How to get from $I-p p^T$ to $-E p p^T E$?











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$p in mathbb{R}^2$ is a unit-length column vector. $E=begin{bmatrix}0 & 1 \ -1 & 0end{bmatrix}$ is the "$-frac{pi}{2}$" rotation matrix. So
how to prove that
begin{equation}
I-p p^T = -E p p^T E ;?
end{equation}



Of course you can let $p=[x,y]^T$ and prove this. But that is not the answer I want. I want to know how one can do some calculations and get $-E p p^T E$ just starting from $I-p p^T$?










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    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    $p in mathbb{R}^2$ is a unit-length column vector. $E=begin{bmatrix}0 & 1 \ -1 & 0end{bmatrix}$ is the "$-frac{pi}{2}$" rotation matrix. So
    how to prove that
    begin{equation}
    I-p p^T = -E p p^T E ;?
    end{equation}



    Of course you can let $p=[x,y]^T$ and prove this. But that is not the answer I want. I want to know how one can do some calculations and get $-E p p^T E$ just starting from $I-p p^T$?










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      $p in mathbb{R}^2$ is a unit-length column vector. $E=begin{bmatrix}0 & 1 \ -1 & 0end{bmatrix}$ is the "$-frac{pi}{2}$" rotation matrix. So
      how to prove that
      begin{equation}
      I-p p^T = -E p p^T E ;?
      end{equation}



      Of course you can let $p=[x,y]^T$ and prove this. But that is not the answer I want. I want to know how one can do some calculations and get $-E p p^T E$ just starting from $I-p p^T$?










      share|cite|improve this question















      $p in mathbb{R}^2$ is a unit-length column vector. $E=begin{bmatrix}0 & 1 \ -1 & 0end{bmatrix}$ is the "$-frac{pi}{2}$" rotation matrix. So
      how to prove that
      begin{equation}
      I-p p^T = -E p p^T E ;?
      end{equation}



      Of course you can let $p=[x,y]^T$ and prove this. But that is not the answer I want. I want to know how one can do some calculations and get $-E p p^T E$ just starting from $I-p p^T$?







      linear-algebra matrices rotations projection-matrices






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      edited Nov 22 at 21:46









      Hanno

      1,925424




      1,925424










      asked Nov 22 at 18:17









      winston

      481218




      481218






















          2 Answers
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          The given unit vector $,p,$ spans a $1$-dimensional subspace,
          and $:pp^T=p,langle, pmidcdot,rangle,$ is the associated orthogonal projector onto that subspace.

          The orthogonal complement is also $1$-dimensional as we are considering
          $mathbb R^2$, and it is (spanned by) "everything perpendicular to $p$", e.g. the unit vector $,Ep,$ or $,-Ep$, the sign doesn't matter. The corresponding orthogonal projection is
          $$(pm Ep)(pm Ep)^T = Epp^T E^T = -Epp^TE,.$$
          Because subspace and orthogonal complement exhaust the whole vector space, the projections sum up to the identity:
          $$-Epp^TE,+,p p^T;=;I$$
          This equality is equivalent to ${p,pm Ep}subsetmathbb R^2$ being an orthonormal basis.






          share|cite|improve this answer




























            up vote
            1
            down vote













            Objective : prove that $$(I - pp^T) = (-E pp^TE) (*)$$



            Preliminary settings :



            Let $q$ be the unit vector such that $(p,q)$ is a directly oriented base of the plane. Thus we have in particular $p^Tq=0$.



            $E$ is clearly the $-dfrac{pi}{2}$ rotation matrix, with the important property that $-E = E^{-1}.$



            enter image description here



            I propose 2 proofs :



            1) An algebraic proof :



            As $(p,q)$ is a basis, it suffices to prove that the action of the LHS operator and of the RHS operator of (*) on $p$ and on $q$ are the same, i.e., establish that :



            $$(a) (I - pp^T)p = (-E pp^TE)p text{and} (b) (I - pp^T)q = (-E pp^TE)q$$



            which amounts to prove that :



            $$(a) p - p(p^Tp) = -E pp^T(Ep) text{and} (b) q - p(p^Tq) = E^{-1} pp^T(Eq)$$



            or, equivalently :



            $$(a) p - p(1) = -E pp^T(-q) text{and} (b) q - p(0) = E^{-1} pp^T(p)$$



            both (a) and (b) are true because the first one is $0=0$ and the second one is $q=q$.



