Integral by Residue Theorem












2














I'm working through a Complex Analysis text and am working through the Residue chapter. I am not sure if I am approaching this question correctly.



$$ int_gamma frac{1}{(z-1)^2(z^2+1)}$$



Such that $gamma$ is a circle of radius of 2 centered at 0. Traversed counter clockwise.



My approach was as follows:



I know that there are poles at $z=1,i,-i$ where $1$ is of order $2$.



First I found the residues at the poles as follows:



$$operatorname{Res} _{z=1} :lim_{zrightarrow 1} frac{d}{dz} frac{(z-1)^2}{(z-1)^2(z^2+1)}$$
$$lim_{zrightarrow 1} frac{d}{dz} frac{1}{(z^2+1)}$$
$$lim_{zrightarrow 1} -frac{2z}{(z^2+1)^2}$$
$$ = -1/2$$



$$operatorname{Res} _{z=i} :lim_{zrightarrow i} frac{1}{(z-1)^2}$$
$$ = frac{1}{(i-1)^2}$$



$$operatorname{Res} _{z=-i} :lim_{zrightarrow -i} frac{1}{(z-1)^2}$$
$$ = frac{1}{(-i-1)^2}$$



Therefore the integral is $2pi i$*sum of the Residues.



$$= 2pi i(frac{1}{(i-1)^2} - frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{(-i-1)^2})$$



Thank you for any guidance. The repeated root is really where I'm wondering if it makes a difference.










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  • There is also a pole at $z=-i$
    – Seth
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:48










  • You forgot the pole $-i$.
    – Bernard
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:49










  • I'm pretty sure the only difference when you have a double pole is that if you are using the differentiation formula for residues you have to differentiate twice
    – Seth
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:56










  • I think you have accidentally asked this question twice
    – Seth
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:57










  • Woops! I think my internet must've done that. Okay I see where the pole comes from. I checked back with the formula. Wouldn't it be differentiate it once? I'll give it a try and edit the post with my answer.
    – Safder
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:21


















2














I'm working through a Complex Analysis text and am working through the Residue chapter. I am not sure if I am approaching this question correctly.



$$ int_gamma frac{1}{(z-1)^2(z^2+1)}$$



Such that $gamma$ is a circle of radius of 2 centered at 0. Traversed counter clockwise.



My approach was as follows:



I know that there are poles at $z=1,i,-i$ where $1$ is of order $2$.



First I found the residues at the poles as follows:



$$operatorname{Res} _{z=1} :lim_{zrightarrow 1} frac{d}{dz} frac{(z-1)^2}{(z-1)^2(z^2+1)}$$
$$lim_{zrightarrow 1} frac{d}{dz} frac{1}{(z^2+1)}$$
$$lim_{zrightarrow 1} -frac{2z}{(z^2+1)^2}$$
$$ = -1/2$$



$$operatorname{Res} _{z=i} :lim_{zrightarrow i} frac{1}{(z-1)^2}$$
$$ = frac{1}{(i-1)^2}$$



$$operatorname{Res} _{z=-i} :lim_{zrightarrow -i} frac{1}{(z-1)^2}$$
$$ = frac{1}{(-i-1)^2}$$



Therefore the integral is $2pi i$*sum of the Residues.



$$= 2pi i(frac{1}{(i-1)^2} - frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{(-i-1)^2})$$



Thank you for any guidance. The repeated root is really where I'm wondering if it makes a difference.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • There is also a pole at $z=-i$
    – Seth
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:48










  • You forgot the pole $-i$.
    – Bernard
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:49










  • I'm pretty sure the only difference when you have a double pole is that if you are using the differentiation formula for residues you have to differentiate twice
    – Seth
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:56










  • I think you have accidentally asked this question twice
    – Seth
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:57










  • Woops! I think my internet must've done that. Okay I see where the pole comes from. I checked back with the formula. Wouldn't it be differentiate it once? I'll give it a try and edit the post with my answer.
    – Safder
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:21
















2












2








2


0





I'm working through a Complex Analysis text and am working through the Residue chapter. I am not sure if I am approaching this question correctly.



$$ int_gamma frac{1}{(z-1)^2(z^2+1)}$$



Such that $gamma$ is a circle of radius of 2 centered at 0. Traversed counter clockwise.



