Find the function equation $f(x+f(y)+yf(x))=y+f(x)+xf(y)$
up vote
7
down vote
favorite
find all functions $f:Bbb Rto Bbb R$ and such for any $x,yinBbb R$,and such
$$f(x+f(y)+yf(x))=y+f(x)+xf(y)$$
I have proven that $$f(f(x))=x$$
proof:Let $y=0$,we have
$$f(x+f(0))=f(x)+xf(0)$$
let $x=0,yto x$,we have
$$f(f(x)+xf(0))=x+f(0)$$
so we have
$$f(f(x+f(0))=x+f(0)$$
then $$f(f(x))=x$$
and $f(x)=x$ is one solution but I can't argue this to be the only solution.
It doesn't seem easy.Thank for you help!
functions
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
7
down vote
favorite
find all functions $f:Bbb Rto Bbb R$ and such for any $x,yinBbb R$,and such
$$f(x+f(y)+yf(x))=y+f(x)+xf(y)$$
I have proven that $$f(f(x))=x$$
proof:Let $y=0$,we have
$$f(x+f(0))=f(x)+xf(0)$$
let $x=0,yto x$,we have
$$f(f(x)+xf(0))=x+f(0)$$
so we have
$$f(f(x+f(0))=x+f(0)$$
then $$f(f(x))=x$$
and $f(x)=x$ is one solution but I can't argue this to be the only solution.
It doesn't seem easy.Thank for you help!
functions
1
Are we at least assuming continuity/differentiability?
– MisterRiemann
Nov 21 at 12:13
no,This condtion,if have I can to solve
– function sug
Nov 21 at 12:24
Specializing the equation to the case $y = x$ gives $f(hat x) = hat x$, where $hat x = x + f(x) + x f(x)$, so we can immediately conclude that $fvert_A(x) = x$ on the image of $x mapsto x + f(x) + x f(x)$.
– Travis
Nov 21 at 12:34
The problem was given at IMO 1995, see for example here artofproblemsolving.com/community/c6h506p1611 but with a much stronger constraint on its domain and monotonicity. Note that in that case the nontrivial $f(x) = -frac{x}{x+1}$ is also a solution(which obviously doesn't work here because $x=-1$ is in the domain. All in all, I expect a hard solution for this problem.
– Sorin Tirc
Nov 21 at 12:47
Note that $f(f(x))=x$ means that f is an involution. Other common involutions include $f:xrightarrow-x$ and $f:xrightarrow frac{1}{x}$ and $f:xrightarrow frac{-1}{x}$ even if these don't work here. or you can try this involution
– TheD0ubleT
Nov 22 at 9:02
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
7
down vote
favorite
up vote
7
down vote
favorite
find all functions $f:Bbb Rto Bbb R$ and such for any $x,yinBbb R$,and such
$$f(x+f(y)+yf(x))=y+f(x)+xf(y)$$
I have proven that $$f(f(x))=x$$
proof:Let $y=0$,we have
$$f(x+f(0))=f(x)+xf(0)$$
let $x=0,yto x$,we have
$$f(f(x)+xf(0))=x+f(0)$$
so we have
$$f(f(x+f(0))=x+f(0)$$
then $$f(f(x))=x$$
and $f(x)=x$ is one solution but I can't argue this to be the only solution.
It doesn't seem easy.Thank for you help!
functions
find all functions $f:Bbb Rto Bbb R$ and such for any $x,yinBbb R$,and such
$$f(x+f(y)+yf(x))=y+f(x)+xf(y)$$
I have proven that $$f(f(x))=x$$
proof:Let $y=0$,we have
$$f(x+f(0))=f(x)+xf(0)$$
let $x=0,yto x$,we have
$$f(f(x)+xf(0))=x+f(0)$$
so we have
$$f(f(x+f(0))=x+f(0)$$
then $$f(f(x))=x$$
and $f(x)=x$ is one solution but I can't argue this to be the only solution.
It doesn't seem easy.Thank for you help!
functions
functions
edited Dec 2 at 17:11
Mostafa Ayaz
13.4k3836
13.4k3836
asked Nov 21 at 12:08
function sug
3101438
3101438
1
Are we at least assuming continuity/differentiability?
– MisterRiemann
Nov 21 at 12:13
no,This condtion,if have I can to solve
– function sug
Nov 21 at 12:24
Specializing the equation to the case $y = x$ gives $f(hat x) = hat x$, where $hat x = x + f(x) + x f(x)$, so we can immediately conclude that $fvert_A(x) = x$ on the image of $x mapsto x + f(x) + x f(x)$.
– Travis
Nov 21 at 12:34
The problem was given at IMO 1995, see for example here artofproblemsolving.com/community/c6h506p1611 but with a much stronger constraint on its domain and monotonicity. Note that in that case the nontrivial $f(x) = -frac{x}{x+1}$ is also a solution(which obviously doesn't work here because $x=-1$ is in the domain. All in all, I expect a hard solution for this problem.
– Sorin Tirc
Nov 21 at 12:47
Note that $f(f(x))=x$ means that f is an involution. Other common involutions include $f:xrightarrow-x$ and $f:xrightarrow frac{1}{x}$ and $f:xrightarrow frac{-1}{x}$ even if these don't work here. or you can try this involution
– TheD0ubleT
Nov 22 at 9:02
|
show 1 more comment
1
Are we at least assuming continuity/differentiability?
– MisterRiemann
Nov 21 at 12:13
no,This condtion,if have I can to solve
– function sug
Nov 21 at 12:24
Specializing the equation to the case $y = x$ gives $f(hat x) = hat x$, where $hat x = x + f(x) + x f(x)$, so we can immediately conclude that $fvert_A(x) = x$ on the image of $x mapsto x + f(x) + x f(x)$.
– Travis
Nov 21 at 12:34
The problem was given at IMO 1995, see for example here artofproblemsolving.com/community/c6h506p1611 but with a much stronger constraint on its domain and monotonicity. Note that in that case the nontrivial $f(x) = -frac{x}{x+1}$ is also a solution(which obviously doesn't work here because $x=-1$ is in the domain. All in all, I expect a hard solution for this problem.
– Sorin Tirc
Nov 21 at 12:47
Note that $f(f(x))=x$ means that f is an involution. Other common involutions include $f:xrightarrow-x$ and $f:xrightarrow frac{1}{x}$ and $f:xrightarrow frac{-1}{x}$ even if these don't work here. or you can try this involution
– TheD0ubleT
Nov 22 at 9:02
1
1
Are we at least assuming continuity/differentiability?
– MisterRiemann
Nov 21 at 12:13
Are we at least assuming continuity/differentiability?
– MisterRiemann
Nov 21 at 12:13
no,This condtion,if have I can to solve
– function sug
Nov 21 at 12:24
no,This condtion,if have I can to solve
– function sug
Nov 21 at 12:24
Specializing the equation to the case $y = x$ gives $f(hat x) = hat x$, where $hat x = x + f(x) + x f(x)$, so we can immediately conclude that $fvert_A(x) = x$ on the image of $x mapsto x + f(x) + x f(x)$.
– Travis
Nov 21 at 12:34
Specializing the equation to the case $y = x$ gives $f(hat x) = hat x$, where $hat x = x + f(x) + x f(x)$, so we can immediately conclude that $fvert_A(x) = x$ on the image of $x mapsto x + f(x) + x f(x)$.
– Travis
Nov 21 at 12:34
The problem was given at IMO 1995, see for example here artofproblemsolving.com/community/c6h506p1611 but with a much stronger constraint on its domain and monotonicity. Note that in that case the nontrivial $f(x) = -frac{x}{x+1}$ is also a solution(which obviously doesn't work here because $x=-1$ is in the domain. All in all, I expect a hard solution for this problem.
