Understanding the motivation for the answer in Generalizing ODEs to Banach Spaces












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I am trying to understand this Answer: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2366187/597047 as I am curious about it.




  1. I do not fully understand what $Phi$ represents. What is the analogue of $Phi$ in the finite-dimensional case? What is meant by "solution mapping"?

  2. I do not know what the motivation is for setting $||A||_k$, $||B||_k$, and $l_1, ; l_2$ the way they are written. Why does /u/fourierwho write them this way? What is the motivation?


I greatly appreciate any help.










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    0














    I am trying to understand this Answer: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2366187/597047 as I am curious about it.




    1. I do not fully understand what $Phi$ represents. What is the analogue of $Phi$ in the finite-dimensional case? What is meant by "solution mapping"?

    2. I do not know what the motivation is for setting $||A||_k$, $||B||_k$, and $l_1, ; l_2$ the way they are written. Why does /u/fourierwho write them this way? What is the motivation?


    I greatly appreciate any help.










    share|cite|improve this question

























      0












      0








      0


      1





      I am trying to understand this Answer: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2366187/597047 as I am curious about it.




      1. I do not fully understand what $Phi$ represents. What is the analogue of $Phi$ in the finite-dimensional case? What is meant by "solution mapping"?

      2. I do not know what the motivation is for setting $||A||_k$, $||B||_k$, and $l_1, ; l_2$ the way they are written. Why does /u/fourierwho write them this way? What is the motivation?


      I greatly appreciate any help.










      share|cite|improve this question













      I am trying to understand this Answer: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2366187/597047 as I am curious about it.




      1. I do not fully understand what $Phi$ represents. What is the analogue of $Phi$ in the finite-dimensional case? What is meant by "solution mapping"?

      2. I do not know what the motivation is for setting $||A||_k$, $||B||_k$, and $l_1, ; l_2$ the way they are written. Why does /u/fourierwho write them this way? What is the motivation?


      I greatly appreciate any help.







      real-analysis differential-equations






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      share|cite|improve this question











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      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Nov 6 at 20:02









      Nalt

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          1. This is the map of the Picard iteration, for $dot x(t)=f(t,x(t))$ it is
            $$ Phi(x)(t)=x(t_0)+int_{t_0}^tf(s, x(s)),ds $$



          2. $|cdot|_K$ indicates that the norm is the supremum/maximum over the time segment $K$. $$|F|_K=sup_{tin K}|F(t)|$$ where $|F(t)|$ is the norm of the space that $F(t)$ belongs to.



            As solutions of linear ODE and also their differences may grow exponentially in time, this might be an obstacle in the proof that $Phi$ is a contraction mapping. Thus this kind of proof needs a restriction of the time domain of the function space it considers $Phi$ over. The introduction of $R$ is unnecessary, there is no need for the metric space to be bounded in the Banach fixed-point theorem.






          Another kind of proof counters the (potentially) exponential growth of the solutions (as predicted by the bound of the Grönwall lemma) by a faster falling exponential weight factor in a modified maximum norm, $$|x|_L=max_{tin K}e^{-2L|t-t_0|}|x(t)|,~~~L=|A|_K.$$ In this norm $Phi$ has contraction factor $frac12$ over the space ${scr C}=C(K,E)$ and thus a fixed point in that space that the same way then turns out to also be both in $C^1(K,E)$ and a solution of the ODE, no further assembly necessary.





          Why does the modified norm work: For prior detailed computations see https://math.stackexchange.com/a/838568/115115 or Inequality in the proof of unique solution of an ODE.



          More generally using the Lipschitz property in the localized form, here $L(t)=|A(t)|$, you get for the local differences of the Picard iteration the inequality
          $$|Φ(z)(t)-Φ(y)(t)|leint_{t_0}^t L(s)|z(s)-y(s)|.$$
          To bound the local differences in the integrand on the right side against a global constant use some weighted sup norm $$|x|_w=sup_{tin I}frac{|x(t)|}{w(t)}.$$ Then the right side is further bounded by
          $$...leint_{t_0}^t L(s)w(s),ds;|z-y|_w.$$



          Now the norm estimate would be complete if the last expression were just smaller than $q,w(t);|z-y|_w$ with some $0<q<1$, as then $$|Φ(z)-Φ(y)|_wle q;|z-y|_w.$$ Make $w$ the solution to $qdot w(t)=L(t)w(t)$, $w(t_0)=1$, so that $w(t)=exp(int_{t_0}^tL(s)ds/q)$. Then the integral value is $$int_{t_0}^t L(s)w(s),ds=q(w(t)-1)<qw(t)$$ as required.



