How to get from $I-p p^T$ to $-E p p^T E$?
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1
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$p in mathbb{R}^2$ is a unit-length column vector. $E=begin{bmatrix}0 & 1 \ -1 & 0end{bmatrix}$ is the "$-frac{pi}{2}$" rotation matrix. So
how to prove that
begin{equation}
I-p p^T = -E p p^T E ;?
end{equation}
Of course you can let $p=[x,y]^T$ and prove this. But that is not the answer I want. I want to know how one can do some calculations and get $-E p p^T E$ just starting from $I-p p^T$?
linear-algebra matrices rotations projection-matrices
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
$p in mathbb{R}^2$ is a unit-length column vector. $E=begin{bmatrix}0 & 1 \ -1 & 0end{bmatrix}$ is the "$-frac{pi}{2}$" rotation matrix. So
how to prove that
begin{equation}
I-p p^T = -E p p^T E ;?
end{equation}
Of course you can let $p=[x,y]^T$ and prove this. But that is not the answer I want. I want to know how one can do some calculations and get $-E p p^T E$ just starting from $I-p p^T$?
linear-algebra matrices rotations projection-matrices
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
$p in mathbb{R}^2$ is a unit-length column vector. $E=begin{bmatrix}0 & 1 \ -1 & 0end{bmatrix}$ is the "$-frac{pi}{2}$" rotation matrix. So
how to prove that
begin{equation}
I-p p^T = -E p p^T E ;?
end{equation}
Of course you can let $p=[x,y]^T$ and prove this. But that is not the answer I want. I want to know how one can do some calculations and get $-E p p^T E$ just starting from $I-p p^T$?
linear-algebra matrices rotations projection-matrices
$p in mathbb{R}^2$ is a unit-length column vector. $E=begin{bmatrix}0 & 1 \ -1 & 0end{bmatrix}$ is the "$-frac{pi}{2}$" rotation matrix. So
how to prove that
begin{equation}
I-p p^T = -E p p^T E ;?
end{equation}
Of course you can let $p=[x,y]^T$ and prove this. But that is not the answer I want. I want to know how one can do some calculations and get $-E p p^T E$ just starting from $I-p p^T$?
linear-algebra matrices rotations projection-matrices
linear-algebra matrices rotations projection-matrices
edited Nov 22 at 21:46
Hanno
1,925424
1,925424
asked Nov 22 at 18:17
winston
481218
481218
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add a comment |
2 Answers
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oldest
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up vote
1
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accepted
The given unit vector $,p,$ spans a $1$-dimensional subspace,
and $:pp^T=p,langle, pmidcdot,rangle,$ is the associated orthogonal projector onto that subspace.
The orthogonal complement is also $1$-dimensional as we are considering
$mathbb R^2$, and it is (spanned by) "everything perpendicular to $p$", e.g. the unit vector $,Ep,$ or $,-Ep$, the sign doesn't matter. The corresponding orthogonal projection is
$$(pm Ep)(pm Ep)^T = Epp^T E^T = -Epp^TE,.$$
Because subspace and orthogonal complement exhaust the whole vector space, the projections sum up to the identity:
$$-Epp^TE,+,p p^T;=;I$$
This equality is equivalent to ${p,pm Ep}subsetmathbb R^2$ being an orthonormal basis.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Objective : prove that $$(I - pp^T) = (-E pp^TE) (*)$$
Preliminary settings :
Let $q$ be the unit vector such that $(p,q)$ is a directly oriented base of the plane. Thus we have in particular $p^Tq=0$.
$E$ is clearly the $-dfrac{pi}{2}$ rotation matrix, with the important property that $-E = E^{-1}.$
I propose 2 proofs :
1) An algebraic proof :
As $(p,q)$ is a basis, it suffices to prove that the action of the LHS operator and of the RHS operator of (*) on $p$ and on $q$ are the same, i.e., establish that :
$$(a) (I - pp^T)p = (-E pp^TE)p text{and} (b) (I - pp^T)q = (-E pp^TE)q$$
which amounts to prove that :
$$(a) p - p(p^Tp) = -E pp^T(Ep) text{and} (b) q - p(p^Tq) = E^{-1} pp^T(Eq)$$
or, equivalently :
$$(a) p - p(1) = -E pp^T(-q) text{and} (b) q - p(0) = E^{-1} pp^T(p)$$
both (a) and (b) are true because the first one is $0=0$ and the second one is $q=q$.
2) A geometrical proof :
Let us give a geometrical meaning to the "characters" that appear on the scene of (*) :
$P_p := (p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}p$ (proof : $(p p^T)p=p$ whereas $(p p^T)q=0).$
$P_q :=(I - p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}q$ (same kind of proof as before).
Thus (*) can be interpreted, in terms of transformations, as :
$$P_q = E^{-1} circ P_p circ E,$$
otherwise said, "projection on $qmathbb{R}$" is the conjugate operation of "projection on $pmathbb{R}$" up to a $-pi/2$ rotation, which is a geometrical evidence.
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
The given unit vector $,p,$ spans a $1$-dimensional subspace,
and $:pp^T=p,langle, pmidcdot,rangle,$ is the associated orthogonal projector onto that subspace.
