Is $(f_n)$ pointwise convergent?











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Let $f_n(x)$, for all n>=1, be a sequence of non-negative continuous functions on [0,1] such that



$$lim_{n→infty}int^1_0 f_n (x)dx=0$$



Which of the following is always correct ?



A. $f_n→0$ uniformly on $[0,1]$



B. $f_n$ may not converge uniformly but converges to $0$ pointwise



C. $f_n$ will converge point-wise and limit may be non zero



D. $f_n$ is not guaranteed to have pointwise limit.



I can find example where all four statements are true but can't find any counterexample.



Option A is certainly false. Consider a function (geometrically) a isosceles triangle whose one vertex is on $0$, other on $2/n$. And height $1$ unit. Its area is $2/n →0$ . But $f$ is not uniformly continuous



For others, i am completely stuck. I need ideas to solve this question rather than solution.please help!.










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  • It's better to to tell how to tackle this kind of question rather than some abstract counter example, thanks
    – Cloud JR
    Nov 22 at 18:19






  • 1




    Think of placing the peak of your isosceles triangle alternating between two (or maybe infinitely many) pre-determined points.
    – Daniel
    Nov 22 at 18:19










  • @Daniel, thatnks , it help a lot... Consider adding your comment as answer coz it is really helpful for others too
    – Cloud JR
    Nov 22 at 18:30










  • If you can find examples to all 4, then the answer must be...
    – Will M.
    Nov 22 at 20:12










  • @will M option 4.
    – Cloud JR
    Nov 23 at 4:13















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Let $f_n(x)$, for all n>=1, be a sequence of non-negative continuous functions on [0,1] such that



$$lim_{n→infty}int^1_0 f_n (x)dx=0$$



Which of the following is always correct ?



A. $f_n→0$ uniformly on $[0,1]$



B. $f_n$ may not converge uniformly but converges to $0$ pointwise



C. $f_n$ will converge point-wise and limit may be non zero



D. $f_n$ is not guaranteed to have pointwise limit.



I can find example where all four statements are true but can't find any counterexample.



Option A is certainly false. Consider a function (geometrically) a isosceles triangle whose one vertex is on $0$, other on $2/n$. And height $1$ unit. Its area is $2/n →0$ . But $f$ is not uniformly continuous



For others, i am completely stuck. I need ideas to solve this question rather than solution.please help!.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • It's better to to tell how to tackle this kind of question rather than some abstract counter example, thanks
    – Cloud JR
    Nov 22 at 18:19






  • 1




    Think of placing the peak of your isosceles triangle alternating between two (or maybe infinitely many) pre-determined points.
    – Daniel
    Nov 22 at 18:19










  • @Daniel, thatnks , it help a lot... Consider adding your comment as answer coz it is really helpful for others too
    – Cloud JR
    Nov 22 at 18:30










  • If you can find examples to all 4, then the answer must be...
    – Will M.
    Nov 22 at 20:12










  • @will M option 4.
    – Cloud JR
    Nov 23 at 4:13













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Let $f_n(x)$, for all n>=1, be a sequence of non-negative continuous functions on [0,1] such that



$$lim_{n→infty}int^1_0 f_n (x)dx=0$$



Which of the following is always correct ?



A. $f_n→0$ uniformly on $[0,1]$



B. $f_n$ may not converge uniformly but converges to $0$ pointwise



C. $f_n$ will converge point-wise and limit may be non zero



D. $f_n$ is not guaranteed to have pointwise limit.



I can find example where all four statements are true but can't find any counterexample.



Option A is certainly false. Consider a function (geometrically) a isosceles triangle whose one vertex is on $0$, other on $2/n$. And height $1$ unit. Its area is $2/n →0$ . But $f$ is not uniformly continuous



For others, i am completely stuck. I need ideas to solve this question rather than solution.please help!.










share|cite|improve this question















Let $f_n(x)$, for all n>=1, be a sequence of non-negative continuous functions on [0,1] such that



$$lim_{n→infty}int^1_0 f_n (x)dx=0$$



Which of the following is always correct ?



