}{8n}$ if its even.
Now, you can use this in the original sequence to find the result which would give-
$S_n=sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{2n(4n^2-1)times 3(n-1)pi}{6times 8}+sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{(2n-1)(4n^2+1-2n-1)times (n-1)pi}{6times 2}=sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{2n(2n-1)(n-1)pi (3(2n+1)+8n-4)}{6times 8}=sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{n(n-1)(2n-1)(14n-1)pi}{24}$
$endgroup$
$$S_n=int_{0}^{pi}[a_1sinx+a_2sin^2x+...+a_{n}sin^{200}x]dx$$ for some coefficients $a_1,a_2,...,a_n$.
Now let's look at the coefficient of $sin^{100}x$, this is all the sine terms multiplied such that the sum of the product is 100, eg. $1times99,2times98,...,99times1$. Now you can observe that the coefficient must be of the form $sum_{i=1}^{99}i(100-i)=sum_{i=1}^{100}i(100-i)$(since the i=100 term is just zero). Similarly, for the kth power, you can write
$$a_k=sum_{i=1}^{k}i(k-i)=sum_{i=1}^{k}(ik-i^2)=ktimesfrac{k(k+1)}{2}-frac{k(k+1)(2k+1)}{6}=frac{k(k+1)(3k-2k-1)}{6}=frac{k(k^2-1)}{6}$$
So that
$$S_n=int_{0}^{pi}[sum_{n=1}^{200}frac{n(n^2-1)}{6}sin^{n}x]dx$$
Now, let us evaluate$int_{0}^{pi}sin^{n}xdx$
$I_n=int_{0}^{pi}sin^{n}xdx=[-cosxsin^{n-1}x]_{0}^{pi}+int_{0}^{pi}(n-1)sin^{n-2}xcosxtimes cosxdx=int_{0}^{pi}(n-1)sin^{n-2}x(1-sin^2x)dx=(n-1)int_{0}^{pi}sin^{n-2}x-(n-1)int_{0}^{pi}sin^nxdx$
$$Rightarrow I_n=(n-1)I_{n-2}-(n-1)I_nRightarrow I_n=frac{(n-1)}{n}I_{n-2}$$
Also, you can check that $I_1=frac{pi}{2}(int_{0}^{pi}sin^2xdx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{1-cos2x}{2}dx)$ and $I_2=frac{3pi}{8}(int_{0}^{pi}sin^4xdx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{(1-cos2x)^2}{4}dx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{(1+cos^22x+2cos2x)}{4}dx=int_{0}^{pi}frac{(1+frac{1+cos4x}{2}+cos2x)}{4}dx)$(I did this mainly using the result $sin^2x=frac{1-cos2x}{2} and cos^2x=frac{1+cos2x}{2}$ and the fact that $int_{0}^{pi}cos2nxdx=0=int_{0}^{pi}sin2nxdx,ninmathbb{N}$). So, if n is odd, $I_n=frac{(n-1)pi}{2n}$ and $I_n=frac{3(n-1)pi}{8n}$ if its even.
Now, you can use this in the original sequence to find the result which would give-
$S_n=sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{2n(4n^2-1)times 3(n-1)pi}{6times 8}+sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{(2n-1)(4n^2+1-2n-1)times (n-1)pi}{6times 2}=sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{2n(2n-1)(n-1)pi (3(2n+1)+8n-4)}{6times 8}=sum_{n=1}^{100}frac{n(n-1)(2n-1)(14n-1)pi}{24}$
edited Dec 27 '18 at 11:39
answered Dec 27 '18 at 7:22
MustangMustang
3367
3367
1
$begingroup$
$sin^k x > 0$ in $(0,pi)$ for any $k in Bbb N$, so how can its integral be $0$?
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Dec 27 '18 at 7:33
2
$begingroup$
This is embarassing.
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 7:40
$begingroup$
Apparently the method used seems more general, i believe it should still work(i've edited that part). Can you please check.
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 7:47
$begingroup$
this is basically the second approach Masacroso suggests in his answer
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:02
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
$sin^k x > 0$ in $(0,pi)$ for any $k in Bbb N$, so how can its integral be $0$?
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Dec 27 '18 at 7:33
2
$begingroup$
This is embarassing.
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 7:40
$begingroup$
Apparently the method used seems more general, i believe it should still work(i've edited that part). Can you please check.
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 7:47
$begingroup$
this is basically the second approach Masacroso suggests in his answer
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:02
1
1
$begingroup$
$sin^k x > 0$ in $(0,pi)$ for any $k in Bbb N$, so how can its integral be $0$?