– Sorin Tirc
Nov 21 at 12:47
The problem was given at IMO 1995, see for example here artofproblemsolving.com/community/c6h506p1611 but with a much stronger constraint on its domain and monotonicity. Note that in that case the nontrivial $f(x) = -frac{x}{x+1}$ is also a solution(which obviously doesn't work here because $x=-1$ is in the domain. All in all, I expect a hard solution for this problem.
– Sorin Tirc
Nov 21 at 12:47
Note that $f(f(x))=x$ means that f is an involution. Other common involutions include $f:xrightarrow-x$ and $f:xrightarrow frac{1}{x}$ and $f:xrightarrow frac{-1}{x}$ even if these don't work here. or you can try this involution
– TheD0ubleT
Nov 22 at 9:02
Note that $f(f(x))=x$ means that f is an involution. Other common involutions include $f:xrightarrow-x$ and $f:xrightarrow frac{1}{x}$ and $f:xrightarrow frac{-1}{x}$ even if these don't work here. or you can try this involution
– TheD0ubleT
Nov 22 at 9:02
|
show 1 more comment
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
This is only a partial result (EDIT: full result is given below), but I'll post it anyway. Let us write $(x,y)$ if $y = f(x)$ holds. Since $f(f(x)) = x$, $(x,y)$ is equivalent to $(y,x)$ and $(x,y)wedge (x,y')$ implies $y= y'$. What we can directly observe is that $0= f(f(0)) = f(0)$ by letting $x=y=0$. What is less trivial is $f(1) = 1$. Let $gamma =f(1)$. Then by letting $y = 1$ and $y= gamma$, we get
$$
(x+ gamma + f(x),1+ f(x) +gamma x)wedge ;(x + 1+gamma f(x), gamma + f(x) +x).$$
Hence, $1+ f(x) +gamma x = x + 1+gamma f(x)$ for all $x$, and if $gamma neq 1$, then $f(x) = x$, leading to contradiction.
We next show that $$(-frac{f(x) - f(x')}{x-x'}, -frac{x-x'}{f(x) - f(x')}),quad forall xneq x';cdots(*).$$ Assume $(a,b)wedge (x,y)wedge (x',y').$ Then, by the FE,
$$
(a+x+by, b+y +ax)wedge (a+x'+by', b+y' +ax').
$$ We can equate $b+y +ax$ and $ b+y' +ax'$ by letting $a= -frac{y-y'}{x-x'}$. Then $b$ should satisfy $a+x+by = a+x'+by'$, that is, $ b= -frac{x-x'}{y-y'}.$ Because $y = f(x), y' = f(x')$, this proves the claim.
From the previous claim, we know that $(-1,-1)$, i.e. $f(-1) = -1$. By letting $x' = 0, - 1$, we also know that $(x,y)$ implies
$$(-frac{y}{x}, -frac{x}{y})wedge (-frac{y+ 1}{x + 1}, -frac{x+ 1}{y + 1}).
$$If we write $-frac{y-y'}{x-x'}= k$, then $(-frac{1/k+ 1}{k + 1}, -frac{k+ 1}{1/k + 1}) = (-frac{1}{k}, -k)$ also shows that $(frac{y-y'}{x-x'}, frac{x-x'}{y-y'})$ whenever $xneq x'$. Next, by putting $y=-1$ in the original functional equation, we also have $(x,y)$ implies
$$(x-y-1, y-x-1).$$ Iterating this $n$ times we also have
$$(2^n(x-y)-1, 2^n(y-x)-1) ;cdots (**).
$$
Our next claim is that if $(x,x) vee (x, x+2^{1-N})$, then $(x+ 2^{-N}, x+2^{-N})$ ($Ngeq 0$.) To show this, let us write $(x+ 2^{-N}, alpha)$ and derive an equation about $alpha$. If $(x,x)$, $(*)$ implies $( 2^N(x-alpha ), frac{1}{2^N(x-alpha )})$. By applying $(**)$ to $(x+ 2^{-N}, alpha)$ we also have $(2^N(x-alpha), 2^N(alpha-x)-2)$. Hence, $2^N(alpha-x)-2 = frac{1}{2^N(x-alpha )}$ and this implies $2^N(x-alpha )=-1$ as desired. In case $(x, x+2^{1-N})$ can be dealt with similarly by noting that $(-2^N(x-alpha )-2, - frac{1}{2^N(x-alpha )+2})$.
A very similar argument can also prove that
$$(x,x) vee (x, x-2^{1-N})Rightarrow (x-2^{-N}, x-2^{-N}).$$
So far, all the tedious arguments show that $f(x) = x$ holds for every dyadic rationals $x=frac{j}{2^n}$, that is, the set $F$ of fixed points of $f$ contains every dyadic rational. The following are some other facts about $F$:
(i) If $(x,y)$, then $x+y+xy$ and $x+y+1$ belongs to $F$.
(ii) If $x,y in F$, then $x+y+xy in F$.
(iii) If $x in F$, then $xpm frac{j}{2^n}in F$. (Above claim)
And for some $(x,f(x))$ such that $xnotin F$, this generates so many non-fixed pairs
$$(pm left[frac{f(x) - q}{x-q}right]^r,pm left[frac{x- q}{f(x)-q}right]^r), quad (x+q+qf(x),f(x)+q+qx)_{q neq 1},$$ for all dyadic rational $q$ and $rin mathbf{N}$.
I tried but failed to get further ideas about how $F$ and $mathbf{R}setminus F$ looks like. But I wish this helps somehow.
(Note: Actually in the above proposition, $(x, xpm 2^{1-N})$ cannot occur since their difference cannot be in $F$.)
Following yesterday's post, I've completed proof: $f = id$ is the only solution of the equation.
I'll briefly review some facts already proved.
(i) $F + mathbf{Q}_{dyad} = F.$
(ii) If $x,y in F$, then $xy in F$, or equivalently, $Fcdot F = F$. (Since $x-1, y-1 in F$ implies $xy -1in F$ and thus $xy in F$.)
(iii) If $(x,y)$, then $x+y, ;xy + x+ y in F$.
Our claim starts with: If $0neq x in F$, then $frac{1}{x} in F$. Proof is simple. Let $(frac{1}{x},gamma).$ Then $gamma +frac{1}{x}in F$. Since $xin F$, $gamma x + 1 in F$, and $gamma x in F$. Note that $(gamma x, frac{1}{gamma x}).$(slope of $(frac{1}{x},gamma),(0,0).$) This shows $gamma = pm frac{1}{x}.$ If it were that $(frac{1}{x},-frac{1}{x})$, then $frac{1}{x^2} in F$. This implies that $xcdotfrac{1}{x^2}=frac{1}{x} in F$, as desired.
Our next claim is that $(x,y)$ implies $xy in F$. We start from $x+y, ;x+y+xy in F$. If $x+y =0$, it's already done. Otherwise, $frac{x+y+xy}{x+y} = 1+ frac{xy}{x+y} in F$, hence $frac{xy}{x+y}in F$. Then this implies $$(x+y)cdot frac{xy}{x+y} = xy in F.$$
Our almost final claim is that $0< y in F$ implies $sqrt{y} in F$. Suppose $(sqrt[4]{y}, gamma)$. Then $gamma^2 sqrt{y} in F$. Since $frac{1}{y} in F$, we have $frac{gamma^2}{sqrt{y}} in F.$ Notice that $(frac{gamma}{sqrt[4]{y}}, frac{sqrt[4]{y}}{gamma})$ and hence $(frac{gamma^2}{sqrt{y}}, frac{sqrt{y}}{gamma^2})$ Thus we have $gamma^4 = y$, $gamma = pm sqrt[4]{y}$. Suppose $gamma = sqrt[4]{y}$. Then, $sqrt[4]{y} in F$ implies $sqrt{y} in F$. Otherwise, $(sqrt[4]{y}, -sqrt[4]{y})$ implies $-sqrt{y} in F$. Thus $sqrt{y} in F.$
Finally we are ready to prove that $(x,y)$ implies $ x-y=d =0$. Assume to the contrary that $d>0$. Then, as I showed in yesterday's post, $(d-1, -d-1).$ But this implies $(-1+d)cdot(-1-d) = 1-d^2 in F$, and thus $d^2 in F.$ So $d$ must be in $F$ and $d-1$ also. This leads to $d-1 = -d-1$, contradicting $d>0$. So, the only solution of the functional equation is $f(x) = x$!