A. $f_n→0$ uniformly on $[0,1]$



B. $f_n$ may not converge uniformly but converges to $0$ pointwise



C. $f_n$ will converge point-wise and limit may be non zero



D. $f_n$ is not guaranteed to have pointwise limit.



I can find example where all four statements are true but can't find any counterexample.



Option A is certainly false. Consider a function (geometrically) a isosceles triangle whose one vertex is on $0$, other on $2/n$. And height $1$ unit. Its area is $2/n →0$ . But $f$ is not uniformly continuous



For others, i am completely stuck. I need ideas to solve this question rather than solution.please help!.







real-analysis sequences-and-series sequence-of-function






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edited Nov 22 at 20:03









Bernard

117k637109




117k637109










asked Nov 22 at 18:10









Cloud JR

806417




806417












  • It's better to to tell how to tackle this kind of question rather than some abstract counter example, thanks
    – Cloud JR
    Nov 22 at 18:19






  • 1




    Think of placing the peak of your isosceles triangle alternating between two (or maybe infinitely many) pre-determined points.
    – Daniel
    Nov 22 at 18:19










  • @Daniel, thatnks , it help a lot... Consider adding your comment as answer coz it is really helpful for others too
    – Cloud JR
    Nov 22 at 18:30










  • If you can find examples to all 4, then the answer must be...
    – Will M.
    Nov 22 at 20:12










  • @will M option 4.
    – Cloud JR
    Nov 23 at 4:13


















  • It's better to to tell how to tackle this kind of question rather than some abstract counter example, thanks
    – Cloud JR
    Nov 22 at 18:19






  • 1




    Think of placing the peak of your isosceles triangle alternating between two (or maybe infinitely many) pre-determined points.
    – Daniel
    Nov 22 at 18:19










  • @Daniel, thatnks , it help a lot... Consider adding your comment as answer coz it is really helpful for others too
    – Cloud JR
    Nov 22 at 18:30










  • If you can find examples to all 4, then the answer must be...
    – Will M.
    Nov 22 at 20:12










  • @will M option 4.
    – Cloud JR
    Nov 23 at 4:13
















It's better to to tell how to tackle this kind of question rather than some abstract counter example, thanks
– Cloud JR
Nov 22 at 18:19




It's better to to tell how to tackle this kind of question rather than some abstract counter example, thanks
– Cloud JR
Nov 22 at 18:19




1




1




Think of placing the peak of your isosceles triangle alternating between two (or maybe infinitely many) pre-determined points.
– Daniel
Nov 22 at 18:19




Think of placing the peak of your isosceles triangle alternating between two (or maybe infinitely many) pre-determined points.
– Daniel
Nov 22 at 18:19












@Daniel, thatnks , it help a lot... Consider adding your comment as answer coz it is really helpful for others too
– Cloud JR
Nov 22 at 18:30




@Daniel, thatnks , it help a lot... Consider adding your comment as answer coz it is really helpful for others too
– Cloud JR
Nov 22 at 18:30












If you can find examples to all 4, then the answer must be...
– Will M.
Nov 22 at 20:12




If you can find examples to all 4, then the answer must be...
– Will M.
Nov 22 at 20:12












@will M option 4.
– Cloud JR
Nov 23 at 4:13




@will M option 4.
– Cloud JR
Nov 23 at 4:13










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Expanding on the comment I made.



Hint: Think of placing the peak of your isosceles triangle alternating between two (or maybe infinitely many) pre-determined points.



Solution: A more elaborate construction of isosceles triangles suffice to build a sequence of $f_n$ that does not converge. Each $f_n$ can be for instance: non-zero only on an interval $I_n = (a_n - delta_n, a_n + delta_n)$, piecewise linear, with $f_n(x)$ being $0$ on the extremes of the interval and $f_n(a_n) = 1$. Notice that we have freedom to choose $a_n$ and $delta_n$. Since $int f_n = delta_n$, we just need to ask $delta_n to 0$ for the limit above to hold.



The main point to force that $f_n$ do not converge pointwise is the choice of $a_n$. If for instance $a_{2n} = frac13$ and $a_{2n+1} = frac23$, then $f_n(frac13)$ and $f_n(frac23)$ will oscilate between $0$ and $1$ infinitely many times, while for all other $x$ we have $f_n(x) = 0$.