My approach was as follows:



I know that there are poles at $z=1,i,-i$ where $1$ is of order $2$.



First I found the residues at the poles as follows:



$$operatorname{Res} _{z=1} :lim_{zrightarrow 1} frac{d}{dz} frac{(z-1)^2}{(z-1)^2(z^2+1)}$$
$$lim_{zrightarrow 1} frac{d}{dz} frac{1}{(z^2+1)}$$
$$lim_{zrightarrow 1} -frac{2z}{(z^2+1)^2}$$
$$ = -1/2$$



$$operatorname{Res} _{z=i} :lim_{zrightarrow i} frac{1}{(z-1)^2}$$
$$ = frac{1}{(i-1)^2}$$



$$operatorname{Res} _{z=-i} :lim_{zrightarrow -i} frac{1}{(z-1)^2}$$
$$ = frac{1}{(-i-1)^2}$$



Therefore the integral is $2pi i$*sum of the Residues.



$$= 2pi i(frac{1}{(i-1)^2} - frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{(-i-1)^2})$$



Thank you for any guidance. The repeated root is really where I'm wondering if it makes a difference.










share|cite|improve this question















I'm working through a Complex Analysis text and am working through the Residue chapter. I am not sure if I am approaching this question correctly.



$$ int_gamma frac{1}{(z-1)^2(z^2+1)}$$



Such that $gamma$ is a circle of radius of 2 centered at 0. Traversed counter clockwise.



My approach was as follows:



I know that there are poles at $z=1,i,-i$ where $1$ is of order $2$.



First I found the residues at the poles as follows:



$$operatorname{Res} _{z=1} :lim_{zrightarrow 1} frac{d}{dz} frac{(z-1)^2}{(z-1)^2(z^2+1)}$$
$$lim_{zrightarrow 1} frac{d}{dz} frac{1}{(z^2+1)}$$
$$lim_{zrightarrow 1} -frac{2z}{(z^2+1)^2}$$
$$ = -1/2$$



$$operatorname{Res} _{z=i} :lim_{zrightarrow i} frac{1}{(z-1)^2}$$
$$ = frac{1}{(i-1)^2}$$



$$operatorname{Res} _{z=-i} :lim_{zrightarrow -i} frac{1}{(z-1)^2}$$
$$ = frac{1}{(-i-1)^2}$$



Therefore the integral is $2pi i$*sum of the Residues.



$$= 2pi i(frac{1}{(i-1)^2} - frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{(-i-1)^2})$$



Thank you for any guidance. The repeated root is really where I'm wondering if it makes a difference.







complex-analysis complex-numbers residue-calculus cauchy-integral-formula






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edited Nov 29 '18 at 1:27







Safder

















asked Nov 29 '18 at 0:43









SafderSafder

15110




15110












  • There is also a pole at $z=-i$
    – Seth
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:48










  • You forgot the pole $-i$.
    – Bernard
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:49










  • I'm pretty sure the only difference when you have a double pole is that if you are using the differentiation formula for residues you have to differentiate twice
    – Seth
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:56










  • I think you have accidentally asked this question twice
    – Seth
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:57










  • Woops! I think my internet must've done that. Okay I see where the pole comes from. I checked back with the formula. Wouldn't it be differentiate it once? I'll give it a try and edit the post with my answer.
    – Safder
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:21




















  • There is also a pole at $z=-i$
    – Seth
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:48










  • You forgot the pole $-i$.
    – Bernard
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:49










  • I'm pretty sure the only difference when you have a double pole is that if you are using the differentiation formula for residues you have to differentiate twice
    – Seth
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:56










  • I think you have accidentally asked this question twice
    – Seth
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:57










  • Woops! I think my internet must've done that. Okay I see where the pole comes from. I checked back with the formula. Wouldn't it be differentiate it once? I'll give it a try and edit the post with my answer.
    – Safder
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:21


