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
There is a proof given by Professor Wu Wei-chao in 2001, you may download the paper here.
Here is the overview of the proof:
$f$ is one-to-one, and $$f(0)=0,tag{2}$$
$forall yinBbb Rsetminus {0}$, $$fleft(-frac y{f(y)}right)=-frac{f(y)}y,qquad fleft(-frac{f(y)}yright)=-frac y{f(y)},tag{8,9}$$
$$f(pm1)=pm1,tag{11,12}$$
$forall xinBbb R$,
$$f(x+f(x)+1)=f(x)+x+1,qquad f(x-f(x)-1)=-x+f(x)-1tag{13,14}$$$$f(pm2)=pm2,tag{23,29}$$
$$(f(pmsqrt2))^2=2,qquad(f(pmfrac 1{sqrt2}))^2=frac12,tag{42,46}$$
$forall xinBbb R$,
$$f(3x-4)=-3f(-x)-4.tag{47}$$
Introduce 5 lemmas,
Lemma 4. $forall ain Bbb R$, if $$tag{58}f(-x-a)=-f(x)-a,qquad (forall xinBbb R)$$ and $$tag{59}f(x-f(x)-dfrac {a^2}4)=f(x)-x-dfrac {a^2}4,qquad (forall xinBbb R)$$
then
$$f(x)=xqquad (forall xinBbb R).$$
Saparate into 3 cases and finish the proof.
Case 1: $f(pmsqrt 2)=pmsqrt 2implies f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb R$).
Case 2: $f(pmsqrt 2)=mpsqrt 2, f(pmfrac 1{sqrt2})=pmfrac 1{sqrt2}implies$ contradition to injectivitiy of $f$.
Case 3: $f(pmsqrt 2)=mpsqrt 2, f(pmfrac 1{sqrt2})=mpfrac 1{sqrt2}implies$ contradition to $f(sqrt 2)=-sqrt 2$.
Wu also generalized the result.
Generalization: Suppose $F$ is a field or a ring, $Bbb Zsubseteq Fsubseteq Bbb C$, and $f:Fto F$ satisifies
$$f(x+f(y)+yf(x))=y+f(x)+xf(y),$$
if $F=Bbb R$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb R$);
if $F=Bbb C$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb C$) or $f(x)=overline x$ ($forall xinBbb C$);
if $F=Bbb Q$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb Q$);
if $F=Bbb Z$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb Z$);
if $F={a+brmid forall a,binBbb Q}$, where $r$ is fixed irrational and $r^2inBbb Q$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xin F$) or $f(x)=overline x$ ($forall xin F$), here we define $overline{a+br}=a-br$;
if $F={a+brmid forall a,binBbb Z}$, where $r$ is fixed irrational and $r^2inBbb Z$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xin F$) or $f(x)=overline x$ ($forall xin F$), here we define $overline{a+br}=a-br$.
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
This is only a partial result (EDIT: full result is given below), but I'll post it anyway. Let us write $(x,y)$ if $y = f(x)$ holds. Since $f(f(x)) = x$, $(x,y)$ is equivalent to $(y,x)$ and $(x,y)wedge (x,y')$ implies $y= y'$. What we can directly observe is that $0= f(f(0)) = f(0)$ by letting $x=y=0$. What is less trivial is $f(1) = 1$. Let $gamma =f(1)$. Then by letting $y = 1$ and $y= gamma$, we get
$$
(x+ gamma + f(x),1+ f(x) +gamma x)wedge ;(x + 1+gamma f(x), gamma + f(x) +x).$$
Hence, $1+ f(x) +gamma x = x + 1+gamma f(x)$ for all $x$, and if $gamma neq 1$, then $f(x) = x$, leading to contradiction.
We next show that $$(-frac{f(x) - f(x')}{x-x'}, -frac{x-x'}{f(x) - f(x')}),quad forall xneq x';cdots(*).$$ Assume $(a,b)wedge (x,y)wedge (x',y').$ Then, by the FE,
$$
(a+x+by, b+y +ax)wedge (a+x'+by', b+y' +ax').
$$ We can equate $b+y +ax$ and $ b+y' +ax'$ by letting $a= -frac{y-y'}{x-x'}$. Then $b$ should satisfy $a+x+by = a+x'+by'$, that is, $ b= -frac{x-x'}{y-y'}.$ Because $y = f(x), y' = f(x')$, this proves the claim.
From the previous claim, we know that $(-1,-1)$, i.e. $f(-1) = -1$. By letting $x' = 0, - 1$, we also know that $(x,y)$ implies
$$(-frac{y}{x}, -frac{x}{y})wedge (-frac{y+ 1}{x + 1}, -frac{x+ 1}{y + 1}).
$$If we write $-frac{y-y'}{x-x'}= k$, then $(-frac{1/k+ 1}{k + 1}, -frac{k+ 1}{1/k + 1}) = (-frac{1}{k}, -k)$ also shows that $(frac{y-y'}{x-x'}, frac{x-x'}{y-y'})$ whenever $xneq x'$. Next, by putting $y=-1$ in the original functional equation, we also have $(x,y)$ implies
$$(x-y-1, y-x-1).$$ Iterating this $n$ times we also have
$$(2^n(x-y)-1, 2^n(y-x)-1) ;cdots (**).
$$
Our next claim is that if $(x,x) vee (x, x+2^{1-N})$, then $(x+ 2^{-N}, x+2^{-N})$ ($Ngeq 0$.) To show this, let us write $(x+ 2^{-N}, alpha)$ and derive an equation about $alpha$. If $(x,x)$, $(*)$ implies $( 2^N(x-alpha ), frac{1}{2^N(x-alpha )})$. By applying $(**)$ to $(x+ 2^{-N}, alpha)$ we also have $(2^N(x-alpha), 2^N(alpha-x)-2)$. Hence, $2^N(alpha-x)-2 = frac{1}{2^N(x-alpha )}$ and this implies $2^N(x-alpha )=-1$ as desired. In case $(x, x+2^{1-N})$ can be dealt with similarly by noting that $(-2^N(x-alpha )-2, - frac{1}{2^N(x-alpha )+2})$.
A very similar argument can also prove that
$$(x,x) vee (x, x-2^{1-N})Rightarrow (x-2^{-N}, x-2^{-N}).$$
So far, all the tedious arguments show that $f(x) = x$ holds for every dyadic rationals $x=frac{j}{2^n}$, that is, the set $F$ of fixed points of $f$ contains every dyadic rational. The following are some other facts about $F$:
(i) If $(x,y)$, then $x+y+xy$ and $x+y+1$ belongs to $F$.
(ii) If $x,y in F$, then $x+y+xy in F$.
(iii) If $x in F$, then $xpm frac{j}{2^n}in F$. (Above claim)
And for some $(x,f(x))$ such that $xnotin F$, this generates so many non-fixed pairs
$$(pm left[frac{f(x) - q}{x-q}right]^r,pm left[frac{x- q}{f(x)-q}right]^r), quad (x+q+qf(x),f(x)+q+qx)_{q neq 1},$$ for all dyadic rational $q$ and $rin mathbf{N}$.