To Think: If you want to build a sequence of functions with infinitely many points that do not converge, you can try a different choice of $a_n$. For instance, let $q_i$ be an enumeration of $mathbb{Q} cap (0, 1)$ and $p_i$ be the $i$-th prime number. Then, we can try defining $a_n = q_i$ iff $p_i$ is the smallest prime that divides $n$.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    A. You could also consider $f_n(x) = x^n.$



    B. Let $f_n$ be the line-segment graph connecting the points $(0,1), (1/n,0), (1,0).$ This sequence does not converge to $0$ at $x=0.$



    C. Let $f_n$ be as in B. Then consider the sequence $f_1,0,f_2,0,f_3,0,dots.$ At $x=0,$ this sequence is $1,0,1,0,dots.$



    D. See C.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • Sorry , but what does $chi$ mean
      – Cloud JR
      Nov 22 at 18:23










    • $chi_E$ is the function that is $1$ on $E$ and $0$ everywhere else.
      – zhw.
      Nov 22 at 18:26












    • Consider $chi [0,1/2] $ . Is this continous?
      – Cloud JR
      Nov 22 at 18:28










    • It is discontinous at 1/2
      – Cloud JR
      Nov 22 at 18:29










    • Oops I completely missed continuous.
      – zhw.
      Nov 22 at 18:42


















    up vote
    1
    down vote














    I can find example where all four statements are true ...




    All four?



    It seems that the statements are worded in a way that (independent of the rest of the question) exactly one of the four statements must be true.




    ... but can't find any counterexample.




    I even found an example for $f_n$ that does not converge in any point $x$:



    Let $f^*_{c,w}(x)$ with $xin [-10,10]$ be defined as the function with the graph connecting the points:



    $(-10,0)$, $((frac c{2w}-frac 1w),0)$, $((frac c{2w}),1)$, $((frac c{2w}+frac 1w),0)$, $(10,0)$.



    Use $f_{c,w}(x)=f^*_{c,w}(x)$ for $xin[0,1]$.



    Now use the following sequence:



    $f_{0,1}$, $f_{1,1}$, $f_{2,1}$,
    $f_{0,2}$, $f_{1,2}$, $f_{2,2}$, $f_{3,2}$, $f_{4,2}$,
    $f_{0,4}$, $f_{1,4}$, ..., $f_{8,4}$,
    $f_{0,8}$, $f_{2,8}$, ..., $f_{16,8}$,

    ...
    $f_{0,(2^k)}$, $f_{1,(2^k)}$, ..., $f_{(2^{k+1}-1),(2^k)}$, $f_{(2^{k+1}),(2^k)}$,

    ...



    If I'm correct this example can be modified by using $f_{c,w}(x)=sqrt wf^*_{c,w}(x)$. The resulting sequence should meet the conditions and for every value of $xin[0,1]$ the sequence $f_1(x)$, $f_2(x)$, $f_3(x)$ ... should even be unbounded!



    (However maybe I made a mistake here.)






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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted










      Expanding on the comment I made.



      Hint: Think of placing the peak of your isosceles triangle alternating between two (or maybe infinitely many) pre-determined points.



      Solution: A more elaborate construction of isosceles triangles suffice to build a sequence of $f_n$ that does not converge. Each $f_n$ can be for instance: non-zero only on an interval $I_n = (a_n - delta_n, a_n + delta_n)$, piecewise linear, with $f_n(x)$ being $0$ on the extremes of the interval and $f_n(a_n) = 1$. Notice that we have freedom to choose $a_n$ and $delta_n$. Since $int f_n = delta_n$, we just need to ask $delta_n to 0$ for the limit above to hold.



      The main point to force that $f_n$ do not converge pointwise is the choice of $a_n$. If for instance $a_{2n} = frac13$ and $a_{2n+1} = frac23$, then $f_n(frac13)$ and $f_n(frac23)$ will oscilate between $0$ and $1$ infinitely many times, while for all other $x$ we have $f_n(x) = 0$.