          Usually one would take $L$ a constant maximizing the individual $L(t)$ values over bounded sub-intervals. However, this is often not necessary, see https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2973201/115115 where a non-constant $L(t)$ is used to get a different, better adapted weight function.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Can you explain to me why the potential exponential growth of solution would be a bad thing for the contraction mapping theorem? Why do we care?
            – Nalt
            Nov 8 at 18:48










          • The standard proof uses that $f$ is bounded over some rectangular/cylindrical domain so that possible solutions stay in a cone. Then on that region you get a local Lipschitz constant and restrict the region even more so that Banach fixed-point theorem assumptions are satisfied. Then you need to splice together all these small solution patches to get a more global solution. In some cases one can avoid all that nastiness by, among other methods, using this modified norm that gives contraction independent of the length of the time interval.
            – LutzL
            Nov 8 at 19:00










          • I see your edit and it seems I've found the rabbit hole. Thank you so much. This is all very interesting.
            – Nalt
            Nov 8 at 22:23











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          1. This is the map of the Picard iteration, for $dot x(t)=f(t,x(t))$ it is
            $$ Phi(x)(t)=x(t_0)+int_{t_0}^tf(s, x(s)),ds $$



          2. $|cdot|_K$ indicates that the norm is the supremum/maximum over the time segment $K$. $$|F|_K=sup_{tin K}|F(t)|$$ where $|F(t)|$ is the norm of the space that $F(t)$ belongs to.



            As solutions of linear ODE and also their differences may grow exponentially in time, this might be an obstacle in the proof that $Phi$ is a contraction mapping. Thus this kind of proof needs a restriction of the time domain of the function space it considers $Phi$ over. The introduction of $R$ is unnecessary, there is no need for the metric space to be bounded in the Banach fixed-point theorem.






          Another kind of proof counters the (potentially) exponential growth of the solutions (as predicted by the bound of the Grönwall lemma) by a faster falling exponential weight factor in a modified maximum norm, $$|x|_L=max_{tin K}e^{-2L|t-t_0|}|x(t)|,~~~L=|A|_K.$$ In this norm $Phi$ has contraction factor $frac12$ over the space ${scr C}=C(K,E)$ and thus a fixed point in that space that the same way then turns out to also be both in $C^1(K,E)$ and a solution of the ODE, no further assembly necessary.





          Why does the modified norm work: For prior detailed computations see https://math.stackexchange.com/a/838568/115115 or Inequality in the proof of unique solution of an ODE.



          More generally using the Lipschitz property in the localized form, here $L(t)=|A(t)|$, you get for the local differences of the Picard iteration the inequality
          $$|Φ(z)(t)-Φ(y)(t)|leint_{t_0}^t L(s)|z(s)-y(s)|.$$
          To bound the local differences in the integrand on the right side against a global constant use some weighted sup norm $$|x|_w=sup_{tin I}frac{|x(t)|}{w(t)}.$$ Then the right side is further bounded by
          $$...leint_{t_0}^t L(s)w(s),ds;|z-y|_w.$$



          Now the norm estimate would be complete if the last expression were just smaller than $q,w(t);|z-y|_w$ with some $0<q<1$, as then $$|Φ(z)-Φ(y)|_wle q;|z-y|_w.$$ Make $w$ the solution to $qdot w(t)=L(t)w(t)$, $w(t_0)=1$, so that $w(t)=exp(int_{t_0}^tL(s)ds/q)$. Then the integral value is $$int_{t_0}^t L(s)w(s),ds=q(w(t)-1)<qw(t)$$ as required.