I tried but failed to get further ideas about how $F$ and $mathbf{R}setminus F$ looks like. But I wish this helps somehow.
(Note: Actually in the above proposition, $(x, xpm 2^{1-N})$ cannot occur since their difference cannot be in $F$.)
Following yesterday's post, I've completed proof: $f = id$ is the only solution of the equation.
I'll briefly review some facts already proved.
(i) $F + mathbf{Q}_{dyad} = F.$
(ii) If $x,y in F$, then $xy in F$, or equivalently, $Fcdot F = F$. (Since $x-1, y-1 in F$ implies $xy -1in F$ and thus $xy in F$.)
(iii) If $(x,y)$, then $x+y, ;xy + x+ y in F$.
Our claim starts with: If $0neq x in F$, then $frac{1}{x} in F$. Proof is simple. Let $(frac{1}{x},gamma).$ Then $gamma +frac{1}{x}in F$. Since $xin F$, $gamma x + 1 in F$, and $gamma x in F$. Note that $(gamma x, frac{1}{gamma x}).$(slope of $(frac{1}{x},gamma),(0,0).$) This shows $gamma = pm frac{1}{x}.$ If it were that $(frac{1}{x},-frac{1}{x})$, then $frac{1}{x^2} in F$. This implies that $xcdotfrac{1}{x^2}=frac{1}{x} in F$, as desired.
Our next claim is that $(x,y)$ implies $xy in F$. We start from $x+y, ;x+y+xy in F$. If $x+y =0$, it's already done. Otherwise, $frac{x+y+xy}{x+y} = 1+ frac{xy}{x+y} in F$, hence $frac{xy}{x+y}in F$. Then this implies $$(x+y)cdot frac{xy}{x+y} = xy in F.$$
Our almost final claim is that $0< y in F$ implies $sqrt{y} in F$. Suppose $(sqrt[4]{y}, gamma)$. Then $gamma^2 sqrt{y} in F$. Since $frac{1}{y} in F$, we have $frac{gamma^2}{sqrt{y}} in F.$ Notice that $(frac{gamma}{sqrt[4]{y}}, frac{sqrt[4]{y}}{gamma})$ and hence $(frac{gamma^2}{sqrt{y}}, frac{sqrt{y}}{gamma^2})$ Thus we have $gamma^4 = y$, $gamma = pm sqrt[4]{y}$. Suppose $gamma = sqrt[4]{y}$. Then, $sqrt[4]{y} in F$ implies $sqrt{y} in F$. Otherwise, $(sqrt[4]{y}, -sqrt[4]{y})$ implies $-sqrt{y} in F$. Thus $sqrt{y} in F.$
Finally we are ready to prove that $(x,y)$ implies $ x-y=d =0$. Assume to the contrary that $d>0$. Then, as I showed in yesterday's post, $(d-1, -d-1).$ But this implies $(-1+d)cdot(-1-d) = 1-d^2 in F$, and thus $d^2 in F.$ So $d$ must be in $F$ and $d-1$ also. This leads to $d-1 = -d-1$, contradicting $d>0$. So, the only solution of the functional equation is $f(x) = x$!
add a comment |
up vote
4
down vote
This is only a partial result (EDIT: full result is given below), but I'll post it anyway. Let us write $(x,y)$ if $y = f(x)$ holds. Since $f(f(x)) = x$, $(x,y)$ is equivalent to $(y,x)$ and $(x,y)wedge (x,y')$ implies $y= y'$. What we can directly observe is that $0= f(f(0)) = f(0)$ by letting $x=y=0$. What is less trivial is $f(1) = 1$. Let $gamma =f(1)$. Then by letting $y = 1$ and $y= gamma$, we get
$$
(x+ gamma + f(x),1+ f(x) +gamma x)wedge ;(x + 1+gamma f(x), gamma + f(x) +x).$$
Hence, $1+ f(x) +gamma x = x + 1+gamma f(x)$ for all $x$, and if $gamma neq 1$, then $f(x) = x$, leading to contradiction.
We next show that $$(-frac{f(x) - f(x')}{x-x'}, -frac{x-x'}{f(x) - f(x')}),quad forall xneq x';cdots(*).$$ Assume $(a,b)wedge (x,y)wedge (x',y').$ Then, by the FE,
$$
(a+x+by, b+y +ax)wedge (a+x'+by', b+y' +ax').
$$ We can equate $b+y +ax$ and $ b+y' +ax'$ by letting $a= -frac{y-y'}{x-x'}$. Then $b$ should satisfy $a+x+by = a+x'+by'$, that is, $ b= -frac{x-x'}{y-y'}.$ Because $y = f(x), y' = f(x')$, this proves the claim.
From the previous claim, we know that $(-1,-1)$, i.e. $f(-1) = -1$. By letting $x' = 0, - 1$, we also know that $(x,y)$ implies
$$(-frac{y}{x}, -frac{x}{y})wedge (-frac{y+ 1}{x + 1}, -frac{x+ 1}{y + 1}).
$$If we write $-frac{y-y'}{x-x'}= k$, then $(-frac{1/k+ 1}{k + 1}, -frac{k+ 1}{1/k + 1}) = (-frac{1}{k}, -k)$ also shows that $(frac{y-y'}{x-x'}, frac{x-x'}{y-y'})$ whenever $xneq x'$. Next, by putting $y=-1$ in the original functional equation, we also have $(x,y)$ implies
$$(x-y-1, y-x-1).$$ Iterating this $n$ times we also have
$$(2^n(x-y)-1, 2^n(y-x)-1) ;cdots (**).
$$
Our next claim is that if $(x,x) vee (x, x+2^{1-N})$, then $(x+ 2^{-N}, x+2^{-N})$ ($Ngeq 0$.) To show this, let us write $(x+ 2^{-N}, alpha)$ and derive an equation about $alpha$. If $(x,x)$, $(*)$ implies $( 2^N(x-alpha ), frac{1}{2^N(x-alpha )})$. By applying $(**)$ to $(x+ 2^{-N}, alpha)$ we also have $(2^N(x-alpha), 2^N(alpha-x)-2)$. Hence, $2^N(alpha-x)-2 = frac{1}{2^N(x-alpha )}$ and this implies $2^N(x-alpha )=-1$ as desired. In case $(x, x+2^{1-N})$ can be dealt with similarly by noting that $(-2^N(x-alpha )-2, - frac{1}{2^N(x-alpha )+2})$.
A very similar argument can also prove that
$$(x,x) vee (x, x-2^{1-N})Rightarrow (x-2^{-N}, x-2^{-N}).$$
So far, all the tedious arguments show that $f(x) = x$ holds for every dyadic rationals $x=frac{j}{2^n}$, that is, the set $F$ of fixed points of $f$ contains every dyadic rational. The following are some other facts about $F$:
(i) If $(x,y)$, then $x+y+xy$ and $x+y+1$ belongs to $F$.
(ii) If $x,y in F$, then $x+y+xy in F$.
(iii) If $x in F$, then $xpm frac{j}{2^n}in F$. (Above claim)
And for some $(x,f(x))$ such that $xnotin F$, this generates so many non-fixed pairs
$$(pm left[frac{f(x) - q}{x-q}right]^r,pm left[frac{x- q}{f(x)-q}right]^r), quad (x+q+qf(x),f(x)+q+qx)_{q neq 1},$$ for all dyadic rational $q$ and $rin mathbf{N}$.
I tried but failed to get further ideas about how $F$ and $mathbf{R}setminus F$ looks like. But I wish this helps somehow.
