Definition of a smooth function on $[0,1]^k$











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Let $M$ be a smooth manifold, and $f: [0,1]^k rightarrow M$ be a continuous function which is smooth on $(0,1)^k$. I have seen two definitions of what it means for $f$ to be smooth. First, there exists an open neighborhood $U subset mathbb R^k$ such that $f$ extends to a smooth function on $U$. Second, at each point $p$ on the boundary of $[0,1]^k$, there exists an open neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $f$ extends to a smooth function on $U cap (0,1)^k$.



Are these two definitions equivalent? If not, what should be the "correct" definition? Say, for the purpose of defining singular homology and integration of differential forms?










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    Let $M$ be a smooth manifold, and $f: [0,1]^k rightarrow M$ be a continuous function which is smooth on $(0,1)^k$. I have seen two definitions of what it means for $f$ to be smooth. First, there exists an open neighborhood $U subset mathbb R^k$ such that $f$ extends to a smooth function on $U$. Second, at each point $p$ on the boundary of $[0,1]^k$, there exists an open neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $f$ extends to a smooth function on $U cap (0,1)^k$.



    Are these two definitions equivalent? If not, what should be the "correct" definition? Say, for the purpose of defining singular homology and integration of differential forms?










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $M$ be a smooth manifold, and $f: [0,1]^k rightarrow M$ be a continuous function which is smooth on $(0,1)^k$. I have seen two definitions of what it means for $f$ to be smooth. First, there exists an open neighborhood $U subset mathbb R^k$ such that $f$ extends to a smooth function on $U$. Second, at each point $p$ on the boundary of $[0,1]^k$, there exists an open neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $f$ extends to a smooth function on $U cap (0,1)^k$.



      Are these two definitions equivalent? If not, what should be the "correct" definition? Say, for the purpose of defining singular homology and integration of differential forms?










      share|cite|improve this question















      Let $M$ be a smooth manifold, and $f: [0,1]^k rightarrow M$ be a continuous function which is smooth on $(0,1)^k$. I have seen two definitions of what it means for $f$ to be smooth. First, there exists an open neighborhood $U subset mathbb R^k$ such that $f$ extends to a smooth function on $U$. Second, at each point $p$ on the boundary of $[0,1]^k$, there exists an open neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $f$ extends to a smooth function on $U cap (0,1)^k$.



      Are these two definitions equivalent? If not, what should be the "correct" definition? Say, for the purpose of defining singular homology and integration of differential forms?







      calculus differential-geometry smooth-manifolds






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      edited Nov 21 at 1:20

























      asked Nov 21 at 1:04









      D_S

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          Yes, these definitions are equivalents. The first one clearly implies the second. Using the notion of partition of unity (see here), you can show that the second one also implies the first.






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            Yes, both definition are equivalent. You can use partitions of unity: Suppose that for every $x$ in $[0,1]^k$ there exists an open neighborhood of $x$ and a smooth function $f_x:Ucap (0,1)^k to M$ wich agrees with $f$. By compactness of $[0,1]^k$ there exists a finite cover ${U_1,ldots, U_r}$ of $[0,1]^k$ consisting in some of such neighborhoods. Take a partition of unity ${varphi_1,ldots,varphi_r}$ subordinated to the cover and define $F:cup_iU_ito M$ by the formula $F(x)=sum_ivarphi_i(x)f_i(x)$.






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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes








              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes








              up vote
              1
              down vote



              accepted










              Yes, these definitions are equivalents. The first one clearly implies the second. Using the notion of partition of unity (see here), you can show that the second one also implies the first.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted










                Yes, these definitions are equivalents. The first one clearly implies the second. Using the notion of partition of unity (see here), you can show that the second one also implies the first.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote



                  accepted







                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote



                  accepted






                  Yes, these definitions are equivalents. The first one clearly implies the second. Using the notion of partition of unity (see here), you can show that the second one also implies the first.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Yes, these definitions are equivalents. The first one clearly implies the second. Using the notion of partition of unity (see here), you can show that the second one also implies the first.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 21 at 1:18









                  rldias

                  2,9851522




                  2,9851522






















                      up vote
                      2
                      down vote













                      Yes, both definition are equivalent. You can use partitions of unity: Suppose that for every $x$ in $[0,1]^k$ there exists an open neighborhood of $x$ and a smooth function $f_x:Ucap (0,1)^k to M$ wich agrees with $f$. By compactness of $[0,1]^k$ there exists a finite cover ${U_1,ldots, U_r}$ of $[0,1]^k$ consisting in some of such neighborhoods. Take a partition of unity ${varphi_1,ldots,varphi_r}$ subordinated to the cover and define $F:cup_iU_ito M$ by the formula $F(x)=sum_ivarphi_i(x)f_i(x)$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                        up vote
                        2
                        down vote













                        Yes, both definition are equivalent. You can use partitions of unity: Suppose that for every $x$ in $[0,1]^k$ there exists an open neighborhood of $x$ and a smooth function $f_x:Ucap (0,1)^k to M$ wich agrees with $f$. By compactness of $[0,1]^k$ there exists a finite cover ${U_1,ldots, U_r}$ of $[0,1]^k$ consisting in some of such neighborhoods. Take a partition of unity ${varphi_1,ldots,varphi_r}$ subordinated to the cover and define $F:cup_iU_ito M$ by the formula $F(x)=sum_ivarphi_i(x)f_i(x)$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer























                          up vote
                          2
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          2
                          down vote









                          Yes, both definition are equivalent. You can use partitions of unity: Suppose that for every $x$ in $[0,1]^k$ there exists an open neighborhood of $x$ and a smooth function $f_x:Ucap (0,1)^k to M$ wich agrees with $f$. By compactness of $[0,1]^k$ there exists a finite cover ${U_1,ldots, U_r}$ of $[0,1]^k$ consisting in some of such neighborhoods. Take a partition of unity ${varphi_1,ldots,varphi_r}$ subordinated to the cover and define $F:cup_iU_ito M$ by the formula $F(x)=sum_ivarphi_i(x)f_i(x)$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          Yes, both definition are equivalent. You can use partitions of unity: Suppose that for every $x$ in $[0,1]^k$ there exists an open neighborhood of $x$ and a smooth function $f_x:Ucap (0,1)^k to M$ wich agrees with $f$. By compactness of $[0,1]^k$ there exists a finite cover ${U_1,ldots, U_r}$ of $[0,1]^k$ consisting in some of such neighborhoods. Take a partition of unity ${varphi_1,ldots,varphi_r}$ subordinated to the cover and define $F:cup_iU_ito M$ by the formula $F(x)=sum_ivarphi_i(x)f_i(x)$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












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                          answered Nov 21 at 1:24









                          Dante Grevino

                          7787




                          7787






























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