PDE Laplace equation. Integral representation form and Green function











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Let $Omega$ be a domain in $mathbb{R}^{d}$ and assume that for any $y in Omega$ there is a function $h_{y} in C^{2}(overline{Omega})$ such that
begin{equation}
label{eq8.1}
begin{cases}
Delta h_{y}(x) = 0 text{ in } Omega \
h_{y}(x) = E(x,y) text{ on } partial Omega
end{cases}
end{equation}



Where $E$ denotes the fundamental solution to $Delta$ in dimension $d$. Under those assumptions we define the Green function $G(x,y) = E(x,y) - h_{y}(x)$



Let $Omega$ be a bounded domain such that one can define the Green function $G$. Then for any $u in C^{2}(overline{Omega})$ and any $y in Omega$, we have
$$ u(y) = - int_{Omega} G Delta u dx - int_{partial Omega} partial_v G(x,y) u(x) dsigma(x) $$



Where $v$ is the outer normal of $partial Omega$. I don't see how the above integral representation is supposed to directly follow from the definition of the Green function and the fact that if $E$ is a fundamental solution of $Delta$ we have:



$$
u(y) = - int_{Omega} E Delta u dx + int_{partial Omega} E(x,y) partial_vu(x) - partial_vE(x,y) u(x) dsigma(x)
$$










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    up vote
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    Let $Omega$ be a domain in $mathbb{R}^{d}$ and assume that for any $y in Omega$ there is a function $h_{y} in C^{2}(overline{Omega})$ such that
    begin{equation}
    label{eq8.1}
    begin{cases}
    Delta h_{y}(x) = 0 text{ in } Omega \
    h_{y}(x) = E(x,y) text{ on } partial Omega
    end{cases}
    end{equation}



    Where $E$ denotes the fundamental solution to $Delta$ in dimension $d$. Under those assumptions we define the Green function $G(x,y) = E(x,y) - h_{y}(x)$



    Let $Omega$ be a bounded domain such that one can define the Green function $G$. Then for any $u in C^{2}(overline{Omega})$ and any $y in Omega$, we have
    $$ u(y) = - int_{Omega} G Delta u dx - int_{partial Omega} partial_v G(x,y) u(x) dsigma(x) $$



    Where $v$ is the outer normal of $partial Omega$. I don't see how the above integral representation is supposed to directly follow from the definition of the Green function and the fact that if $E$ is a fundamental solution of $Delta$ we have:



    $$
    u(y) = - int_{Omega} E Delta u dx + int_{partial Omega} E(x,y) partial_vu(x) - partial_vE(x,y) u(x) dsigma(x)
    $$










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $Omega$ be a domain in $mathbb{R}^{d}$ and assume that for any $y in Omega$ there is a function $h_{y} in C^{2}(overline{Omega})$ such that
      begin{equation}
      label{eq8.1}
      begin{cases}
      Delta h_{y}(x) = 0 text{ in } Omega \
      h_{y}(x) = E(x,y) text{ on } partial Omega
      end{cases}
      end{equation}



      Where $E$ denotes the fundamental solution to $Delta$ in dimension $d$. Under those assumptions we define the Green function $G(x,y) = E(x,y) - h_{y}(x)$



      Let $Omega$ be a bounded domain such that one can define the Green function $G$. Then for any $u in C^{2}(overline{Omega})$ and any $y in Omega$, we have
      $$ u(y) = - int_{Omega} G Delta u dx - int_{partial Omega} partial_v G(x,y) u(x) dsigma(x) $$



      Where $v$ is the outer normal of $partial Omega$. I don't see how the above integral representation is supposed to directly follow from the definition of the Green function and the fact that if $E$ is a fundamental solution of $Delta$ we have:



      $$
      u(y) = - int_{Omega} E Delta u dx + int_{partial Omega} E(x,y) partial_vu(x) - partial_vE(x,y) u(x) dsigma(x)
      $$










      share|cite|improve this question















      Let $Omega$ be a domain in $mathbb{R}^{d}$ and assume that for any $y in Omega$ there is a function $h_{y} in C^{2}(overline{Omega})$ such that
      begin{equation}
      label{eq8.1}
      begin{cases}
      Delta h_{y}(x) = 0 text{ in } Omega \
      h_{y}(x) = E(x,y) text{ on } partial Omega
      end{cases}
      end{equation}



      Where $E$ denotes the fundamental solution to $Delta$ in dimension $d$. Under those assumptions we define the Green function $G(x,y) = E(x,y) - h_{y}(x)$