          Usually one would take $L$ a constant maximizing the individual $L(t)$ values over bounded sub-intervals. However, this is often not necessary, see https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2973201/115115 where a non-constant $L(t)$ is used to get a different, better adapted weight function.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Can you explain to me why the potential exponential growth of solution would be a bad thing for the contraction mapping theorem? Why do we care?
            – Nalt
            Nov 8 at 18:48










          • The standard proof uses that $f$ is bounded over some rectangular/cylindrical domain so that possible solutions stay in a cone. Then on that region you get a local Lipschitz constant and restrict the region even more so that Banach fixed-point theorem assumptions are satisfied. Then you need to splice together all these small solution patches to get a more global solution. In some cases one can avoid all that nastiness by, among other methods, using this modified norm that gives contraction independent of the length of the time interval.
            – LutzL
            Nov 8 at 19:00










          • I see your edit and it seems I've found the rabbit hole. Thank you so much. This is all very interesting.
            – Nalt
            Nov 8 at 22:23
















          1















          1. This is the map of the Picard iteration, for $dot x(t)=f(t,x(t))$ it is
            $$ Phi(x)(t)=x(t_0)+int_{t_0}^tf(s, x(s)),ds $$



          2. $|cdot|_K$ indicates that the norm is the supremum/maximum over the time segment $K$. $$|F|_K=sup_{tin K}|F(t)|$$ where $|F(t)|$ is the norm of the space that $F(t)$ belongs to.



            As solutions of linear ODE and also their differences may grow exponentially in time, this might be an obstacle in the proof that $Phi$ is a contraction mapping. Thus this kind of proof needs a restriction of the time domain of the function space it considers $Phi$ over. The introduction of $R$ is unnecessary, there is no need for the metric space to be bounded in the Banach fixed-point theorem.






          Another kind of proof counters the (potentially) exponential growth of the solutions (as predicted by the bound of the Grönwall lemma) by a faster falling exponential weight factor in a modified maximum norm, $$|x|_L=max_{tin K}e^{-2L|t-t_0|}|x(t)|,~~~L=|A|_K.$$ In this norm $Phi$ has contraction factor $frac12$ over the space ${scr C}=C(K,E)$ and thus a fixed point in that space that the same way then turns out to also be both in $C^1(K,E)$ and a solution of the ODE, no further assembly necessary.





          Why does the modified norm work: For prior detailed computations see https://math.stackexchange.com/a/838568/115115 or Inequality in the proof of unique solution of an ODE.



          More generally using the Lipschitz property in the localized form, here $L(t)=|A(t)|$, you get for the local differences of the Picard iteration the inequality
          $$|Φ(z)(t)-Φ(y)(t)|leint_{t_0}^t L(s)|z(s)-y(s)|.$$
          To bound the local differences in the integrand on the right side against a global constant use some weighted sup norm $$|x|_w=sup_{tin I}frac{|x(t)|}{w(t)}.$$ Then the right side is further bounded by
          $$...leint_{t_0}^t L(s)w(s),ds;|z-y|_w.$$



          Now the norm estimate would be complete if the last expression were just smaller than $q,w(t);|z-y|_w$ with some $0<q<1$, as then $$|Φ(z)-Φ(y)|_wle q;|z-y|_w.$$ Make $w$ the solution to $qdot w(t)=L(t)w(t)$, $w(t_0)=1$, so that $w(t)=exp(int_{t_0}^tL(s)ds/q)$. Then the integral value is $$int_{t_0}^t L(s)w(s),ds=q(w(t)-1)<qw(t)$$ as required.



          Usually one would take $L$ a constant maximizing the individual $L(t)$ values over bounded sub-intervals. However, this is often not necessary, see https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2973201/115115 where a non-constant $L(t)$ is used to get a different, better adapted weight function.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Can you explain to me why the potential exponential growth of solution would be a bad thing for the contraction mapping theorem? Why do we care?
            – Nalt
            Nov 8 at 18:48










          • The standard proof uses that $f$ is bounded over some rectangular/cylindrical domain so that possible solutions stay in a cone. Then on that region you get a local Lipschitz constant and restrict the region even more so that Banach fixed-point theorem assumptions are satisfied. Then you need to splice together all these small solution patches to get a more global solution. In some cases one can avoid all that nastiness by, among other methods, using this modified norm that gives contraction independent of the length of the time interval.
            – LutzL
            Nov 8 at 19:00










          • I see your edit and it seems I've found the rabbit hole. Thank you so much. This is all very interesting.
            – Nalt
            Nov 8 at 22:23














          1












          1








          1







          1. This is the map of the Picard iteration, for $dot x(t)=f(t,x(t))$ it is
            $$ Phi(x)(t)=x(t_0)+int_{t_0}^tf(s, x(s)),ds $$



          2. $|cdot|_K$ indicates that the norm is the supremum/maximum over the time segment $K$. $$|F|_K=sup_{tin K}|F(t)|$$ where $|F(t)|$ is the norm of the space that $F(t)$ belongs to.