The orthogonal complement is also $1$-dimensional as we are considering
$mathbb R^2$, and it is (spanned by) "everything perpendicular to $p$", e.g. the unit vector $,Ep,$ or $,-Ep$, the sign doesn't matter. The corresponding orthogonal projection is
$$(pm Ep)(pm Ep)^T = Epp^T E^T = -Epp^TE,.$$
Because subspace and orthogonal complement exhaust the whole vector space, the projections sum up to the identity:
$$-Epp^TE,+,p p^T;=;I$$
This equality is equivalent to ${p,pm Ep}subsetmathbb R^2$ being an orthonormal basis.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
The given unit vector $,p,$ spans a $1$-dimensional subspace,
and $:pp^T=p,langle, pmidcdot,rangle,$ is the associated orthogonal projector onto that subspace.
The orthogonal complement is also $1$-dimensional as we are considering
$mathbb R^2$, and it is (spanned by) "everything perpendicular to $p$", e.g. the unit vector $,Ep,$ or $,-Ep$, the sign doesn't matter. The corresponding orthogonal projection is
$$(pm Ep)(pm Ep)^T = Epp^T E^T = -Epp^TE,.$$
Because subspace and orthogonal complement exhaust the whole vector space, the projections sum up to the identity:
$$-Epp^TE,+,p p^T;=;I$$
This equality is equivalent to ${p,pm Ep}subsetmathbb R^2$ being an orthonormal basis.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
The given unit vector $,p,$ spans a $1$-dimensional subspace,
and $:pp^T=p,langle, pmidcdot,rangle,$ is the associated orthogonal projector onto that subspace.
The orthogonal complement is also $1$-dimensional as we are considering
$mathbb R^2$, and it is (spanned by) "everything perpendicular to $p$", e.g. the unit vector $,Ep,$ or $,-Ep$, the sign doesn't matter. The corresponding orthogonal projection is
$$(pm Ep)(pm Ep)^T = Epp^T E^T = -Epp^TE,.$$
Because subspace and orthogonal complement exhaust the whole vector space, the projections sum up to the identity:
$$-Epp^TE,+,p p^T;=;I$$
This equality is equivalent to ${p,pm Ep}subsetmathbb R^2$ being an orthonormal basis.
The given unit vector $,p,$ spans a $1$-dimensional subspace,
and $:pp^T=p,langle, pmidcdot,rangle,$ is the associated orthogonal projector onto that subspace.
The orthogonal complement is also $1$-dimensional as we are considering
$mathbb R^2$, and it is (spanned by) "everything perpendicular to $p$", e.g. the unit vector $,Ep,$ or $,-Ep$, the sign doesn't matter. The corresponding orthogonal projection is
$$(pm Ep)(pm Ep)^T = Epp^T E^T = -Epp^TE,.$$
Because subspace and orthogonal complement exhaust the whole vector space, the projections sum up to the identity:
$$-Epp^TE,+,p p^T;=;I$$
This equality is equivalent to ${p,pm Ep}subsetmathbb R^2$ being an orthonormal basis.
answered Nov 22 at 22:38
Hanno
1,925424
1,925424
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Objective : prove that $$(I - pp^T) = (-E pp^TE) (*)$$
Preliminary settings :
Let $q$ be the unit vector such that $(p,q)$ is a directly oriented base of the plane. Thus we have in particular $p^Tq=0$.
$E$ is clearly the $-dfrac{pi}{2}$ rotation matrix, with the important property that $-E = E^{-1}.$
I propose 2 proofs :
1) An algebraic proof :
As $(p,q)$ is a basis, it suffices to prove that the action of the LHS operator and of the RHS operator of (*) on $p$ and on $q$ are the same, i.e., establish that :
$$(a) (I - pp^T)p = (-E pp^TE)p text{and} (b) (I - pp^T)q = (-E pp^TE)q$$
which amounts to prove that :
$$(a) p - p(p^Tp) = -E pp^T(Ep) text{and} (b) q - p(p^Tq) = E^{-1} pp^T(Eq)$$
or, equivalently :
$$(a) p - p(1) = -E pp^T(-q) text{and} (b) q - p(0) = E^{-1} pp^T(p)$$
both (a) and (b) are true because the first one is $0=0$ and the second one is $q=q$.
2) A geometrical proof :
Let us give a geometrical meaning to the "characters" that appear on the scene of (*) :
$P_p := (p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}p$ (proof : $(p p^T)p=p$ whereas $(p p^T)q=0).$
$P_q :=(I - p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}q$ (same kind of proof as before).
Thus (*) can be interpreted, in terms of transformations, as :
$$P_q = E^{-1} circ P_p circ E,$$
otherwise said, "projection on $qmathbb{R}$" is the conjugate operation of "projection on $pmathbb{R}$" up to a $-pi/2$ rotation, which is a geometrical evidence.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Objective : prove that $$(I - pp^T) = (-E pp^TE) (*)$$
Preliminary settings :
Let $q$ be the unit vector such that $(p,q)$ is a directly oriented base of the plane. Thus we have in particular $p^Tq=0$.