      Let $Omega$ be a bounded domain such that one can define the Green function $G$. Then for any $u in C^{2}(overline{Omega})$ and any $y in Omega$, we have
      $$ u(y) = - int_{Omega} G Delta u dx - int_{partial Omega} partial_v G(x,y) u(x) dsigma(x) $$



      Where $v$ is the outer normal of $partial Omega$. I don't see how the above integral representation is supposed to directly follow from the definition of the Green function and the fact that if $E$ is a fundamental solution of $Delta$ we have:



      $$
      u(y) = - int_{Omega} E Delta u dx + int_{partial Omega} E(x,y) partial_vu(x) - partial_vE(x,y) u(x) dsigma(x)
      $$







      pde harmonic-functions greens-function






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      edited Nov 15 at 19:40

























      asked Nov 10 at 19:58









      h3h325

      18410




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          It follows from the divergence theorem applied to the vector field $h_ynabla u - nabla h_y u$. Then, the we get the terms term $partial_v u h_y = partial_vE$ and $partial_v h_y u$ which cancels the term from $partial_v G u$, so we recover the original integral representation for $u$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




























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            down vote













            First of all, remember what $E$ is. In $3$ or more dimensions, it is



            $$E(x,y) = frac{1}{|x-y|^{n-2}}$$



            If you take the second derivative and sum you obtain $$Delta E(x,y) = sum_{i=1}^{n}frac{partial^2 E(x,y)}{partial x_i^2} = 0 mbox{ for $xneq y$}$$



            this is the same as saying $Delta E(x,y) = delta_x(y)$, where $delta_x$ function is the function such that $$delta_x = delta(y-x)$$ Where $delta$ is the Dirac Delta Function:



            $$delta(x) = begin{cases}
            +infty & x= 0 \
            0 & xneq 0 \
            end{cases}$$



            This isn't a rigorous function definition, because $infty$ in just one point is meaningless. However it can be defined rigorously.



            Well, the delta funciton has the nice property that



            $$int_{-infty}^{infty} f(x)delta(x-a) dx = f(a)$$



            The intuition is that if you have such function $E$ with the property that its laplacian is a delta function, then



            $$Delta_x E(x,y) = delta_x(y-x) implies int_{-infty}^{infty}f(x)Delta E(x,y) = int_{infty}^{infty} f(x)delta_x(y-x) = f(x)$$



            See that you have $f(x)$ on one side and our magical function $E$ on the other. We're gonna do that for more dimensions, but rigorously.



            Consider the second Green identity:



            $$int_{Omega} uDelta w - wDelta u dy = int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial w}{partial n}-wfrac{partial u}{partial n}right)$$



            So by doing $u=$ and $w=E$ we have:



            $$int_{Omega} uDelta E - EDelta u dy = int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)$$



            we cannot integrate $E$ on the entire $Omega$ because it is not defined when $x=y$, so we need to separate this integral in the region $Omega_epsilon$, which is a region formed by $Omega$ minus a ball around the point of indefinition like this:



            $$Omega_epsilon = Omega-B_x(epsilon)$$



            So if we separate $Omega = Omega_epsilon cup B_x(epsilon)$, we know that the integral on $Omega_epsilon$ is $0$ because there's no indefinition there, and we hav to deal with the integral on $Omega_epsilon$. Note that $partialOmega_epsilon = partial Omega cup partial B_x(epsilon)$, so we end up with:



            $$int_{Omega_epsilon} uDelta E - EDelta u dy =int_{Omega_epsilon}-EDelta u dy implies \ int_{partial Omega_epsilon}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right) = int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)+ int_{partial B_x(epsilon)}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)$$



            First note that



            $$lim_{epsilonto 0}int_{Omega_epsilon}-EDelta u dy = int_{Omega}-EDelta u dy$$



            since it does not depend on $epsilon$ and by an additional unexplained argument here, $E$ is integrable on $x=y$, so we can write that integral because it is finite.



            Now by another argument I'll not make here,



            $$lim_{epsilonto 0} left(int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)+ int_{partial B_x(epsilon)}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)right) = \ int_{partial Omega} ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n} dy + u(x)$$



            so we end up with



            $$int_{partial Omega} ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n} dy + u(x) = int_{Omega}-EDelta u dy tag{1}$$



            Note that it only solves half of the problem. We don't know for example how does $frac{partial u}{partial n}$ looks like on $partial Omega$. This is mitigated by introducing the corrector function $h_x(y)$ that you talked about.