            2) A geometrical proof :



            Let us give a geometrical meaning to the "characters" that appear on the scene of (*) :





            • $P_p := (p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}p$ (proof : $(p p^T)p=p$ whereas $(p p^T)q=0).$


            • $P_q :=(I - p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}q$ (same kind of proof as before).


            Thus (*) can be interpreted, in terms of transformations, as :



            $$P_q = E^{-1} circ P_p circ E,$$



            otherwise said, "projection on $qmathbb{R}$" is the conjugate operation of "projection on $pmathbb{R}$" up to a $-pi/2$ rotation, which is a geometrical evidence.






            share|cite|improve this answer























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              2 Answers
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              active

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              2 Answers
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              active

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              up vote
              1
              down vote



              accepted










              The given unit vector $,p,$ spans a $1$-dimensional subspace,
              and $:pp^T=p,langle, pmidcdot,rangle,$ is the associated orthogonal projector onto that subspace.

              The orthogonal complement is also $1$-dimensional as we are considering
              $mathbb R^2$, and it is (spanned by) "everything perpendicular to $p$", e.g. the unit vector $,Ep,$ or $,-Ep$, the sign doesn't matter. The corresponding orthogonal projection is
              $$(pm Ep)(pm Ep)^T = Epp^T E^T = -Epp^TE,.$$
              Because subspace and orthogonal complement exhaust the whole vector space, the projections sum up to the identity:
              $$-Epp^TE,+,p p^T;=;I$$
              This equality is equivalent to ${p,pm Ep}subsetmathbb R^2$ being an orthonormal basis.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted










                The given unit vector $,p,$ spans a $1$-dimensional subspace,
                and $:pp^T=p,langle, pmidcdot,rangle,$ is the associated orthogonal projector onto that subspace.

                The orthogonal complement is also $1$-dimensional as we are considering
                $mathbb R^2$, and it is (spanned by) "everything perpendicular to $p$", e.g. the unit vector $,Ep,$ or $,-Ep$, the sign doesn't matter. The corresponding orthogonal projection is
                $$(pm Ep)(pm Ep)^T = Epp^T E^T = -Epp^TE,.$$
                Because subspace and orthogonal complement exhaust the whole vector space, the projections sum up to the identity:
                $$-Epp^TE,+,p p^T;=;I$$
                This equality is equivalent to ${p,pm Ep}subsetmathbb R^2$ being an orthonormal basis.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote



                  accepted







                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote



                  accepted






                  The given unit vector $,p,$ spans a $1$-dimensional subspace,
                  and $:pp^T=p,langle, pmidcdot,rangle,$ is the associated orthogonal projector onto that subspace.

                  The orthogonal complement is also $1$-dimensional as we are considering
                  $mathbb R^2$, and it is (spanned by) "everything perpendicular to $p$", e.g. the unit vector $,Ep,$ or $,-Ep$, the sign doesn't matter. The corresponding orthogonal projection is
                  $$(pm Ep)(pm Ep)^T = Epp^T E^T = -Epp^TE,.$$
                  Because subspace and orthogonal complement exhaust the whole vector space, the projections sum up to the identity:
                  $$-Epp^TE,+,p p^T;=;I$$
                  This equality is equivalent to ${p,pm Ep}subsetmathbb R^2$ being an orthonormal basis.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  The given unit vector $,p,$ spans a $1$-dimensional subspace,
                  and $:pp^T=p,langle, pmidcdot,rangle,$ is the associated orthogonal projector onto that subspace.