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Dec 27 '18 at 7:33
$begingroup$
$sin^k x > 0$ in $(0,pi)$ for any $k in Bbb N$, so how can its integral be $0$?
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Dec 27 '18 at 7:33
2
2
$begingroup$
This is embarassing.
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 7:40
$begingroup$
This is embarassing.
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 7:40
$begingroup$
Apparently the method used seems more general, i believe it should still work(i've edited that part). Can you please check.
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 7:47
$begingroup$
Apparently the method used seems more general, i believe it should still work(i've edited that part). Can you please check.
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 7:47
$begingroup$
this is basically the second approach Masacroso suggests in his answer
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:02
$begingroup$
this is basically the second approach Masacroso suggests in his answer
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:02
add a comment |
$begingroup$
HINT: note that
$$sum_{k=1}^m k y^k=ysum_{k=1}^mky^{k-1}=ysum_{k=1}^mfrac{d}{dy} y^k=yfrac{d}{dy}sum_{k=1}^m y^k$$
Alternatively you can try to use the following formula to expand the square of the sum
$$left(sum_{k=1}^m k y^kright)^2=sum_{k=2}^{2m}c_k y^k$$
where
$$begin{align}c_k:=&sum_{j=1}^k j(k-j)=ksum_{j=1}^k j-sum_{j=1}^k j^2\&=frac12k^2(k+1)-frac13(k+1)k(k-1)-frac12 k(k+1)\
&=(k+1)kleft(frac{k}2-frac{k-1}3-frac12right)\
&=frac16(k+1)k(k-1)end{align}$$
However the value of the integral using this method would be a sum of $2m$ terms, that you would want to write in some compact form.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Please explain more. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:20
1
$begingroup$
@Selena using the first approach, using the formula for geometric sums, you get $$frac{d}{dy}sum_{k=1}^{100} y^k=frac{d}{dy}left(frac{y^{101}-1}{y-1}-1right)\=frac{101 y^{100}(y-1)-y^{101}+1}{(y-1)^2}=frac{100 y^{101}-101y^{100}+1}{(y-1)^2}$$ Hence $$int_0^{pi/2}left(sum_{k=1}^{100} ksin^k xright)^2, dx=int_0^{pi/2}sin^2 xfrac{(100(sin x)^{101}-101(sin x)^{100}+1)^2}{(sin x-1)^4}, dx$$ However the last integral seems not so easy to solve. Try the second approach with this
$endgroup$
– Masacroso
Dec 27 '18 at 14:00
$begingroup$
@Masacroso do you think that the form of $int_{0}^{frac{pi}{2}}sin^zxdx$(as mentioned in the link) reduces to the same form as what I got below? If not, can you point out the problem?
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:07
$begingroup$
@Masacroso it seems I made an error here-"if n is odd, $I_n=frac{(n-1)pi}{2n}$ and $I_n=frac{3(n-1)pi}{8n}$"
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
HINT: note that
$$sum_{k=1}^m k y^k=ysum_{k=1}^mky^{k-1}=ysum_{k=1}^mfrac{d}{dy} y^k=yfrac{d}{dy}sum_{k=1}^m y^k$$
Alternatively you can try to use the following formula to expand the square of the sum
$$left(sum_{k=1}^m k y^kright)^2=sum_{k=2}^{2m}c_k y^k$$
where
$$begin{align}c_k:=&sum_{j=1}^k j(k-j)=ksum_{j=1}^k j-sum_{j=1}^k j^2\&=frac12k^2(k+1)-frac13(k+1)k(k-1)-frac12 k(k+1)\
&=(k+1)kleft(frac{k}2-frac{k-1}3-frac12right)\
&=frac16(k+1)k(k-1)end{align}$$
However the value of the integral using this method would be a sum of $2m$ terms, that you would want to write in some compact form.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Please explain more. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:20
1
$begingroup$
@Selena using the first approach, using the formula for geometric sums, you get $$frac{d}{dy}sum_{k=1}^{100} y^k=frac{d}{dy}left(frac{y^{101}-1}{y-1}-1right)\=frac{101 y^{100}(y-1)-y^{101}+1}{(y-1)^2}=frac{100 y^{101}-101y^{100}+1}{(y-1)^2}$$ Hence $$int_0^{pi/2}left(sum_{k=1}^{100} ksin^k xright)^2, dx=int_0^{pi/2}sin^2 xfrac{(100(sin x)^{101}-101(sin x)^{100}+1)^2}{(sin x-1)^4}, dx$$ However the last integral seems not so easy to solve. Try the second approach with this
$endgroup$
– Masacroso
Dec 27 '18 at 14:00
$begingroup$
@Masacroso do you think that the form of $int_{0}^{frac{pi}{2}}sin^zxdx$(as mentioned in the link) reduces to the same form as what I got below? If not, can you point out the problem?