            As solutions of linear ODE and also their differences may grow exponentially in time, this might be an obstacle in the proof that $Phi$ is a contraction mapping. Thus this kind of proof needs a restriction of the time domain of the function space it considers $Phi$ over. The introduction of $R$ is unnecessary, there is no need for the metric space to be bounded in the Banach fixed-point theorem.






          Another kind of proof counters the (potentially) exponential growth of the solutions (as predicted by the bound of the Grönwall lemma) by a faster falling exponential weight factor in a modified maximum norm, $$|x|_L=max_{tin K}e^{-2L|t-t_0|}|x(t)|,~~~L=|A|_K.$$ In this norm $Phi$ has contraction factor $frac12$ over the space ${scr C}=C(K,E)$ and thus a fixed point in that space that the same way then turns out to also be both in $C^1(K,E)$ and a solution of the ODE, no further assembly necessary.





          Why does the modified norm work: For prior detailed computations see https://math.stackexchange.com/a/838568/115115 or Inequality in the proof of unique solution of an ODE.



          More generally using the Lipschitz property in the localized form, here $L(t)=|A(t)|$, you get for the local differences of the Picard iteration the inequality
          $$|Φ(z)(t)-Φ(y)(t)|leint_{t_0}^t L(s)|z(s)-y(s)|.$$
          To bound the local differences in the integrand on the right side against a global constant use some weighted sup norm $$|x|_w=sup_{tin I}frac{|x(t)|}{w(t)}.$$ Then the right side is further bounded by
          $$...leint_{t_0}^t L(s)w(s),ds;|z-y|_w.$$



          Now the norm estimate would be complete if the last expression were just smaller than $q,w(t);|z-y|_w$ with some $0<q<1$, as then $$|Φ(z)-Φ(y)|_wle q;|z-y|_w.$$ Make $w$ the solution to $qdot w(t)=L(t)w(t)$, $w(t_0)=1$, so that $w(t)=exp(int_{t_0}^tL(s)ds/q)$. Then the integral value is $$int_{t_0}^t L(s)w(s),ds=q(w(t)-1)<qw(t)$$ as required.



          Usually one would take $L$ a constant maximizing the individual $L(t)$ values over bounded sub-intervals. However, this is often not necessary, see https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2973201/115115 where a non-constant $L(t)$ is used to get a different, better adapted weight function.






          share|cite|improve this answer















          1. This is the map of the Picard iteration, for $dot x(t)=f(t,x(t))$ it is
            $$ Phi(x)(t)=x(t_0)+int_{t_0}^tf(s, x(s)),ds $$



          2. $|cdot|_K$ indicates that the norm is the supremum/maximum over the time segment $K$. $$|F|_K=sup_{tin K}|F(t)|$$ where $|F(t)|$ is the norm of the space that $F(t)$ belongs to.



            As solutions of linear ODE and also their differences may grow exponentially in time, this might be an obstacle in the proof that $Phi$ is a contraction mapping. Thus this kind of proof needs a restriction of the time domain of the function space it considers $Phi$ over. The introduction of $R$ is unnecessary, there is no need for the metric space to be bounded in the Banach fixed-point theorem.






          Another kind of proof counters the (potentially) exponential growth of the solutions (as predicted by the bound of the Grönwall lemma) by a faster falling exponential weight factor in a modified maximum norm, $$|x|_L=max_{tin K}e^{-2L|t-t_0|}|x(t)|,~~~L=|A|_K.$$ In this norm $Phi$ has contraction factor $frac12$ over the space ${scr C}=C(K,E)$ and thus a fixed point in that space that the same way then turns out to also be both in $C^1(K,E)$ and a solution of the ODE, no further assembly necessary.





          Why does the modified norm work: For prior detailed computations see https://math.stackexchange.com/a/838568/115115 or Inequality in the proof of unique solution of an ODE.