      To Think: If you want to build a sequence of functions with infinitely many points that do not converge, you can try a different choice of $a_n$. For instance, let $q_i$ be an enumeration of $mathbb{Q} cap (0, 1)$ and $p_i$ be the $i$-th prime number. Then, we can try defining $a_n = q_i$ iff $p_i$ is the smallest prime that divides $n$.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted










        Expanding on the comment I made.



        Hint: Think of placing the peak of your isosceles triangle alternating between two (or maybe infinitely many) pre-determined points.



        Solution: A more elaborate construction of isosceles triangles suffice to build a sequence of $f_n$ that does not converge. Each $f_n$ can be for instance: non-zero only on an interval $I_n = (a_n - delta_n, a_n + delta_n)$, piecewise linear, with $f_n(x)$ being $0$ on the extremes of the interval and $f_n(a_n) = 1$. Notice that we have freedom to choose $a_n$ and $delta_n$. Since $int f_n = delta_n$, we just need to ask $delta_n to 0$ for the limit above to hold.



        The main point to force that $f_n$ do not converge pointwise is the choice of $a_n$. If for instance $a_{2n} = frac13$ and $a_{2n+1} = frac23$, then $f_n(frac13)$ and $f_n(frac23)$ will oscilate between $0$ and $1$ infinitely many times, while for all other $x$ we have $f_n(x) = 0$.



        To Think: If you want to build a sequence of functions with infinitely many points that do not converge, you can try a different choice of $a_n$. For instance, let $q_i$ be an enumeration of $mathbb{Q} cap (0, 1)$ and $p_i$ be the $i$-th prime number. Then, we can try defining $a_n = q_i$ iff $p_i$ is the smallest prime that divides $n$.






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          Expanding on the comment I made.



          Hint: Think of placing the peak of your isosceles triangle alternating between two (or maybe infinitely many) pre-determined points.



          Solution: A more elaborate construction of isosceles triangles suffice to build a sequence of $f_n$ that does not converge. Each $f_n$ can be for instance: non-zero only on an interval $I_n = (a_n - delta_n, a_n + delta_n)$, piecewise linear, with $f_n(x)$ being $0$ on the extremes of the interval and $f_n(a_n) = 1$. Notice that we have freedom to choose $a_n$ and $delta_n$. Since $int f_n = delta_n$, we just need to ask $delta_n to 0$ for the limit above to hold.



          The main point to force that $f_n$ do not converge pointwise is the choice of $a_n$. If for instance $a_{2n} = frac13$ and $a_{2n+1} = frac23$, then $f_n(frac13)$ and $f_n(frac23)$ will oscilate between $0$ and $1$ infinitely many times, while for all other $x$ we have $f_n(x) = 0$.



          To Think: If you want to build a sequence of functions with infinitely many points that do not converge, you can try a different choice of $a_n$. For instance, let $q_i$ be an enumeration of $mathbb{Q} cap (0, 1)$ and $p_i$ be the $i$-th prime number. Then, we can try defining $a_n = q_i$ iff $p_i$ is the smallest prime that divides $n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Expanding on the comment I made.



          Hint: Think of placing the peak of your isosceles triangle alternating between two (or maybe infinitely many) pre-determined points.



          Solution: A more elaborate construction of isosceles triangles suffice to build a sequence of $f_n$ that does not converge. Each $f_n$ can be for instance: non-zero only on an interval $I_n = (a_n - delta_n, a_n + delta_n)$, piecewise linear, with $f_n(x)$ being $0$ on the extremes of the interval and $f_n(a_n) = 1$. Notice that we have freedom to choose $a_n$ and $delta_n$. Since $int f_n = delta_n$, we just need to ask $delta_n to 0$ for the limit above to hold.



          The main point to force that $f_n$ do not converge pointwise is the choice of $a_n$. If for instance $a_{2n} = frac13$ and $a_{2n+1} = frac23$, then $f_n(frac13)$ and $f_n(frac23)$ will oscilate between $0$ and $1$ infinitely many times, while for all other $x$ we have $f_n(x) = 0$.