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:07
$begingroup$
@Masacroso it seems I made an error here-"if n is odd, $I_n=frac{(n-1)pi}{2n}$ and $I_n=frac{3(n-1)pi}{8n}$"
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
HINT: note that
$$sum_{k=1}^m k y^k=ysum_{k=1}^mky^{k-1}=ysum_{k=1}^mfrac{d}{dy} y^k=yfrac{d}{dy}sum_{k=1}^m y^k$$
Alternatively you can try to use the following formula to expand the square of the sum
$$left(sum_{k=1}^m k y^kright)^2=sum_{k=2}^{2m}c_k y^k$$
where
$$begin{align}c_k:=&sum_{j=1}^k j(k-j)=ksum_{j=1}^k j-sum_{j=1}^k j^2\&=frac12k^2(k+1)-frac13(k+1)k(k-1)-frac12 k(k+1)\
&=(k+1)kleft(frac{k}2-frac{k-1}3-frac12right)\
&=frac16(k+1)k(k-1)end{align}$$
However the value of the integral using this method would be a sum of $2m$ terms, that you would want to write in some compact form.
$endgroup$
HINT: note that
$$sum_{k=1}^m k y^k=ysum_{k=1}^mky^{k-1}=ysum_{k=1}^mfrac{d}{dy} y^k=yfrac{d}{dy}sum_{k=1}^m y^k$$
Alternatively you can try to use the following formula to expand the square of the sum
$$left(sum_{k=1}^m k y^kright)^2=sum_{k=2}^{2m}c_k y^k$$
where
$$begin{align}c_k:=&sum_{j=1}^k j(k-j)=ksum_{j=1}^k j-sum_{j=1}^k j^2\&=frac12k^2(k+1)-frac13(k+1)k(k-1)-frac12 k(k+1)\
&=(k+1)kleft(frac{k}2-frac{k-1}3-frac12right)\
&=frac16(k+1)k(k-1)end{align}$$
However the value of the integral using this method would be a sum of $2m$ terms, that you would want to write in some compact form.
edited Dec 27 '18 at 6:34
answered Dec 27 '18 at 5:28
MasacrosoMasacroso
13.1k41747
13.1k41747
$begingroup$
Please explain more. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:20
1
$begingroup$
@Selena using the first approach, using the formula for geometric sums, you get $$frac{d}{dy}sum_{k=1}^{100} y^k=frac{d}{dy}left(frac{y^{101}-1}{y-1}-1right)\=frac{101 y^{100}(y-1)-y^{101}+1}{(y-1)^2}=frac{100 y^{101}-101y^{100}+1}{(y-1)^2}$$ Hence $$int_0^{pi/2}left(sum_{k=1}^{100} ksin^k xright)^2, dx=int_0^{pi/2}sin^2 xfrac{(100(sin x)^{101}-101(sin x)^{100}+1)^2}{(sin x-1)^4}, dx$$ However the last integral seems not so easy to solve. Try the second approach with this
$endgroup$
– Masacroso
Dec 27 '18 at 14:00
$begingroup$
@Masacroso do you think that the form of $int_{0}^{frac{pi}{2}}sin^zxdx$(as mentioned in the link) reduces to the same form as what I got below? If not, can you point out the problem?
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:07
$begingroup$
@Masacroso it seems I made an error here-"if n is odd, $I_n=frac{(n-1)pi}{2n}$ and $I_n=frac{3(n-1)pi}{8n}$"
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Please explain more. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:20
1
$begingroup$
@Selena using the first approach, using the formula for geometric sums, you get $$frac{d}{dy}sum_{k=1}^{100} y^k=frac{d}{dy}left(frac{y^{101}-1}{y-1}-1right)\=frac{101 y^{100}(y-1)-y^{101}+1}{(y-1)^2}=frac{100 y^{101}-101y^{100}+1}{(y-1)^2}$$ Hence $$int_0^{pi/2}left(sum_{k=1}^{100} ksin^k xright)^2, dx=int_0^{pi/2}sin^2 xfrac{(100(sin x)^{101}-101(sin x)^{100}+1)^2}{(sin x-1)^4}, dx$$ However the last integral seems not so easy to solve. Try the second approach with this
$endgroup$
– Masacroso
Dec 27 '18 at 14:00
$begingroup$
@Masacroso do you think that the form of $int_{0}^{frac{pi}{2}}sin^zxdx$(as mentioned in the link) reduces to the same form as what I got below? If not, can you point out the problem?