            The unexplained parts and the corrector function details can be found here






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • This is irrellevant to OP's question. It's beeing asked to prove that: $ u(y) = - int_{Omega} E Delta u dx - int_{partial Omega} partial_v G(x,y) u(x) dsigma(x) $. In the answer you are only vaguely explaining how to obtain the integral representation formula in terms of the fundamental solution.
              – h3h325
              Nov 11 at 15:09













            Your Answer





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            2 Answers
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            It follows from the divergence theorem applied to the vector field $h_ynabla u - nabla h_y u$. Then, the we get the terms term $partial_v u h_y = partial_vE$ and $partial_v h_y u$ which cancels the term from $partial_v G u$, so we recover the original integral representation for $u$.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              1
              down vote



              accepted










              It follows from the divergence theorem applied to the vector field $h_ynabla u - nabla h_y u$. Then, the we get the terms term $partial_v u h_y = partial_vE$ and $partial_v h_y u$ which cancels the term from $partial_v G u$, so we recover the original integral representation for $u$.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted






                It follows from the divergence theorem applied to the vector field $h_ynabla u - nabla h_y u$. Then, the we get the terms term $partial_v u h_y = partial_vE$ and $partial_v h_y u$ which cancels the term from $partial_v G u$, so we recover the original integral representation for $u$.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                It follows from the divergence theorem applied to the vector field $h_ynabla u - nabla h_y u$. Then, the we get the terms term $partial_v u h_y = partial_vE$ and $partial_v h_y u$ which cancels the term from $partial_v G u$, so we recover the original integral representation for $u$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Nov 15 at 19:45









                h3h325

                18410




                18410






















                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote













                    First of all, remember what $E$ is. In $3$ or more dimensions, it is



                    $$E(x,y) = frac{1}{|x-y|^{n-2}}$$



                    If you take the second derivative and sum you obtain $$Delta E(x,y) = sum_{i=1}^{n}frac{partial^2 E(x,y)}{partial x_i^2} = 0 mbox{ for $xneq y$}$$



                    this is the same as saying $Delta E(x,y) = delta_x(y)$, where $delta_x$ function is the function such that $$delta_x = delta(y-x)$$ Where $delta$ is the Dirac Delta Function:



                    $$delta(x) = begin{cases}
                    +infty & x= 0 \
                    0 & xneq 0 \
                    end{cases}$$



                    This isn't a rigorous function definition, because $infty$ in just one point is meaningless. However it can be defined rigorously.



                    Well, the delta funciton has the nice property that



                    $$int_{-infty}^{infty} f(x)delta(x-a) dx = f(a)$$



                    The intuition is that if you have such function $E$ with the property that its laplacian is a delta function, then



                    $$Delta_x E(x,y) = delta_x(y-x) implies int_{-infty}^{infty}f(x)Delta E(x,y) = int_{infty}^{infty} f(x)delta_x(y-x) = f(x)$$



                    See that you have $f(x)$ on one side and our magical function $E$ on the other. We're gonna do that for more dimensions, but rigorously.



                    Consider the second Green identity:



                    $$int_{Omega} uDelta w - wDelta u dy = int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial w}{partial n}-wfrac{partial u}{partial n}right)$$



                    So by doing $u=$ and $w=E$ we have:



                    $$int_{Omega} uDelta E - EDelta u dy = int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)$$



                    we cannot integrate $E$ on the entire $Omega$ because it is not defined when $x=y$, so we need to separate this integral in the region $Omega_epsilon$, which is a region formed by $Omega$ minus a ball around the point of indefinition like this:



                    $$Omega_epsilon = Omega-B_x(epsilon)$$



                    So if we separate $Omega = Omega_epsilon cup B_x(epsilon)$, we know that the integral on $Omega_epsilon$ is $0$ because there's no indefinition there, and we hav to deal with the integral on $Omega_epsilon$. Note that $partialOmega_epsilon = partial Omega cup partial B_x(epsilon)$, so we end up with:



                    $$int_{Omega_epsilon} uDelta E - EDelta u dy =int_{Omega_epsilon}-EDelta u dy implies \ int_{partial Omega_epsilon}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right) = int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)+ int_{partial B_x(epsilon)}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)$$



                    First note that



                    $$lim_{epsilonto 0}int_{Omega_epsilon}-EDelta u dy = int_{Omega}-EDelta u dy$$



                    since it does not depend on $epsilon$ and by an additional unexplained argument here, $E$ is integrable on $x=y$, so we can write that integral because it is finite.