          To Think: If you want to build a sequence of functions with infinitely many points that do not converge, you can try a different choice of $a_n$. For instance, let $q_i$ be an enumeration of $mathbb{Q} cap (0, 1)$ and $p_i$ be the $i$-th prime number. Then, we can try defining $a_n = q_i$ iff $p_i$ is the smallest prime that divides $n$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 22 at 18:58









          Daniel

          1,516210




          1,516210






















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              A. You could also consider $f_n(x) = x^n.$



              B. Let $f_n$ be the line-segment graph connecting the points $(0,1), (1/n,0), (1,0).$ This sequence does not converge to $0$ at $x=0.$



              C. Let $f_n$ be as in B. Then consider the sequence $f_1,0,f_2,0,f_3,0,dots.$ At $x=0,$ this sequence is $1,0,1,0,dots.$



              D. See C.






              share|cite|improve this answer























              • Sorry , but what does $chi$ mean
                – Cloud JR
                Nov 22 at 18:23










              • $chi_E$ is the function that is $1$ on $E$ and $0$ everywhere else.
                – zhw.
                Nov 22 at 18:26












              • Consider $chi [0,1/2] $ . Is this continous?
                – Cloud JR
                Nov 22 at 18:28










              • It is discontinous at 1/2
                – Cloud JR
                Nov 22 at 18:29










              • Oops I completely missed continuous.
                – zhw.
                Nov 22 at 18:42















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              A. You could also consider $f_n(x) = x^n.$



              B. Let $f_n$ be the line-segment graph connecting the points $(0,1), (1/n,0), (1,0).$ This sequence does not converge to $0$ at $x=0.$



              C. Let $f_n$ be as in B. Then consider the sequence $f_1,0,f_2,0,f_3,0,dots.$ At $x=0,$ this sequence is $1,0,1,0,dots.$



              D. See C.






              share|cite|improve this answer























              • Sorry , but what does $chi$ mean
                – Cloud JR
                Nov 22 at 18:23










              • $chi_E$ is the function that is $1$ on $E$ and $0$ everywhere else.
                – zhw.
                Nov 22 at 18:26












              • Consider $chi [0,1/2] $ . Is this continous?
                – Cloud JR
                Nov 22 at 18:28










              • It is discontinous at 1/2
                – Cloud JR
                Nov 22 at 18:29










              • Oops I completely missed continuous.
                – zhw.
                Nov 22 at 18:42













              up vote
              1
              down vote










              up vote
              1
              down vote









              A. You could also consider $f_n(x) = x^n.$



              B. Let $f_n$ be the line-segment graph connecting the points $(0,1), (1/n,0), (1,0).$ This sequence does not converge to $0$ at $x=0.$



              C. Let $f_n$ be as in B. Then consider the sequence $f_1,0,f_2,0,f_3,0,dots.$ At $x=0,$ this sequence is $1,0,1,0,dots.$



              D. See C.






              share|cite|improve this answer














              A. You could also consider $f_n(x) = x^n.$



              B. Let $f_n$ be the line-segment graph connecting the points $(0,1), (1/n,0), (1,0).$ This sequence does not converge to $0$ at $x=0.$



              C. Let $f_n$ be as in B. Then consider the sequence $f_1,0,f_2,0,f_3,0,dots.$ At $x=0,$ this sequence is $1,0,1,0,dots.$



              D. See C.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Nov 22 at 18:52

























              answered Nov 22 at 18:20









              zhw.

              71.3k43075




              71.3k43075












              • Sorry , but what does $chi$ mean
                – Cloud JR
                Nov 22 at 18:23










              • $chi_E$ is the function that is $1$ on $E$ and $0$ everywhere else.
                – zhw.
                Nov 22 at 18:26












              • Consider $chi [0,1/2] $ . Is this continous?
                – Cloud JR
                Nov 22 at 18:28










              • It is discontinous at 1/2
                – Cloud JR
                Nov 22 at 18:29










              • Oops I completely missed continuous.
                – zhw.
                Nov 22 at 18:42


















              • Sorry , but what does $chi$ mean
                – Cloud JR
                Nov 22 at 18:23










              • $chi_E$ is the function that is $1$ on $E$ and $0$ everywhere else.
                – zhw.
                Nov 22 at 18:26