(Note: Actually in the above proposition, $(x, xpm 2^{1-N})$ cannot occur since their difference cannot be in $F$.)
Following yesterday's post, I've completed proof: $f = id$ is the only solution of the equation.
I'll briefly review some facts already proved.
(i) $F + mathbf{Q}_{dyad} = F.$
(ii) If $x,y in F$, then $xy in F$, or equivalently, $Fcdot F = F$. (Since $x-1, y-1 in F$ implies $xy -1in F$ and thus $xy in F$.)
(iii) If $(x,y)$, then $x+y, ;xy + x+ y in F$.
Our claim starts with: If $0neq x in F$, then $frac{1}{x} in F$. Proof is simple. Let $(frac{1}{x},gamma).$ Then $gamma +frac{1}{x}in F$. Since $xin F$, $gamma x + 1 in F$, and $gamma x in F$. Note that $(gamma x, frac{1}{gamma x}).$(slope of $(frac{1}{x},gamma),(0,0).$) This shows $gamma = pm frac{1}{x}.$ If it were that $(frac{1}{x},-frac{1}{x})$, then $frac{1}{x^2} in F$. This implies that $xcdotfrac{1}{x^2}=frac{1}{x} in F$, as desired.
Our next claim is that $(x,y)$ implies $xy in F$. We start from $x+y, ;x+y+xy in F$. If $x+y =0$, it's already done. Otherwise, $frac{x+y+xy}{x+y} = 1+ frac{xy}{x+y} in F$, hence $frac{xy}{x+y}in F$. Then this implies $$(x+y)cdot frac{xy}{x+y} = xy in F.$$
Our almost final claim is that $0< y in F$ implies $sqrt{y} in F$. Suppose $(sqrt[4]{y}, gamma)$. Then $gamma^2 sqrt{y} in F$. Since $frac{1}{y} in F$, we have $frac{gamma^2}{sqrt{y}} in F.$ Notice that $(frac{gamma}{sqrt[4]{y}}, frac{sqrt[4]{y}}{gamma})$ and hence $(frac{gamma^2}{sqrt{y}}, frac{sqrt{y}}{gamma^2})$ Thus we have $gamma^4 = y$, $gamma = pm sqrt[4]{y}$. Suppose $gamma = sqrt[4]{y}$. Then, $sqrt[4]{y} in F$ implies $sqrt{y} in F$. Otherwise, $(sqrt[4]{y}, -sqrt[4]{y})$ implies $-sqrt{y} in F$. Thus $sqrt{y} in F.$
Finally we are ready to prove that $(x,y)$ implies $ x-y=d =0$. Assume to the contrary that $d>0$. Then, as I showed in yesterday's post, $(d-1, -d-1).$ But this implies $(-1+d)cdot(-1-d) = 1-d^2 in F$, and thus $d^2 in F.$ So $d$ must be in $F$ and $d-1$ also. This leads to $d-1 = -d-1$, contradicting $d>0$. So, the only solution of the functional equation is $f(x) = x$!
add a comment |
up vote
4
down vote
up vote
4
down vote
This is only a partial result (EDIT: full result is given below), but I'll post it anyway. Let us write $(x,y)$ if $y = f(x)$ holds. Since $f(f(x)) = x$, $(x,y)$ is equivalent to $(y,x)$ and $(x,y)wedge (x,y')$ implies $y= y'$. What we can directly observe is that $0= f(f(0)) = f(0)$ by letting $x=y=0$. What is less trivial is $f(1) = 1$. Let $gamma =f(1)$. Then by letting $y = 1$ and $y= gamma$, we get
$$
(x+ gamma + f(x),1+ f(x) +gamma x)wedge ;(x + 1+gamma f(x), gamma + f(x) +x).$$
Hence, $1+ f(x) +gamma x = x + 1+gamma f(x)$ for all $x$, and if $gamma neq 1$, then $f(x) = x$, leading to contradiction.
We next show that $$(-frac{f(x) - f(x')}{x-x'}, -frac{x-x'}{f(x) - f(x')}),quad forall xneq x';cdots(*).$$ Assume $(a,b)wedge (x,y)wedge (x',y').$ Then, by the FE,
$$
(a+x+by, b+y +ax)wedge (a+x'+by', b+y' +ax').
$$ We can equate $b+y +ax$ and $ b+y' +ax'$ by letting $a= -frac{y-y'}{x-x'}$. Then $b$ should satisfy $a+x+by = a+x'+by'$, that is, $ b= -frac{x-x'}{y-y'}.$ Because $y = f(x), y' = f(x')$, this proves the claim.
From the previous claim, we know that $(-1,-1)$, i.e. $f(-1) = -1$. By letting $x' = 0, - 1$, we also know that $(x,y)$ implies
$$(-frac{y}{x}, -frac{x}{y})wedge (-frac{y+ 1}{x + 1}, -frac{x+ 1}{y + 1}).
$$If we write $-frac{y-y'}{x-x'}= k$, then $(-frac{1/k+ 1}{k + 1}, -frac{k+ 1}{1/k + 1}) = (-frac{1}{k}, -k)$ also shows that $(frac{y-y'}{x-x'}, frac{x-x'}{y-y'})$ whenever $xneq x'$. Next, by putting $y=-1$ in the original functional equation, we also have $(x,y)$ implies
$$(x-y-1, y-x-1).$$ Iterating this $n$ times we also have
$$(2^n(x-y)-1, 2^n(y-x)-1) ;cdots (**).
$$
Our next claim is that if $(x,x) vee (x, x+2^{1-N})$, then $(x+ 2^{-N}, x+2^{-N})$ ($Ngeq 0$.) To show this, let us write $(x+ 2^{-N}, alpha)$ and derive an equation about $alpha$. If $(x,x)$, $(*)$ implies $( 2^N(x-alpha ), frac{1}{2^N(x-alpha )})$. By applying $(**)$ to $(x+ 2^{-N}, alpha)$ we also have $(2^N(x-alpha), 2^N(alpha-x)-2)$. Hence, $2^N(alpha-x)-2 = frac{1}{2^N(x-alpha )}$ and this implies $2^N(x-alpha )=-1$ as desired. In case $(x, x+2^{1-N})$ can be dealt with similarly by noting that $(-2^N(x-alpha )-2, - frac{1}{2^N(x-alpha )+2})$.
A very similar argument can also prove that
$$(x,x) vee (x, x-2^{1-N})Rightarrow (x-2^{-N}, x-2^{-N}).$$
So far, all the tedious arguments show that $f(x) = x$ holds for every dyadic rationals $x=frac{j}{2^n}$, that is, the set $F$ of fixed points of $f$ contains every dyadic rational. The following are some other facts about $F$:
(i) If $(x,y)$, then $x+y+xy$ and $x+y+1$ belongs to $F$.
(ii) If $x,y in F$, then $x+y+xy in F$.
(iii) If $x in F$, then $xpm frac{j}{2^n}in F$. (Above claim)
And for some $(x,f(x))$ such that $xnotin F$, this generates so many non-fixed pairs
$$(pm left[frac{f(x) - q}{x-q}right]^r,pm left[frac{x- q}{f(x)-q}right]^r), quad (x+q+qf(x),f(x)+q+qx)_{q neq 1},$$ for all dyadic rational $q$ and $rin mathbf{N}$.
I tried but failed to get further ideas about how $F$ and $mathbf{R}setminus F$ looks like. But I wish this helps somehow.
(Note: Actually in the above proposition, $(x, xpm 2^{1-N})$ cannot occur since their difference cannot be in $F$.)
Following yesterday's post, I've completed proof: $f = id$ is the only solution of the equation.
I'll briefly review some facts already proved.