                    Now by another argument I'll not make here,



                    $$lim_{epsilonto 0} left(int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)+ int_{partial B_x(epsilon)}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)right) = \ int_{partial Omega} ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n} dy + u(x)$$



                    so we end up with



                    $$int_{partial Omega} ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n} dy + u(x) = int_{Omega}-EDelta u dy tag{1}$$



                    Note that it only solves half of the problem. We don't know for example how does $frac{partial u}{partial n}$ looks like on $partial Omega$. This is mitigated by introducing the corrector function $h_x(y)$ that you talked about.



                    The unexplained parts and the corrector function details can be found here






                    share|cite|improve this answer





















                    • This is irrellevant to OP's question. It's beeing asked to prove that: $ u(y) = - int_{Omega} E Delta u dx - int_{partial Omega} partial_v G(x,y) u(x) dsigma(x) $. In the answer you are only vaguely explaining how to obtain the integral representation formula in terms of the fundamental solution.
                      – h3h325
                      Nov 11 at 15:09

















                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote













                    First of all, remember what $E$ is. In $3$ or more dimensions, it is



                    $$E(x,y) = frac{1}{|x-y|^{n-2}}$$



                    If you take the second derivative and sum you obtain $$Delta E(x,y) = sum_{i=1}^{n}frac{partial^2 E(x,y)}{partial x_i^2} = 0 mbox{ for $xneq y$}$$



                    this is the same as saying $Delta E(x,y) = delta_x(y)$, where $delta_x$ function is the function such that $$delta_x = delta(y-x)$$ Where $delta$ is the Dirac Delta Function:



                    $$delta(x) = begin{cases}
                    +infty & x= 0 \
                    0 & xneq 0 \
                    end{cases}$$



                    This isn't a rigorous function definition, because $infty$ in just one point is meaningless. However it can be defined rigorously.



                    Well, the delta funciton has the nice property that



                    $$int_{-infty}^{infty} f(x)delta(x-a) dx = f(a)$$



                    The intuition is that if you have such function $E$ with the property that its laplacian is a delta function, then



                    $$Delta_x E(x,y) = delta_x(y-x) implies int_{-infty}^{infty}f(x)Delta E(x,y) = int_{infty}^{infty} f(x)delta_x(y-x) = f(x)$$



                    See that you have $f(x)$ on one side and our magical function $E$ on the other. We're gonna do that for more dimensions, but rigorously.



                    Consider the second Green identity:



                    $$int_{Omega} uDelta w - wDelta u dy = int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial w}{partial n}-wfrac{partial u}{partial n}right)$$



                    So by doing $u=$ and $w=E$ we have:



                    $$int_{Omega} uDelta E - EDelta u dy = int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)$$



                    we cannot integrate $E$ on the entire $Omega$ because it is not defined when $x=y$, so we need to separate this integral in the region $Omega_epsilon$, which is a region formed by $Omega$ minus a ball around the point of indefinition like this:



                    $$Omega_epsilon = Omega-B_x(epsilon)$$



                    So if we separate $Omega = Omega_epsilon cup B_x(epsilon)$, we know that the integral on $Omega_epsilon$ is $0$ because there's no indefinition there, and we hav to deal with the integral on $Omega_epsilon$. Note that $partialOmega_epsilon = partial Omega cup partial B_x(epsilon)$, so we end up with:



                    $$int_{Omega_epsilon} uDelta E - EDelta u dy =int_{Omega_epsilon}-EDelta u dy implies \ int_{partial Omega_epsilon}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right) = int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)+ int_{partial B_x(epsilon)}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)$$



                    First note that



                    $$lim_{epsilonto 0}int_{Omega_epsilon}-EDelta u dy = int_{Omega}-EDelta u dy$$



                    since it does not depend on $epsilon$ and by an additional unexplained argument here, $E$ is integrable on $x=y$, so we can write that integral because it is finite.



                    Now by another argument I'll not make here,



                    $$lim_{epsilonto 0} left(int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)+ int_{partial B_x(epsilon)}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)right) = \ int_{partial Omega} ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n} dy + u(x)$$



                    so we end up with



                    $$int_{partial Omega} ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n} dy + u(x) = int_{Omega}-EDelta u dy tag{1}$$



                    Note that it only solves half of the problem. We don't know for example how does $frac{partial u}{partial n}$ looks like on $partial Omega$. This is mitigated by introducing the corrector function $h_x(y)$ that you talked about.