          More generally using the Lipschitz property in the localized form, here $L(t)=|A(t)|$, you get for the local differences of the Picard iteration the inequality
          $$|Φ(z)(t)-Φ(y)(t)|leint_{t_0}^t L(s)|z(s)-y(s)|.$$
          To bound the local differences in the integrand on the right side against a global constant use some weighted sup norm $$|x|_w=sup_{tin I}frac{|x(t)|}{w(t)}.$$ Then the right side is further bounded by
          $$...leint_{t_0}^t L(s)w(s),ds;|z-y|_w.$$



          Now the norm estimate would be complete if the last expression were just smaller than $q,w(t);|z-y|_w$ with some $0<q<1$, as then $$|Φ(z)-Φ(y)|_wle q;|z-y|_w.$$ Make $w$ the solution to $qdot w(t)=L(t)w(t)$, $w(t_0)=1$, so that $w(t)=exp(int_{t_0}^tL(s)ds/q)$. Then the integral value is $$int_{t_0}^t L(s)w(s),ds=q(w(t)-1)<qw(t)$$ as required.



          Usually one would take $L$ a constant maximizing the individual $L(t)$ values over bounded sub-intervals. However, this is often not necessary, see https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2973201/115115 where a non-constant $L(t)$ is used to get a different, better adapted weight function.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 26 at 12:08

























          answered Nov 6 at 23:21









          LutzL

          55.8k42054




          55.8k42054












          • Can you explain to me why the potential exponential growth of solution would be a bad thing for the contraction mapping theorem? Why do we care?
            – Nalt
            Nov 8 at 18:48










          • The standard proof uses that $f$ is bounded over some rectangular/cylindrical domain so that possible solutions stay in a cone. Then on that region you get a local Lipschitz constant and restrict the region even more so that Banach fixed-point theorem assumptions are satisfied. Then you need to splice together all these small solution patches to get a more global solution. In some cases one can avoid all that nastiness by, among other methods, using this modified norm that gives contraction independent of the length of the time interval.
            – LutzL
            Nov 8 at 19:00










          • I see your edit and it seems I've found the rabbit hole. Thank you so much. This is all very interesting.
            – Nalt
            Nov 8 at 22:23


















          • Can you explain to me why the potential exponential growth of solution would be a bad thing for the contraction mapping theorem? Why do we care?
            – Nalt
            Nov 8 at 18:48










          • The standard proof uses that $f$ is bounded over some rectangular/cylindrical domain so that possible solutions stay in a cone. Then on that region you get a local Lipschitz constant and restrict the region even more so that Banach fixed-point theorem assumptions are satisfied. Then you need to splice together all these small solution patches to get a more global solution. In some cases one can avoid all that nastiness by, among other methods, using this modified norm that gives contraction independent of the length of the time interval.
            – LutzL
            Nov 8 at 19:00










          • I see your edit and it seems I've found the rabbit hole. Thank you so much. This is all very interesting.
            – Nalt
            Nov 8 at 22:23
















          Can you explain to me why the potential exponential growth of solution would be a bad thing for the contraction mapping theorem? Why do we care?
          – Nalt
          Nov 8 at 18:48




          Can you explain to me why the potential exponential growth of solution would be a bad thing for the contraction mapping theorem? Why do we care?
          – Nalt
          Nov 8 at 18:48












          The standard proof uses that $f$ is bounded over some rectangular/cylindrical domain so that possible solutions stay in a cone. Then on that region you get a local Lipschitz constant and restrict the region even more so that Banach fixed-point theorem assumptions are satisfied. Then you need to splice together all these small solution patches to get a more global solution. In some cases one can avoid all that nastiness by, among other methods, using this modified norm that gives contraction independent of the length of the time interval.
          – LutzL
          Nov 8 at 19:00




          The standard proof uses that $f$ is bounded over some rectangular/cylindrical domain so that possible solutions stay in a cone. Then on that region you get a local Lipschitz constant and restrict the region even more so that Banach fixed-point theorem assumptions are satisfied. Then you need to splice together all these small solution patches to get a more global solution. In some cases one can avoid all that nastiness by, among other methods, using this modified norm that gives contraction independent of the length of the time interval.
          – LutzL
          Nov 8 at 19:00












          I see your edit and it seems I've found the rabbit hole. Thank you so much. This is all very interesting.
          – Nalt
          Nov 8 at 22:23




          I see your edit and it seems I've found the rabbit hole. Thank you so much. This is all very interesting.
          – Nalt
          Nov 8 at 22:23


















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