$E$ is clearly the $-dfrac{pi}{2}$ rotation matrix, with the important property that $-E = E^{-1}.$
I propose 2 proofs :
1) An algebraic proof :
As $(p,q)$ is a basis, it suffices to prove that the action of the LHS operator and of the RHS operator of (*) on $p$ and on $q$ are the same, i.e., establish that :
$$(a) (I - pp^T)p = (-E pp^TE)p text{and} (b) (I - pp^T)q = (-E pp^TE)q$$
which amounts to prove that :
$$(a) p - p(p^Tp) = -E pp^T(Ep) text{and} (b) q - p(p^Tq) = E^{-1} pp^T(Eq)$$
or, equivalently :
$$(a) p - p(1) = -E pp^T(-q) text{and} (b) q - p(0) = E^{-1} pp^T(p)$$
both (a) and (b) are true because the first one is $0=0$ and the second one is $q=q$.
2) A geometrical proof :
Let us give a geometrical meaning to the "characters" that appear on the scene of (*) :
$P_p := (p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}p$ (proof : $(p p^T)p=p$ whereas $(p p^T)q=0).$
$P_q :=(I - p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}q$ (same kind of proof as before).
Thus (*) can be interpreted, in terms of transformations, as :
$$P_q = E^{-1} circ P_p circ E,$$
otherwise said, "projection on $qmathbb{R}$" is the conjugate operation of "projection on $pmathbb{R}$" up to a $-pi/2$ rotation, which is a geometrical evidence.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Objective : prove that $$(I - pp^T) = (-E pp^TE) (*)$$
Preliminary settings :
Let $q$ be the unit vector such that $(p,q)$ is a directly oriented base of the plane. Thus we have in particular $p^Tq=0$.
$E$ is clearly the $-dfrac{pi}{2}$ rotation matrix, with the important property that $-E = E^{-1}.$
I propose 2 proofs :
1) An algebraic proof :
As $(p,q)$ is a basis, it suffices to prove that the action of the LHS operator and of the RHS operator of (*) on $p$ and on $q$ are the same, i.e., establish that :
$$(a) (I - pp^T)p = (-E pp^TE)p text{and} (b) (I - pp^T)q = (-E pp^TE)q$$
which amounts to prove that :
$$(a) p - p(p^Tp) = -E pp^T(Ep) text{and} (b) q - p(p^Tq) = E^{-1} pp^T(Eq)$$
or, equivalently :
$$(a) p - p(1) = -E pp^T(-q) text{and} (b) q - p(0) = E^{-1} pp^T(p)$$
both (a) and (b) are true because the first one is $0=0$ and the second one is $q=q$.
2) A geometrical proof :
Let us give a geometrical meaning to the "characters" that appear on the scene of (*) :
$P_p := (p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}p$ (proof : $(p p^T)p=p$ whereas $(p p^T)q=0).$
$P_q :=(I - p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}q$ (same kind of proof as before).
Thus (*) can be interpreted, in terms of transformations, as :
$$P_q = E^{-1} circ P_p circ E,$$
otherwise said, "projection on $qmathbb{R}$" is the conjugate operation of "projection on $pmathbb{R}$" up to a $-pi/2$ rotation, which is a geometrical evidence.
Objective : prove that $$(I - pp^T) = (-E pp^TE) (*)$$
Preliminary settings :
Let $q$ be the unit vector such that $(p,q)$ is a directly oriented base of the plane. Thus we have in particular $p^Tq=0$.
$E$ is clearly the $-dfrac{pi}{2}$ rotation matrix, with the important property that $-E = E^{-1}.$
I propose 2 proofs :
1) An algebraic proof :
As $(p,q)$ is a basis, it suffices to prove that the action of the LHS operator and of the RHS operator of (*) on $p$ and on $q$ are the same, i.e., establish that :
$$(a) (I - pp^T)p = (-E pp^TE)p text{and} (b) (I - pp^T)q = (-E pp^TE)q$$
which amounts to prove that :
$$(a) p - p(p^Tp) = -E pp^T(Ep) text{and} (b) q - p(p^Tq) = E^{-1} pp^T(Eq)$$
or, equivalently :
$$(a) p - p(1) = -E pp^T(-q) text{and} (b) q - p(0) = E^{-1} pp^T(p)$$
both (a) and (b) are true because the first one is $0=0$ and the second one is $q=q$.
2) A geometrical proof :
Let us give a geometrical meaning to the "characters" that appear on the scene of (*) :
$P_p := (p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}p$ (proof : $(p p^T)p=p$ whereas $(p p^T)q=0).$
$P_q :=(I - p p^T)$ is the projection matrix onto subspace $mathbb{R}q$ (same kind of proof as before).
Thus (*) can be interpreted, in terms of transformations, as :
$$P_q = E^{-1} circ P_p circ E,$$
otherwise said, "projection on $qmathbb{R}$" is the conjugate operation of "projection on $pmathbb{R}$" up to a $-pi/2$ rotation, which is a geometrical evidence.
edited Nov 23 at 1:14
answered Nov 22 at 18:58
Jean Marie
28.6k41849
28.6k41849
add a comment |
add a comment |
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