(i) $F + mathbf{Q}_{dyad} = F.$
(ii) If $x,y in F$, then $xy in F$, or equivalently, $Fcdot F = F$. (Since $x-1, y-1 in F$ implies $xy -1in F$ and thus $xy in F$.)
(iii) If $(x,y)$, then $x+y, ;xy + x+ y in F$.
Our claim starts with: If $0neq x in F$, then $frac{1}{x} in F$. Proof is simple. Let $(frac{1}{x},gamma).$ Then $gamma +frac{1}{x}in F$. Since $xin F$, $gamma x + 1 in F$, and $gamma x in F$. Note that $(gamma x, frac{1}{gamma x}).$(slope of $(frac{1}{x},gamma),(0,0).$) This shows $gamma = pm frac{1}{x}.$ If it were that $(frac{1}{x},-frac{1}{x})$, then $frac{1}{x^2} in F$. This implies that $xcdotfrac{1}{x^2}=frac{1}{x} in F$, as desired.
Our next claim is that $(x,y)$ implies $xy in F$. We start from $x+y, ;x+y+xy in F$. If $x+y =0$, it's already done. Otherwise, $frac{x+y+xy}{x+y} = 1+ frac{xy}{x+y} in F$, hence $frac{xy}{x+y}in F$. Then this implies $$(x+y)cdot frac{xy}{x+y} = xy in F.$$
Our almost final claim is that $0< y in F$ implies $sqrt{y} in F$. Suppose $(sqrt[4]{y}, gamma)$. Then $gamma^2 sqrt{y} in F$. Since $frac{1}{y} in F$, we have $frac{gamma^2}{sqrt{y}} in F.$ Notice that $(frac{gamma}{sqrt[4]{y}}, frac{sqrt[4]{y}}{gamma})$ and hence $(frac{gamma^2}{sqrt{y}}, frac{sqrt{y}}{gamma^2})$ Thus we have $gamma^4 = y$, $gamma = pm sqrt[4]{y}$. Suppose $gamma = sqrt[4]{y}$. Then, $sqrt[4]{y} in F$ implies $sqrt{y} in F$. Otherwise, $(sqrt[4]{y}, -sqrt[4]{y})$ implies $-sqrt{y} in F$. Thus $sqrt{y} in F.$
Finally we are ready to prove that $(x,y)$ implies $ x-y=d =0$. Assume to the contrary that $d>0$. Then, as I showed in yesterday's post, $(d-1, -d-1).$ But this implies $(-1+d)cdot(-1-d) = 1-d^2 in F$, and thus $d^2 in F.$ So $d$ must be in $F$ and $d-1$ also. This leads to $d-1 = -d-1$, contradicting $d>0$. So, the only solution of the functional equation is $f(x) = x$!
This is only a partial result (EDIT: full result is given below), but I'll post it anyway. Let us write $(x,y)$ if $y = f(x)$ holds. Since $f(f(x)) = x$, $(x,y)$ is equivalent to $(y,x)$ and $(x,y)wedge (x,y')$ implies $y= y'$. What we can directly observe is that $0= f(f(0)) = f(0)$ by letting $x=y=0$. What is less trivial is $f(1) = 1$. Let $gamma =f(1)$. Then by letting $y = 1$ and $y= gamma$, we get
$$
(x+ gamma + f(x),1+ f(x) +gamma x)wedge ;(x + 1+gamma f(x), gamma + f(x) +x).$$
Hence, $1+ f(x) +gamma x = x + 1+gamma f(x)$ for all $x$, and if $gamma neq 1$, then $f(x) = x$, leading to contradiction.
We next show that $$(-frac{f(x) - f(x')}{x-x'}, -frac{x-x'}{f(x) - f(x')}),quad forall xneq x';cdots(*).$$ Assume $(a,b)wedge (x,y)wedge (x',y').$ Then, by the FE,
$$
(a+x+by, b+y +ax)wedge (a+x'+by', b+y' +ax').
$$ We can equate $b+y +ax$ and $ b+y' +ax'$ by letting $a= -frac{y-y'}{x-x'}$. Then $b$ should satisfy $a+x+by = a+x'+by'$, that is, $ b= -frac{x-x'}{y-y'}.$ Because $y = f(x), y' = f(x')$, this proves the claim.
From the previous claim, we know that $(-1,-1)$, i.e. $f(-1) = -1$. By letting $x' = 0, - 1$, we also know that $(x,y)$ implies
$$(-frac{y}{x}, -frac{x}{y})wedge (-frac{y+ 1}{x + 1}, -frac{x+ 1}{y + 1}).
$$If we write $-frac{y-y'}{x-x'}= k$, then $(-frac{1/k+ 1}{k + 1}, -frac{k+ 1}{1/k + 1}) = (-frac{1}{k}, -k)$ also shows that $(frac{y-y'}{x-x'}, frac{x-x'}{y-y'})$ whenever $xneq x'$. Next, by putting $y=-1$ in the original functional equation, we also have $(x,y)$ implies
$$(x-y-1, y-x-1).$$ Iterating this $n$ times we also have
$$(2^n(x-y)-1, 2^n(y-x)-1) ;cdots (**).
$$
Our next claim is that if $(x,x) vee (x, x+2^{1-N})$, then $(x+ 2^{-N}, x+2^{-N})$ ($Ngeq 0$.) To show this, let us write $(x+ 2^{-N}, alpha)$ and derive an equation about $alpha$. If $(x,x)$, $(*)$ implies $( 2^N(x-alpha ), frac{1}{2^N(x-alpha )})$. By applying $(**)$ to $(x+ 2^{-N}, alpha)$ we also have $(2^N(x-alpha), 2^N(alpha-x)-2)$. Hence, $2^N(alpha-x)-2 = frac{1}{2^N(x-alpha )}$ and this implies $2^N(x-alpha )=-1$ as desired. In case $(x, x+2^{1-N})$ can be dealt with similarly by noting that $(-2^N(x-alpha )-2, - frac{1}{2^N(x-alpha )+2})$.
A very similar argument can also prove that
$$(x,x) vee (x, x-2^{1-N})Rightarrow (x-2^{-N}, x-2^{-N}).$$
So far, all the tedious arguments show that $f(x) = x$ holds for every dyadic rationals $x=frac{j}{2^n}$, that is, the set $F$ of fixed points of $f$ contains every dyadic rational. The following are some other facts about $F$:
(i) If $(x,y)$, then $x+y+xy$ and $x+y+1$ belongs to $F$.
(ii) If $x,y in F$, then $x+y+xy in F$.
(iii) If $x in F$, then $xpm frac{j}{2^n}in F$. (Above claim)
And for some $(x,f(x))$ such that $xnotin F$, this generates so many non-fixed pairs
$$(pm left[frac{f(x) - q}{x-q}right]^r,pm left[frac{x- q}{f(x)-q}right]^r), quad (x+q+qf(x),f(x)+q+qx)_{q neq 1},$$ for all dyadic rational $q$ and $rin mathbf{N}$.
I tried but failed to get further ideas about how $F$ and $mathbf{R}setminus F$ looks like. But I wish this helps somehow.
(Note: Actually in the above proposition, $(x, xpm 2^{1-N})$ cannot occur since their difference cannot be in $F$.)
Following yesterday's post, I've completed proof: $f = id$ is the only solution of the equation.
I'll briefly review some facts already proved.
(i) $F + mathbf{Q}_{dyad} = F.$
(ii) If $x,y in F$, then $xy in F$, or equivalently, $Fcdot F = F$. (Since $x-1, y-1 in F$ implies $xy -1in F$ and thus $xy in F$.)
(iii) If $(x,y)$, then $x+y, ;xy + x+ y in F$.