There is also a pole at $z=-i$
– Seth
Nov 29 '18 at 0:48




There is also a pole at $z=-i$
– Seth
Nov 29 '18 at 0:48












You forgot the pole $-i$.
– Bernard
Nov 29 '18 at 0:49




You forgot the pole $-i$.
– Bernard
Nov 29 '18 at 0:49












I'm pretty sure the only difference when you have a double pole is that if you are using the differentiation formula for residues you have to differentiate twice
– Seth
Nov 29 '18 at 0:56




I'm pretty sure the only difference when you have a double pole is that if you are using the differentiation formula for residues you have to differentiate twice
– Seth
Nov 29 '18 at 0:56












I think you have accidentally asked this question twice
– Seth
Nov 29 '18 at 0:57




I think you have accidentally asked this question twice
– Seth
Nov 29 '18 at 0:57












Woops! I think my internet must've done that. Okay I see where the pole comes from. I checked back with the formula. Wouldn't it be differentiate it once? I'll give it a try and edit the post with my answer.
– Safder
Nov 29 '18 at 1:21






Woops! I think my internet must've done that. Okay I see where the pole comes from. I checked back with the formula. Wouldn't it be differentiate it once? I'll give it a try and edit the post with my answer.
– Safder
Nov 29 '18 at 1:21












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2














The residue at $1$ is computed correctly. The residues at $pm i$ are a bit off. E.g.



$$ operatorname{Res}_i(f) =lim_{z to i} (z - i)f(z) = lim_{z to i} frac{z - i}{(z - 1)^2(z^2 + 1)} = lim_{z to i}frac{1}{(z-1)^2(z + i)} $$



This should simplify to $frac14$. The residue at $-i$ is also $frac14$ so the sum of residues is



$$ underbrace{-frac12}_{z = 0} + underbrace{frac14}_{z = i} + underbrace{frac14}_{z = -i} = 0. $$



Alternatively, you can look at the question as



$$ int_gamma f = -int_{- gamma} f $$



where now we are integrating clockwise. Going clockwise around 0 is the same as going counterclockwise around $infty$. Since all the poles in $mathbb{C}$ are contained in ${|z| < 2}$, on ${|z| > 2}$ we only have the pole at infinity. See Residue at infinity (Wikipedia). So



$$ -int_{- gamma} f = -2pi ioperatorname{Res}_{infty} (f) = 2pi ioperatorname{Res}_{0} left( frac{1}{z^2} fleft( frac1z right) right). $$



and



$$ operatorname{Res}_{0} left[ frac{1}{z^2} frac{1}{left( frac1z - 1 right)^2left( frac1{z^2} + 1 right)} right] = operatorname{Res}_{0} left[ frac{z^2}{left( 1 - z right)^2left( 1 + z^2 right)} right] = 0. $$



As you can see, using the residue at infinity saves you some computation. It's not going to make every computation easier, but it is still worth being aware of.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • What is $Res_0$? Is it just the residue? Also, what are the conditions for when I can use residue at infinity. Thank you
    – Safder
    Nov 29 '18 at 4:43










  • @Safder Yes, the residue of $f$ at $infty$ is the same as the residue of $-frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z)$ at $0$. You can use this whenever you have a function that is holomorphic for large values of $z$. I.e. for $|z| > R$ for some $R$. See the Wikipedia entry. Also see math.stackexchange.com/q/571510 or math.usm.edu/schroeder/slides/comp_var/18_residue_theorem.pdf or whatever other source you can dig up if you want more information.
    – Trevor Gunn
    Nov 29 '18 at 5:09











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









2














The residue at $1$ is computed correctly. The residues at $pm i$ are a bit off. E.g.



$$ operatorname{Res}_i(f) =lim_{z to i} (z - i)f(z) = lim_{z to i} frac{z - i}{(z - 1)^2(z^2 + 1)} = lim_{z to i}frac{1}{(z-1)^2(z + i)} $$



This should simplify to $frac14$. The residue at $-i$ is also $frac14$ so the sum of residues is



$$ underbrace{-frac12}_{z = 0} + underbrace{frac14}_{z = i} + underbrace{frac14}_{z = -i} = 0. $$