                  The orthogonal complement is also $1$-dimensional as we are considering
                  $mathbb R^2$, and it is (spanned by) "everything perpendicular to $p$", e.g. the unit vector $,Ep,$ or $,-Ep$, the sign doesn't matter. The corresponding orthogonal projection is
                  $$(pm Ep)(pm Ep)^T = Epp^T E^T = -Epp^TE,.$$
                  Because subspace and orthogonal complement exhaust the whole vector space, the projections sum up to the identity:
                  $$-Epp^TE,+,p p^T;=;I$$
                  This equality is equivalent to ${p,pm Ep}subsetmathbb R^2$ being an orthonormal basis.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 22 at 22:38









                  Hanno

                  1,925424




                  1,925424






















                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote













                      Objective : prove that $$(I - pp^T) = (-E pp^TE) (*)$$



                      Preliminary settings :



                      Let $q$ be the unit vector such that $(p,q)$ is a directly oriented base of the plane. Thus we have in particular $p^Tq=0$.



                      $E$ is clearly the $-dfrac{pi}{2}$ rotation matrix, with the important property that $-E = E^{-1}.$



                      enter image description here



                      I propose 2 proofs :



                      1) An algebraic proof :



                      As $(p,q)$ is a basis, it suffices to prove that the action of the LHS operator and of the RHS operator of (*) on $p$ and on $q$ are the same, i.e., establish that :



                      $$(a) (I - pp^T)p = (-E pp^TE)p text{and} (b) (I - pp^T)q = (-E pp^TE)q$$



                      which amounts to prove that :



                      $$(a) p - p(p^Tp) = -E pp^T(Ep) text{and} (b) q - p(p^Tq) = E^{-1} pp^T(Eq)$$



                      or, equivalently :



                      $$(a) p - p(1) = -E pp^T(-q) text{and} (b) q - p(0) = E^{-1} pp^T(p)$$



                      both (a) and (b) are true because the first one is $0=0$ and the second one is $q=q$.



                      2) A geometrical proof :



                      Let us give a geometrical meaning to the "characters" that appear on the scene of (*) :





                      • $P_p := (p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}p$ (proof : $(p p^T)p=p$ whereas $(p p^T)q=0).$


                      • $P_q :=(I - p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}q$ (same kind of proof as before).


                      Thus (*) can be interpreted, in terms of transformations, as :



                      $$P_q = E^{-1} circ P_p circ E,$$



                      otherwise said, "projection on $qmathbb{R}$" is the conjugate operation of "projection on $pmathbb{R}$" up to a $-pi/2$ rotation, which is a geometrical evidence.






                      share|cite|improve this answer



























                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        Objective : prove that $$(I - pp^T) = (-E pp^TE) (*)$$



                        Preliminary settings :



                        Let $q$ be the unit vector such that $(p,q)$ is a directly oriented base of the plane. Thus we have in particular $p^Tq=0$.



                        $E$ is clearly the $-dfrac{pi}{2}$ rotation matrix, with the important property that $-E = E^{-1}.$



                        enter image description here



                        I propose 2 proofs :



                        1) An algebraic proof :



                        As $(p,q)$ is a basis, it suffices to prove that the action of the LHS operator and of the RHS operator of (*) on $p$ and on $q$ are the same, i.e., establish that :



                        $$(a) (I - pp^T)p = (-E pp^TE)p text{and} (b) (I - pp^T)q = (-E pp^TE)q$$



                        which amounts to prove that :



                        $$(a) p - p(p^Tp) = -E pp^T(Ep) text{and} (b) q - p(p^Tq) = E^{-1} pp^T(Eq)$$



                        or, equivalently :



                        $$(a) p - p(1) = -E pp^T(-q) text{and} (b) q - p(0) = E^{-1} pp^T(p)$$



                        both (a) and (b) are true because the first one is $0=0$ and the second one is $q=q$.



                        2) A geometrical proof :



                        Let us give a geometrical meaning to the "characters" that appear on the scene of (*) :





                        • $P_p := (p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}p$ (proof : $(p p^T)p=p$ whereas $(p p^T)q=0).$


                        • $P_q :=(I - p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}q$ (same kind of proof as before).