                    The unexplained parts and the corrector function details can be found here






                    share|cite|improve this answer





















                    • This is irrellevant to OP's question. It's beeing asked to prove that: $ u(y) = - int_{Omega} E Delta u dx - int_{partial Omega} partial_v G(x,y) u(x) dsigma(x) $. In the answer you are only vaguely explaining how to obtain the integral representation formula in terms of the fundamental solution.
                      – h3h325
                      Nov 11 at 15:09















                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote









                    First of all, remember what $E$ is. In $3$ or more dimensions, it is



                    $$E(x,y) = frac{1}{|x-y|^{n-2}}$$



                    If you take the second derivative and sum you obtain $$Delta E(x,y) = sum_{i=1}^{n}frac{partial^2 E(x,y)}{partial x_i^2} = 0 mbox{ for $xneq y$}$$



                    this is the same as saying $Delta E(x,y) = delta_x(y)$, where $delta_x$ function is the function such that $$delta_x = delta(y-x)$$ Where $delta$ is the Dirac Delta Function:



                    $$delta(x) = begin{cases}
                    +infty & x= 0 \
                    0 & xneq 0 \
                    end{cases}$$



                    This isn't a rigorous function definition, because $infty$ in just one point is meaningless. However it can be defined rigorously.



                    Well, the delta funciton has the nice property that



                    $$int_{-infty}^{infty} f(x)delta(x-a) dx = f(a)$$



                    The intuition is that if you have such function $E$ with the property that its laplacian is a delta function, then



                    $$Delta_x E(x,y) = delta_x(y-x) implies int_{-infty}^{infty}f(x)Delta E(x,y) = int_{infty}^{infty} f(x)delta_x(y-x) = f(x)$$



                    See that you have $f(x)$ on one side and our magical function $E$ on the other. We're gonna do that for more dimensions, but rigorously.



                    Consider the second Green identity:



                    $$int_{Omega} uDelta w - wDelta u dy = int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial w}{partial n}-wfrac{partial u}{partial n}right)$$



                    So by doing $u=$ and $w=E$ we have:



                    $$int_{Omega} uDelta E - EDelta u dy = int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)$$



                    we cannot integrate $E$ on the entire $Omega$ because it is not defined when $x=y$, so we need to separate this integral in the region $Omega_epsilon$, which is a region formed by $Omega$ minus a ball around the point of indefinition like this:



                    $$Omega_epsilon = Omega-B_x(epsilon)$$



                    So if we separate $Omega = Omega_epsilon cup B_x(epsilon)$, we know that the integral on $Omega_epsilon$ is $0$ because there's no indefinition there, and we hav to deal with the integral on $Omega_epsilon$. Note that $partialOmega_epsilon = partial Omega cup partial B_x(epsilon)$, so we end up with:



                    $$int_{Omega_epsilon} uDelta E - EDelta u dy =int_{Omega_epsilon}-EDelta u dy implies \ int_{partial Omega_epsilon}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right) = int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)+ int_{partial B_x(epsilon)}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)$$



                    First note that



                    $$lim_{epsilonto 0}int_{Omega_epsilon}-EDelta u dy = int_{Omega}-EDelta u dy$$



                    since it does not depend on $epsilon$ and by an additional unexplained argument here, $E$ is integrable on $x=y$, so we can write that integral because it is finite.



                    Now by another argument I'll not make here,



                    $$lim_{epsilonto 0} left(int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)+ int_{partial B_x(epsilon)}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)right) = \ int_{partial Omega} ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n} dy + u(x)$$



                    so we end up with



                    $$int_{partial Omega} ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n} dy + u(x) = int_{Omega}-EDelta u dy tag{1}$$



                    Note that it only solves half of the problem. We don't know for example how does $frac{partial u}{partial n}$ looks like on $partial Omega$. This is mitigated by introducing the corrector function $h_x(y)$ that you talked about.



                    The unexplained parts and the corrector function details can be found here






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    First of all, remember what $E$ is. In $3$ or more dimensions, it is



                    $$E(x,y) = frac{1}{|x-y|^{n-2}}$$



                    If you take the second derivative and sum you obtain $$Delta E(x,y) = sum_{i=1}^{n}frac{partial^2 E(x,y)}{partial x_i^2} = 0 mbox{ for $xneq y$}$$



                    this is the same as saying $Delta E(x,y) = delta_x(y)$, where $delta_x$ function is the function such that $$delta_x = delta(y-x)$$ Where $delta$ is the Dirac Delta Function:



                    $$delta(x) = begin{cases}
                    +infty & x= 0 \
                    0 & xneq 0 \
                    end{cases}$$



                    This isn't a rigorous function definition, because $infty$ in just one point is meaningless. However it can be defined rigorously.