Alternatively, you can look at the question as



$$ int_gamma f = -int_{- gamma} f $$



where now we are integrating clockwise. Going clockwise around 0 is the same as going counterclockwise around $infty$. Since all the poles in $mathbb{C}$ are contained in ${|z| < 2}$, on ${|z| > 2}$ we only have the pole at infinity. See Residue at infinity (Wikipedia). So



$$ -int_{- gamma} f = -2pi ioperatorname{Res}_{infty} (f) = 2pi ioperatorname{Res}_{0} left( frac{1}{z^2} fleft( frac1z right) right). $$



and



$$ operatorname{Res}_{0} left[ frac{1}{z^2} frac{1}{left( frac1z - 1 right)^2left( frac1{z^2} + 1 right)} right] = operatorname{Res}_{0} left[ frac{z^2}{left( 1 - z right)^2left( 1 + z^2 right)} right] = 0. $$



As you can see, using the residue at infinity saves you some computation. It's not going to make every computation easier, but it is still worth being aware of.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • What is $Res_0$? Is it just the residue? Also, what are the conditions for when I can use residue at infinity. Thank you
    – Safder
    Nov 29 '18 at 4:43










  • @Safder Yes, the residue of $f$ at $infty$ is the same as the residue of $-frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z)$ at $0$. You can use this whenever you have a function that is holomorphic for large values of $z$. I.e. for $|z| > R$ for some $R$. See the Wikipedia entry. Also see math.stackexchange.com/q/571510 or math.usm.edu/schroeder/slides/comp_var/18_residue_theorem.pdf or whatever other source you can dig up if you want more information.
    – Trevor Gunn
    Nov 29 '18 at 5:09
















2














The residue at $1$ is computed correctly. The residues at $pm i$ are a bit off. E.g.



$$ operatorname{Res}_i(f) =lim_{z to i} (z - i)f(z) = lim_{z to i} frac{z - i}{(z - 1)^2(z^2 + 1)} = lim_{z to i}frac{1}{(z-1)^2(z + i)} $$



This should simplify to $frac14$. The residue at $-i$ is also $frac14$ so the sum of residues is



$$ underbrace{-frac12}_{z = 0} + underbrace{frac14}_{z = i} + underbrace{frac14}_{z = -i} = 0. $$



Alternatively, you can look at the question as



$$ int_gamma f = -int_{- gamma} f $$



where now we are integrating clockwise. Going clockwise around 0 is the same as going counterclockwise around $infty$. Since all the poles in $mathbb{C}$ are contained in ${|z| < 2}$, on ${|z| > 2}$ we only have the pole at infinity. See Residue at infinity (Wikipedia). So



$$ -int_{- gamma} f = -2pi ioperatorname{Res}_{infty} (f) = 2pi ioperatorname{Res}_{0} left( frac{1}{z^2} fleft( frac1z right) right). $$



and



$$ operatorname{Res}_{0} left[ frac{1}{z^2} frac{1}{left( frac1z - 1 right)^2left( frac1{z^2} + 1 right)} right] = operatorname{Res}_{0} left[ frac{z^2}{left( 1 - z right)^2left( 1 + z^2 right)} right] = 0. $$



As you can see, using the residue at infinity saves you some computation. It's not going to make every computation easier, but it is still worth being aware of.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • What is $Res_0$? Is it just the residue? Also, what are the conditions for when I can use residue at infinity. Thank you
    – Safder
    Nov 29 '18 at 4:43










  • @Safder Yes, the residue of $f$ at $infty$ is the same as the residue of $-frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z)$ at $0$. You can use this whenever you have a function that is holomorphic for large values of $z$. I.e. for $|z| > R$ for some $R$. See the Wikipedia entry. Also see math.stackexchange.com/q/571510 or math.usm.edu/schroeder/slides/comp_var/18_residue_theorem.pdf or whatever other source you can dig up if you want more information.
    – Trevor Gunn
    Nov 29 '18 at 5:09














2












2








2






The residue at $1$ is computed correctly. The residues at $pm i$ are a bit off. E.g.