                        Thus (*) can be interpreted, in terms of transformations, as :



                        $$P_q = E^{-1} circ P_p circ E,$$



                        otherwise said, "projection on $qmathbb{R}$" is the conjugate operation of "projection on $pmathbb{R}$" up to a $-pi/2$ rotation, which is a geometrical evidence.






                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote









                          Objective : prove that $$(I - pp^T) = (-E pp^TE) (*)$$



                          Preliminary settings :



                          Let $q$ be the unit vector such that $(p,q)$ is a directly oriented base of the plane. Thus we have in particular $p^Tq=0$.



                          $E$ is clearly the $-dfrac{pi}{2}$ rotation matrix, with the important property that $-E = E^{-1}.$



                          enter image description here



                          I propose 2 proofs :



                          1) An algebraic proof :



                          As $(p,q)$ is a basis, it suffices to prove that the action of the LHS operator and of the RHS operator of (*) on $p$ and on $q$ are the same, i.e., establish that :



                          $$(a) (I - pp^T)p = (-E pp^TE)p text{and} (b) (I - pp^T)q = (-E pp^TE)q$$



                          which amounts to prove that :



                          $$(a) p - p(p^Tp) = -E pp^T(Ep) text{and} (b) q - p(p^Tq) = E^{-1} pp^T(Eq)$$



                          or, equivalently :



                          $$(a) p - p(1) = -E pp^T(-q) text{and} (b) q - p(0) = E^{-1} pp^T(p)$$



                          both (a) and (b) are true because the first one is $0=0$ and the second one is $q=q$.



                          2) A geometrical proof :



                          Let us give a geometrical meaning to the "characters" that appear on the scene of (*) :





                          • $P_p := (p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}p$ (proof : $(p p^T)p=p$ whereas $(p p^T)q=0).$


                          • $P_q :=(I - p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}q$ (same kind of proof as before).


                          Thus (*) can be interpreted, in terms of transformations, as :



                          $$P_q = E^{-1} circ P_p circ E,$$



                          otherwise said, "projection on $qmathbb{R}$" is the conjugate operation of "projection on $pmathbb{R}$" up to a $-pi/2$ rotation, which is a geometrical evidence.






                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          Objective : prove that $$(I - pp^T) = (-E pp^TE) (*)$$



                          Preliminary settings :



                          Let $q$ be the unit vector such that $(p,q)$ is a directly oriented base of the plane. Thus we have in particular $p^Tq=0$.



                          $E$ is clearly the $-dfrac{pi}{2}$ rotation matrix, with the important property that $-E = E^{-1}.$



                          enter image description here



                          I propose 2 proofs :



                          1) An algebraic proof :



                          As $(p,q)$ is a basis, it suffices to prove that the action of the LHS operator and of the RHS operator of (*) on $p$ and on $q$ are the same, i.e., establish that :



                          $$(a) (I - pp^T)p = (-E pp^TE)p text{and} (b) (I - pp^T)q = (-E pp^TE)q$$



                          which amounts to prove that :



                          $$(a) p - p(p^Tp) = -E pp^T(Ep) text{and} (b) q - p(p^Tq) = E^{-1} pp^T(Eq)$$



                          or, equivalently :



                          $$(a) p - p(1) = -E pp^T(-q) text{and} (b) q - p(0) = E^{-1} pp^T(p)$$



                          both (a) and (b) are true because the first one is $0=0$ and the second one is $q=q$.



                          2) A geometrical proof :



                          Let us give a geometrical meaning to the "characters" that appear on the scene of (*) :





                          • $P_p := (p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}p$ (proof : $(p p^T)p=p$ whereas $(p p^T)q=0).$


                          • $P_q :=(I - p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}q$ (same kind of proof as before).


                          Thus (*) can be interpreted, in terms of transformations, as :



                          $$P_q = E^{-1} circ P_p circ E,$$



                          otherwise said, "projection on $qmathbb{R}$" is the conjugate operation of "projection on $pmathbb{R}$" up to a $-pi/2$ rotation, which is a geometrical evidence.







                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer








                          edited Nov 23 at 1:14

























                          answered Nov 22 at 18:58









                          Jean Marie

                          28.6k41849




                          28.6k41849






























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