How is this equality established? (binomial/factorials)












2












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In Rick Durrett's book, in a proof for the asymptotic behaviour of Poisson to normal, he uses the following identity:



$$frac{n!n^m}{(n+m)!} = left(prod_{k=1}^m 1 + k/n right)^{-1}$$



I'm just wondering how this established? As Durrett states it without proof, and I am not sure how to show this.










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  • $begingroup$
    You have $prod_{k = 1}^m frac{n}{n + k}$, from which the $n^m$ term is obvious. Then write out what the quotient of two factorials is.
    $endgroup$
    – T. Bongers
    Dec 4 '18 at 1:08










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! I will give it another go
    $endgroup$
    – Xiaomi
    Dec 4 '18 at 1:20
















2












$begingroup$


In Rick Durrett's book, in a proof for the asymptotic behaviour of Poisson to normal, he uses the following identity:



$$frac{n!n^m}{(n+m)!} = left(prod_{k=1}^m 1 + k/n right)^{-1}$$



I'm just wondering how this established? As Durrett states it without proof, and I am not sure how to show this.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You have $prod_{k = 1}^m frac{n}{n + k}$, from which the $n^m$ term is obvious. Then write out what the quotient of two factorials is.
    $endgroup$
    – T. Bongers
    Dec 4 '18 at 1:08










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! I will give it another go
    $endgroup$
    – Xiaomi
    Dec 4 '18 at 1:20














2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


In Rick Durrett's book, in a proof for the asymptotic behaviour of Poisson to normal, he uses the following identity:



$$frac{n!n^m}{(n+m)!} = left(prod_{k=1}^m 1 + k/n right)^{-1}$$



I'm just wondering how this established? As Durrett states it without proof, and I am not sure how to show this.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




In Rick Durrett's book, in a proof for the asymptotic behaviour of Poisson to normal, he uses the following identity:



$$frac{n!n^m}{(n+m)!} = left(prod_{k=1}^m 1 + k/n right)^{-1}$$



I'm just wondering how this established? As Durrett states it without proof, and I am not sure how to show this.







probability self-learning






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 4 '18 at 1:02









XiaomiXiaomi

1,050115




1,050115












  • $begingroup$
    You have $prod_{k = 1}^m frac{n}{n + k}$, from which the $n^m$ term is obvious. Then write out what the quotient of two factorials is.
    $endgroup$
    – T. Bongers
    Dec 4 '18 at 1:08










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! I will give it another go
    $endgroup$
    – Xiaomi
    Dec 4 '18 at 1:20


















  • $begingroup$
    You have $prod_{k = 1}^m frac{n}{n + k}$, from which the $n^m$ term is obvious. Then write out what the quotient of two factorials is.
    $endgroup$
    – T. Bongers
    Dec 4 '18 at 1:08










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! I will give it another go
    $endgroup$
    – Xiaomi
    Dec 4 '18 at 1:20
















$begingroup$
You have $prod_{k = 1}^m frac{n}{n + k}$, from which the $n^m$ term is obvious. Then write out what the quotient of two factorials is.
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Dec 4 '18 at 1:08




$begingroup$
You have $prod_{k = 1}^m frac{n}{n + k}$, from which the $n^m$ term is obvious. Then write out what the quotient of two factorials is.
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Dec 4 '18 at 1:08












$begingroup$
Thanks! I will give it another go
$endgroup$
– Xiaomi
Dec 4 '18 at 1:20




$begingroup$
Thanks! I will give it another go
$endgroup$
– Xiaomi
Dec 4 '18 at 1:20










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