              • Consider $chi [0,1/2] $ . Is this continous?
                – Cloud JR
                Nov 22 at 18:28










              • It is discontinous at 1/2
                – Cloud JR
                Nov 22 at 18:29










              • Oops I completely missed continuous.
                – zhw.
                Nov 22 at 18:42
















              Sorry , but what does $chi$ mean
              – Cloud JR
              Nov 22 at 18:23




              Sorry , but what does $chi$ mean
              – Cloud JR
              Nov 22 at 18:23












              $chi_E$ is the function that is $1$ on $E$ and $0$ everywhere else.
              – zhw.
              Nov 22 at 18:26






              $chi_E$ is the function that is $1$ on $E$ and $0$ everywhere else.
              – zhw.
              Nov 22 at 18:26














              Consider $chi [0,1/2] $ . Is this continous?
              – Cloud JR
              Nov 22 at 18:28




              Consider $chi [0,1/2] $ . Is this continous?
              – Cloud JR
              Nov 22 at 18:28












              It is discontinous at 1/2
              – Cloud JR
              Nov 22 at 18:29




              It is discontinous at 1/2
              – Cloud JR
              Nov 22 at 18:29












              Oops I completely missed continuous.
              – zhw.
              Nov 22 at 18:42




              Oops I completely missed continuous.
              – zhw.
              Nov 22 at 18:42










              up vote
              1
              down vote














              I can find example where all four statements are true ...




              All four?



              It seems that the statements are worded in a way that (independent of the rest of the question) exactly one of the four statements must be true.




              ... but can't find any counterexample.




              I even found an example for $f_n$ that does not converge in any point $x$:



              Let $f^*_{c,w}(x)$ with $xin [-10,10]$ be defined as the function with the graph connecting the points:



              $(-10,0)$, $((frac c{2w}-frac 1w),0)$, $((frac c{2w}),1)$, $((frac c{2w}+frac 1w),0)$, $(10,0)$.



              Use $f_{c,w}(x)=f^*_{c,w}(x)$ for $xin[0,1]$.



              Now use the following sequence:



              $f_{0,1}$, $f_{1,1}$, $f_{2,1}$,
              $f_{0,2}$, $f_{1,2}$, $f_{2,2}$, $f_{3,2}$, $f_{4,2}$,
              $f_{0,4}$, $f_{1,4}$, ..., $f_{8,4}$,
              $f_{0,8}$, $f_{2,8}$, ..., $f_{16,8}$,

              ...
              $f_{0,(2^k)}$, $f_{1,(2^k)}$, ..., $f_{(2^{k+1}-1),(2^k)}$, $f_{(2^{k+1}),(2^k)}$,

              ...



              If I'm correct this example can be modified by using $f_{c,w}(x)=sqrt wf^*_{c,w}(x)$. The resulting sequence should meet the conditions and for every value of $xin[0,1]$ the sequence $f_1(x)$, $f_2(x)$, $f_3(x)$ ... should even be unbounded!



              (However maybe I made a mistake here.)






              share|cite|improve this answer



























                up vote
                1
                down vote














                I can find example where all four statements are true ...




                All four?



                It seems that the statements are worded in a way that (independent of the rest of the question) exactly one of the four statements must be true.




                ... but can't find any counterexample.




                I even found an example for $f_n$ that does not converge in any point $x$:



                Let $f^*_{c,w}(x)$ with $xin [-10,10]$ be defined as the function with the graph connecting the points:



                $(-10,0)$, $((frac c{2w}-frac 1w),0)$, $((frac c{2w}),1)$, $((frac c{2w}+frac 1w),0)$, $(10,0)$.



                Use $f_{c,w}(x)=f^*_{c,w}(x)$ for $xin[0,1]$.



                Now use the following sequence:



                $f_{0,1}$, $f_{1,1}$, $f_{2,1}$,
                $f_{0,2}$, $f_{1,2}$, $f_{2,2}$, $f_{3,2}$, $f_{4,2}$,
                $f_{0,4}$, $f_{1,4}$, ..., $f_{8,4}$,
                $f_{0,8}$, $f_{2,8}$, ..., $f_{16,8}$,

                ...
                $f_{0,(2^k)}$, $f_{1,(2^k)}$, ..., $f_{(2^{k+1}-1),(2^k)}$, $f_{(2^{k+1}),(2^k)}$,

                ...