Our claim starts with: If $0neq x in F$, then $frac{1}{x} in F$. Proof is simple. Let $(frac{1}{x},gamma).$ Then $gamma +frac{1}{x}in F$. Since $xin F$, $gamma x + 1 in F$, and $gamma x in F$. Note that $(gamma x, frac{1}{gamma x}).$(slope of $(frac{1}{x},gamma),(0,0).$) This shows $gamma = pm frac{1}{x}.$ If it were that $(frac{1}{x},-frac{1}{x})$, then $frac{1}{x^2} in F$. This implies that $xcdotfrac{1}{x^2}=frac{1}{x} in F$, as desired.
Our next claim is that $(x,y)$ implies $xy in F$. We start from $x+y, ;x+y+xy in F$. If $x+y =0$, it's already done. Otherwise, $frac{x+y+xy}{x+y} = 1+ frac{xy}{x+y} in F$, hence $frac{xy}{x+y}in F$. Then this implies $$(x+y)cdot frac{xy}{x+y} = xy in F.$$
Our almost final claim is that $0< y in F$ implies $sqrt{y} in F$. Suppose $(sqrt[4]{y}, gamma)$. Then $gamma^2 sqrt{y} in F$. Since $frac{1}{y} in F$, we have $frac{gamma^2}{sqrt{y}} in F.$ Notice that $(frac{gamma}{sqrt[4]{y}}, frac{sqrt[4]{y}}{gamma})$ and hence $(frac{gamma^2}{sqrt{y}}, frac{sqrt{y}}{gamma^2})$ Thus we have $gamma^4 = y$, $gamma = pm sqrt[4]{y}$. Suppose $gamma = sqrt[4]{y}$. Then, $sqrt[4]{y} in F$ implies $sqrt{y} in F$. Otherwise, $(sqrt[4]{y}, -sqrt[4]{y})$ implies $-sqrt{y} in F$. Thus $sqrt{y} in F.$
Finally we are ready to prove that $(x,y)$ implies $ x-y=d =0$. Assume to the contrary that $d>0$. Then, as I showed in yesterday's post, $(d-1, -d-1).$ But this implies $(-1+d)cdot(-1-d) = 1-d^2 in F$, and thus $d^2 in F.$ So $d$ must be in $F$ and $d-1$ also. This leads to $d-1 = -d-1$, contradicting $d>0$. So, the only solution of the functional equation is $f(x) = x$!
edited Nov 25 at 2:17
answered Nov 24 at 7:04
Song
1,940112
1,940112
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
There is a proof given by Professor Wu Wei-chao in 2001, you may download the paper here.
Here is the overview of the proof:
$f$ is one-to-one, and $$f(0)=0,tag{2}$$
$forall yinBbb Rsetminus {0}$, $$fleft(-frac y{f(y)}right)=-frac{f(y)}y,qquad fleft(-frac{f(y)}yright)=-frac y{f(y)},tag{8,9}$$
$$f(pm1)=pm1,tag{11,12}$$
$forall xinBbb R$,
$$f(x+f(x)+1)=f(x)+x+1,qquad f(x-f(x)-1)=-x+f(x)-1tag{13,14}$$$$f(pm2)=pm2,tag{23,29}$$
$$(f(pmsqrt2))^2=2,qquad(f(pmfrac 1{sqrt2}))^2=frac12,tag{42,46}$$
$forall xinBbb R$,
$$f(3x-4)=-3f(-x)-4.tag{47}$$
Introduce 5 lemmas,
Lemma 4. $forall ain Bbb R$, if $$tag{58}f(-x-a)=-f(x)-a,qquad (forall xinBbb R)$$ and $$tag{59}f(x-f(x)-dfrac {a^2}4)=f(x)-x-dfrac {a^2}4,qquad (forall xinBbb R)$$
then
$$f(x)=xqquad (forall xinBbb R).$$
Saparate into 3 cases and finish the proof.
Case 1: $f(pmsqrt 2)=pmsqrt 2implies f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb R$).
Case 2: $f(pmsqrt 2)=mpsqrt 2, f(pmfrac 1{sqrt2})=pmfrac 1{sqrt2}implies$ contradition to injectivitiy of $f$.
Case 3: $f(pmsqrt 2)=mpsqrt 2, f(pmfrac 1{sqrt2})=mpfrac 1{sqrt2}implies$ contradition to $f(sqrt 2)=-sqrt 2$.
Wu also generalized the result.
Generalization: Suppose $F$ is a field or a ring, $Bbb Zsubseteq Fsubseteq Bbb C$, and $f:Fto F$ satisifies
$$f(x+f(y)+yf(x))=y+f(x)+xf(y),$$
if $F=Bbb R$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb R$);
if $F=Bbb C$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb C$) or $f(x)=overline x$ ($forall xinBbb C$);
if $F=Bbb Q$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb Q$);
if $F=Bbb Z$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb Z$);
if $F={a+brmid forall a,binBbb Q}$, where $r$ is fixed irrational and $r^2inBbb Q$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xin F$) or $f(x)=overline x$ ($forall xin F$), here we define $overline{a+br}=a-br$;
if $F={a+brmid forall a,binBbb Z}$, where $r$ is fixed irrational and $r^2inBbb Z$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xin F$) or $f(x)=overline x$ ($forall xin F$), here we define $overline{a+br}=a-br$.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
There is a proof given by Professor Wu Wei-chao in 2001, you may download the paper here.
Here is the overview of the proof:
$f$ is one-to-one, and $$f(0)=0,tag{2}$$
$forall yinBbb Rsetminus {0}$, $$fleft(-frac y{f(y)}right)=-frac{f(y)}y,qquad fleft(-frac{f(y)}yright)=-frac y{f(y)},tag{8,9}$$
$$f(pm1)=pm1,tag{11,12}$$
$forall xinBbb R$,
$$f(x+f(x)+1)=f(x)+x+1,qquad f(x-f(x)-1)=-x+f(x)-1tag{13,14}$$$$f(pm2)=pm2,tag{23,29}$$
$$(f(pmsqrt2))^2=2,qquad(f(pmfrac 1{sqrt2}))^2=frac12,tag{42,46}$$
$forall xinBbb R$,
$$f(3x-4)=-3f(-x)-4.tag{47}$$
Introduce 5 lemmas,
Lemma 4. $forall ain Bbb R$, if $$tag{58}f(-x-a)=-f(x)-a,qquad (forall xinBbb R)$$ and $$tag{59}f(x-f(x)-dfrac {a^2}4)=f(x)-x-dfrac {a^2}4,qquad (forall xinBbb R)$$
then
$$f(x)=xqquad (forall xinBbb R).$$
Saparate into 3 cases and finish the proof.
Case 1: $f(pmsqrt 2)=pmsqrt 2implies f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb R$).
Case 2: $f(pmsqrt 2)=mpsqrt 2, f(pmfrac 1{sqrt2})=pmfrac 1{sqrt2}implies$ contradition to injectivitiy of $f$.
Case 3: $f(pmsqrt 2)=mpsqrt 2, f(pmfrac 1{sqrt2})=mpfrac 1{sqrt2}implies$ contradition to $f(sqrt 2)=-sqrt 2$.
Wu also generalized the result.