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:07
$begingroup$
@Masacroso it seems I made an error here-"if n is odd, $I_n=frac{(n-1)pi}{2n}$ and $I_n=frac{3(n-1)pi}{8n}$"
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:18
$begingroup$
Please explain more. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:20
$begingroup$
Please explain more. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:20
1
1
$begingroup$
@Selena using the first approach, using the formula for geometric sums, you get $$frac{d}{dy}sum_{k=1}^{100} y^k=frac{d}{dy}left(frac{y^{101}-1}{y-1}-1right)\=frac{101 y^{100}(y-1)-y^{101}+1}{(y-1)^2}=frac{100 y^{101}-101y^{100}+1}{(y-1)^2}$$ Hence $$int_0^{pi/2}left(sum_{k=1}^{100} ksin^k xright)^2, dx=int_0^{pi/2}sin^2 xfrac{(100(sin x)^{101}-101(sin x)^{100}+1)^2}{(sin x-1)^4}, dx$$ However the last integral seems not so easy to solve. Try the second approach with this
$endgroup$
– Masacroso
Dec 27 '18 at 14:00
$begingroup$
@Selena using the first approach, using the formula for geometric sums, you get $$frac{d}{dy}sum_{k=1}^{100} y^k=frac{d}{dy}left(frac{y^{101}-1}{y-1}-1right)\=frac{101 y^{100}(y-1)-y^{101}+1}{(y-1)^2}=frac{100 y^{101}-101y^{100}+1}{(y-1)^2}$$ Hence $$int_0^{pi/2}left(sum_{k=1}^{100} ksin^k xright)^2, dx=int_0^{pi/2}sin^2 xfrac{(100(sin x)^{101}-101(sin x)^{100}+1)^2}{(sin x-1)^4}, dx$$ However the last integral seems not so easy to solve. Try the second approach with this
$endgroup$
– Masacroso
Dec 27 '18 at 14:00
$begingroup$
@Masacroso do you think that the form of $int_{0}^{frac{pi}{2}}sin^zxdx$(as mentioned in the link) reduces to the same form as what I got below? If not, can you point out the problem?
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:07
$begingroup$
@Masacroso do you think that the form of $int_{0}^{frac{pi}{2}}sin^zxdx$(as mentioned in the link) reduces to the same form as what I got below? If not, can you point out the problem?
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:07
$begingroup$
@Masacroso it seems I made an error here-"if n is odd, $I_n=frac{(n-1)pi}{2n}$ and $I_n=frac{3(n-1)pi}{8n}$"
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:18
$begingroup$
@Masacroso it seems I made an error here-"if n is odd, $I_n=frac{(n-1)pi}{2n}$ and $I_n=frac{3(n-1)pi}{8n}$"
$endgroup$
– Mustang
Dec 27 '18 at 18:18
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Welcome to MSE. Here is an idea which might help. Notice that inside the brackets, you can factor out $sin x$, then divide by $cos x$ on the outside and multiply by $cos x$ on the all of the terms on the inside to get $frac{sin x}{cos x}left(cos x + 2 cos x sin x + 3 cos x sin^2 x + cdots 100 cos x sin^{99} x right)$. Next, notice the factor outside is $tan x$ and each term inside is the derivative of a power of $sin x$. However, based on the other comment & the answer, their suggestions will likely be easier to use.
$endgroup$
– John Omielan
Dec 27 '18 at 5:28
$begingroup$
Do you know the sum of series $sum_{k=1}^{n}kx^{k-1}$?
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– Paramanand Singh
Dec 27 '18 at 5:28
$begingroup$
@JohnOmielan The whole term has a second power.
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– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:26
$begingroup$
@ParamanandSingh The whole term has a second power
$endgroup$
– Selena
Dec 27 '18 at 9:26
$begingroup$
$sqrt{pi}sum_{a,b=1}^{100}abfrac{Gammaleft(frac{a+b+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{a+b+2}{2}right)}$ is approximately $5.68cdot 10^6$. Reasonably the exercise is intended as an application of the central limit theorem: the integrand function, without the square, is well-approximated by $5050 expleft[-frac{67}{2}left(x-pi/2right)^2right]$, so the value of the integral is close to $5050^2sqrt{frac{pi}{67}}$.
$endgroup$
– Jack D'Aurizio
Dec 27 '18 at 9:54