                If I'm correct this example can be modified by using $f_{c,w}(x)=sqrt wf^*_{c,w}(x)$. The resulting sequence should meet the conditions and for every value of $xin[0,1]$ the sequence $f_1(x)$, $f_2(x)$, $f_3(x)$ ... should even be unbounded!



                (However maybe I made a mistake here.)






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  I can find example where all four statements are true ...




                  All four?



                  It seems that the statements are worded in a way that (independent of the rest of the question) exactly one of the four statements must be true.




                  ... but can't find any counterexample.




                  I even found an example for $f_n$ that does not converge in any point $x$:



                  Let $f^*_{c,w}(x)$ with $xin [-10,10]$ be defined as the function with the graph connecting the points:



                  $(-10,0)$, $((frac c{2w}-frac 1w),0)$, $((frac c{2w}),1)$, $((frac c{2w}+frac 1w),0)$, $(10,0)$.



                  Use $f_{c,w}(x)=f^*_{c,w}(x)$ for $xin[0,1]$.



                  Now use the following sequence:



                  $f_{0,1}$, $f_{1,1}$, $f_{2,1}$,
                  $f_{0,2}$, $f_{1,2}$, $f_{2,2}$, $f_{3,2}$, $f_{4,2}$,
                  $f_{0,4}$, $f_{1,4}$, ..., $f_{8,4}$,
                  $f_{0,8}$, $f_{2,8}$, ..., $f_{16,8}$,

                  ...
                  $f_{0,(2^k)}$, $f_{1,(2^k)}$, ..., $f_{(2^{k+1}-1),(2^k)}$, $f_{(2^{k+1}),(2^k)}$,

                  ...



                  If I'm correct this example can be modified by using $f_{c,w}(x)=sqrt wf^*_{c,w}(x)$. The resulting sequence should meet the conditions and for every value of $xin[0,1]$ the sequence $f_1(x)$, $f_2(x)$, $f_3(x)$ ... should even be unbounded!



                  (However maybe I made a mistake here.)






                  share|cite|improve this answer















                  I can find example where all four statements are true ...




                  All four?



                  It seems that the statements are worded in a way that (independent of the rest of the question) exactly one of the four statements must be true.




                  ... but can't find any counterexample.




                  I even found an example for $f_n$ that does not converge in any point $x$:



                  Let $f^*_{c,w}(x)$ with $xin [-10,10]$ be defined as the function with the graph connecting the points:



                  $(-10,0)$, $((frac c{2w}-frac 1w),0)$, $((frac c{2w}),1)$, $((frac c{2w}+frac 1w),0)$, $(10,0)$.



                  Use $f_{c,w}(x)=f^*_{c,w}(x)$ for $xin[0,1]$.



                  Now use the following sequence:



                  $f_{0,1}$, $f_{1,1}$, $f_{2,1}$,
                  $f_{0,2}$, $f_{1,2}$, $f_{2,2}$, $f_{3,2}$, $f_{4,2}$,
                  $f_{0,4}$, $f_{1,4}$, ..., $f_{8,4}$,
                  $f_{0,8}$, $f_{2,8}$, ..., $f_{16,8}$,

                  ...
                  $f_{0,(2^k)}$, $f_{1,(2^k)}$, ..., $f_{(2^{k+1}-1),(2^k)}$, $f_{(2^{k+1}),(2^k)}$,

                  ...



                  If I'm correct this example can be modified by using $f_{c,w}(x)=sqrt wf^*_{c,w}(x)$. The resulting sequence should meet the conditions and for every value of $xin[0,1]$ the sequence $f_1(x)$, $f_2(x)$, $f_3(x)$ ... should even be unbounded!



                  (However maybe I made a mistake here.)







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Nov 22 at 21:35

























                  answered Nov 22 at 20:40









                  Martin Rosenau

                  1,134129




                  1,134129






























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