Generalization: Suppose $F$ is a field or a ring, $Bbb Zsubseteq Fsubseteq Bbb C$, and $f:Fto F$ satisifies
$$f(x+f(y)+yf(x))=y+f(x)+xf(y),$$
if $F=Bbb R$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb R$);
if $F=Bbb C$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb C$) or $f(x)=overline x$ ($forall xinBbb C$);
if $F=Bbb Q$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb Q$);
if $F=Bbb Z$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb Z$);
if $F={a+brmid forall a,binBbb Q}$, where $r$ is fixed irrational and $r^2inBbb Q$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xin F$) or $f(x)=overline x$ ($forall xin F$), here we define $overline{a+br}=a-br$;
if $F={a+brmid forall a,binBbb Z}$, where $r$ is fixed irrational and $r^2inBbb Z$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xin F$) or $f(x)=overline x$ ($forall xin F$), here we define $overline{a+br}=a-br$.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
There is a proof given by Professor Wu Wei-chao in 2001, you may download the paper here.
Here is the overview of the proof:
$f$ is one-to-one, and $$f(0)=0,tag{2}$$
$forall yinBbb Rsetminus {0}$, $$fleft(-frac y{f(y)}right)=-frac{f(y)}y,qquad fleft(-frac{f(y)}yright)=-frac y{f(y)},tag{8,9}$$
$$f(pm1)=pm1,tag{11,12}$$
$forall xinBbb R$,
$$f(x+f(x)+1)=f(x)+x+1,qquad f(x-f(x)-1)=-x+f(x)-1tag{13,14}$$$$f(pm2)=pm2,tag{23,29}$$
$$(f(pmsqrt2))^2=2,qquad(f(pmfrac 1{sqrt2}))^2=frac12,tag{42,46}$$
$forall xinBbb R$,
$$f(3x-4)=-3f(-x)-4.tag{47}$$
Introduce 5 lemmas,
Lemma 4. $forall ain Bbb R$, if $$tag{58}f(-x-a)=-f(x)-a,qquad (forall xinBbb R)$$ and $$tag{59}f(x-f(x)-dfrac {a^2}4)=f(x)-x-dfrac {a^2}4,qquad (forall xinBbb R)$$
then
$$f(x)=xqquad (forall xinBbb R).$$
Saparate into 3 cases and finish the proof.
Case 1: $f(pmsqrt 2)=pmsqrt 2implies f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb R$).
Case 2: $f(pmsqrt 2)=mpsqrt 2, f(pmfrac 1{sqrt2})=pmfrac 1{sqrt2}implies$ contradition to injectivitiy of $f$.
Case 3: $f(pmsqrt 2)=mpsqrt 2, f(pmfrac 1{sqrt2})=mpfrac 1{sqrt2}implies$ contradition to $f(sqrt 2)=-sqrt 2$.
Wu also generalized the result.
Generalization: Suppose $F$ is a field or a ring, $Bbb Zsubseteq Fsubseteq Bbb C$, and $f:Fto F$ satisifies
$$f(x+f(y)+yf(x))=y+f(x)+xf(y),$$
if $F=Bbb R$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb R$);
if $F=Bbb C$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb C$) or $f(x)=overline x$ ($forall xinBbb C$);
if $F=Bbb Q$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb Q$);
if $F=Bbb Z$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb Z$);
if $F={a+brmid forall a,binBbb Q}$, where $r$ is fixed irrational and $r^2inBbb Q$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xin F$) or $f(x)=overline x$ ($forall xin F$), here we define $overline{a+br}=a-br$;
if $F={a+brmid forall a,binBbb Z}$, where $r$ is fixed irrational and $r^2inBbb Z$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xin F$) or $f(x)=overline x$ ($forall xin F$), here we define $overline{a+br}=a-br$.
There is a proof given by Professor Wu Wei-chao in 2001, you may download the paper here.
Here is the overview of the proof:
$f$ is one-to-one, and $$f(0)=0,tag{2}$$
$forall yinBbb Rsetminus {0}$, $$fleft(-frac y{f(y)}right)=-frac{f(y)}y,qquad fleft(-frac{f(y)}yright)=-frac y{f(y)},tag{8,9}$$
$$f(pm1)=pm1,tag{11,12}$$
$forall xinBbb R$,
$$f(x+f(x)+1)=f(x)+x+1,qquad f(x-f(x)-1)=-x+f(x)-1tag{13,14}$$$$f(pm2)=pm2,tag{23,29}$$
$$(f(pmsqrt2))^2=2,qquad(f(pmfrac 1{sqrt2}))^2=frac12,tag{42,46}$$
$forall xinBbb R$,
$$f(3x-4)=-3f(-x)-4.tag{47}$$
Introduce 5 lemmas,
Lemma 4. $forall ain Bbb R$, if $$tag{58}f(-x-a)=-f(x)-a,qquad (forall xinBbb R)$$ and $$tag{59}f(x-f(x)-dfrac {a^2}4)=f(x)-x-dfrac {a^2}4,qquad (forall xinBbb R)$$
then
$$f(x)=xqquad (forall xinBbb R).$$
Saparate into 3 cases and finish the proof.
Case 1: $f(pmsqrt 2)=pmsqrt 2implies f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb R$).
Case 2: $f(pmsqrt 2)=mpsqrt 2, f(pmfrac 1{sqrt2})=pmfrac 1{sqrt2}implies$ contradition to injectivitiy of $f$.
Case 3: $f(pmsqrt 2)=mpsqrt 2, f(pmfrac 1{sqrt2})=mpfrac 1{sqrt2}implies$ contradition to $f(sqrt 2)=-sqrt 2$.
Wu also generalized the result.
Generalization: Suppose $F$ is a field or a ring, $Bbb Zsubseteq Fsubseteq Bbb C$, and $f:Fto F$ satisifies
$$f(x+f(y)+yf(x))=y+f(x)+xf(y),$$
if $F=Bbb R$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb R$);
if $F=Bbb C$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb C$) or $f(x)=overline x$ ($forall xinBbb C$);
if $F=Bbb Q$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb Q$);
if $F=Bbb Z$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xinBbb Z$);
if $F={a+brmid forall a,binBbb Q}$, where $r$ is fixed irrational and $r^2inBbb Q$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xin F$) or $f(x)=overline x$ ($forall xin F$), here we define $overline{a+br}=a-br$;
if $F={a+brmid forall a,binBbb Z}$, where $r$ is fixed irrational and $r^2inBbb Z$, then $f(x)=x$ ($forall xin F$) or $f(x)=overline x$ ($forall xin F$), here we define $overline{a+br}=a-br$.
edited Nov 27 at 16:35
answered Nov 27 at 15:54
Tianlalu
2,9901936
2,9901936
add a comment |
add a comment |
Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!
- Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!
But avoid …
- Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.
- Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.
Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.
To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.
Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.
Please pay close attention to the following guidance:
- Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!
But avoid …
- Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.
- Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.
To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3007645%2ffind-the-function-equation-fxfyyfx-yfxxfy%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
1
Are we at least assuming continuity/differentiability?
– MisterRiemann
Nov 21 at 12:13
no,This condtion,if have I can to solve
– function sug
Nov 21 at 12:24
Specializing the equation to the case $y = x$ gives $f(hat x) = hat x$, where $hat x = x + f(x) + x f(x)$, so we can immediately conclude that $fvert_A(x) = x$ on the image of $x mapsto x + f(x) + x f(x)$.
– Travis
Nov 21 at 12:34
The problem was given at IMO 1995, see for example here artofproblemsolving.com/community/c6h506p1611 but with a much stronger constraint on its domain and monotonicity. Note that in that case the nontrivial $f(x) = -frac{x}{x+1}$ is also a solution(which obviously doesn't work here because $x=-1$ is in the domain. All in all, I expect a hard solution for this problem.
– Sorin Tirc
Nov 21 at 12:47
Note that $f(f(x))=x$ means that f is an involution. Other common involutions include $f:xrightarrow-x$ and $f:xrightarrow frac{1}{x}$ and $f:xrightarrow frac{-1}{x}$ even if these don't work here. or you can try this involution
– TheD0ubleT
Nov 22 at 9:02