                    Well, the delta funciton has the nice property that



                    $$int_{-infty}^{infty} f(x)delta(x-a) dx = f(a)$$



                    The intuition is that if you have such function $E$ with the property that its laplacian is a delta function, then



                    $$Delta_x E(x,y) = delta_x(y-x) implies int_{-infty}^{infty}f(x)Delta E(x,y) = int_{infty}^{infty} f(x)delta_x(y-x) = f(x)$$



                    See that you have $f(x)$ on one side and our magical function $E$ on the other. We're gonna do that for more dimensions, but rigorously.



                    Consider the second Green identity:



                    $$int_{Omega} uDelta w - wDelta u dy = int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial w}{partial n}-wfrac{partial u}{partial n}right)$$



                    So by doing $u=$ and $w=E$ we have:



                    $$int_{Omega} uDelta E - EDelta u dy = int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)$$



                    we cannot integrate $E$ on the entire $Omega$ because it is not defined when $x=y$, so we need to separate this integral in the region $Omega_epsilon$, which is a region formed by $Omega$ minus a ball around the point of indefinition like this:



                    $$Omega_epsilon = Omega-B_x(epsilon)$$



                    So if we separate $Omega = Omega_epsilon cup B_x(epsilon)$, we know that the integral on $Omega_epsilon$ is $0$ because there's no indefinition there, and we hav to deal with the integral on $Omega_epsilon$. Note that $partialOmega_epsilon = partial Omega cup partial B_x(epsilon)$, so we end up with:



                    $$int_{Omega_epsilon} uDelta E - EDelta u dy =int_{Omega_epsilon}-EDelta u dy implies \ int_{partial Omega_epsilon}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right) = int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)+ int_{partial B_x(epsilon)}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)$$



                    First note that



                    $$lim_{epsilonto 0}int_{Omega_epsilon}-EDelta u dy = int_{Omega}-EDelta u dy$$



                    since it does not depend on $epsilon$ and by an additional unexplained argument here, $E$ is integrable on $x=y$, so we can write that integral because it is finite.



                    Now by another argument I'll not make here,



                    $$lim_{epsilonto 0} left(int_{partial Omega}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)+ int_{partial B_x(epsilon)}left(ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n}right)right) = \ int_{partial Omega} ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n} dy + u(x)$$



                    so we end up with



                    $$int_{partial Omega} ufrac{partial E}{partial n}-Efrac{partial u}{partial n} dy + u(x) = int_{Omega}-EDelta u dy tag{1}$$



                    Note that it only solves half of the problem. We don't know for example how does $frac{partial u}{partial n}$ looks like on $partial Omega$. This is mitigated by introducing the corrector function $h_x(y)$ that you talked about.



                    The unexplained parts and the corrector function details can be found here







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                    answered Nov 10 at 21:25









                    Lucas Zanella

                    1,17711329




                    1,17711329












                    • This is irrellevant to OP's question. It's beeing asked to prove that: $ u(y) = - int_{Omega} E Delta u dx - int_{partial Omega} partial_v G(x,y) u(x) dsigma(x) $. In the answer you are only vaguely explaining how to obtain the integral representation formula in terms of the fundamental solution.
                      – h3h325
                      Nov 11 at 15:09




















                    • This is irrellevant to OP's question. It's beeing asked to prove that: $ u(y) = - int_{Omega} E Delta u dx - int_{partial Omega} partial_v G(x,y) u(x) dsigma(x) $. In the answer you are only vaguely explaining how to obtain the integral representation formula in terms of the fundamental solution.
                      – h3h325
                      Nov 11 at 15:09


















                    This is irrellevant to OP's question. It's beeing asked to prove that: $ u(y) = - int_{Omega} E Delta u dx - int_{partial Omega} partial_v G(x,y) u(x) dsigma(x) $. In the answer you are only vaguely explaining how to obtain the integral representation formula in terms of the fundamental solution.
                    – h3h325
                    Nov 11 at 15:09






                    This is irrellevant to OP's question. It's beeing asked to prove that: $ u(y) = - int_{Omega} E Delta u dx - int_{partial Omega} partial_v G(x,y) u(x) dsigma(x) $. In the answer you are only vaguely explaining how to obtain the integral representation formula in terms of the fundamental solution.
                    – h3h325
                    Nov 11 at 15:09




















                     

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