$$ operatorname{Res}_i(f) =lim_{z to i} (z - i)f(z) = lim_{z to i} frac{z - i}{(z - 1)^2(z^2 + 1)} = lim_{z to i}frac{1}{(z-1)^2(z + i)} $$



This should simplify to $frac14$. The residue at $-i$ is also $frac14$ so the sum of residues is



$$ underbrace{-frac12}_{z = 0} + underbrace{frac14}_{z = i} + underbrace{frac14}_{z = -i} = 0. $$



Alternatively, you can look at the question as



$$ int_gamma f = -int_{- gamma} f $$



where now we are integrating clockwise. Going clockwise around 0 is the same as going counterclockwise around $infty$. Since all the poles in $mathbb{C}$ are contained in ${|z| < 2}$, on ${|z| > 2}$ we only have the pole at infinity. See Residue at infinity (Wikipedia). So



$$ -int_{- gamma} f = -2pi ioperatorname{Res}_{infty} (f) = 2pi ioperatorname{Res}_{0} left( frac{1}{z^2} fleft( frac1z right) right). $$



and



$$ operatorname{Res}_{0} left[ frac{1}{z^2} frac{1}{left( frac1z - 1 right)^2left( frac1{z^2} + 1 right)} right] = operatorname{Res}_{0} left[ frac{z^2}{left( 1 - z right)^2left( 1 + z^2 right)} right] = 0. $$



As you can see, using the residue at infinity saves you some computation. It's not going to make every computation easier, but it is still worth being aware of.






share|cite|improve this answer














The residue at $1$ is computed correctly. The residues at $pm i$ are a bit off. E.g.



$$ operatorname{Res}_i(f) =lim_{z to i} (z - i)f(z) = lim_{z to i} frac{z - i}{(z - 1)^2(z^2 + 1)} = lim_{z to i}frac{1}{(z-1)^2(z + i)} $$



This should simplify to $frac14$. The residue at $-i$ is also $frac14$ so the sum of residues is



$$ underbrace{-frac12}_{z = 0} + underbrace{frac14}_{z = i} + underbrace{frac14}_{z = -i} = 0. $$



Alternatively, you can look at the question as



$$ int_gamma f = -int_{- gamma} f $$



where now we are integrating clockwise. Going clockwise around 0 is the same as going counterclockwise around $infty$. Since all the poles in $mathbb{C}$ are contained in ${|z| < 2}$, on ${|z| > 2}$ we only have the pole at infinity. See Residue at infinity (Wikipedia). So



$$ -int_{- gamma} f = -2pi ioperatorname{Res}_{infty} (f) = 2pi ioperatorname{Res}_{0} left( frac{1}{z^2} fleft( frac1z right) right). $$



and



$$ operatorname{Res}_{0} left[ frac{1}{z^2} frac{1}{left( frac1z - 1 right)^2left( frac1{z^2} + 1 right)} right] = operatorname{Res}_{0} left[ frac{z^2}{left( 1 - z right)^2left( 1 + z^2 right)} right] = 0. $$



As you can see, using the residue at infinity saves you some computation. It's not going to make every computation easier, but it is still worth being aware of.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 29 '18 at 5:01

























answered Nov 29 '18 at 3:03









Trevor GunnTrevor Gunn

14.2k32046




14.2k32046












  • What is $Res_0$? Is it just the residue? Also, what are the conditions for when I can use residue at infinity. Thank you
    – Safder
    Nov 29 '18 at 4:43










  • @Safder Yes, the residue of $f$ at $infty$ is the same as the residue of $-frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z)$ at $0$. You can use this whenever you have a function that is holomorphic for large values of $z$. I.e. for $|z| > R$ for some $R$. See the Wikipedia entry. Also see math.stackexchange.com/q/571510 or math.usm.edu/schroeder/slides/comp_var/18_residue_theorem.pdf or whatever other source you can dig up if you want more information.
    – Trevor Gunn
    Nov 29 '18 at 5:09


















  • What is $Res_0$? Is it just the residue? Also, what are the conditions for when I can use residue at infinity. Thank you
    – Safder
    Nov 29 '18 at 4:43










  • @Safder Yes, the residue of $f$ at $infty$ is the same as the residue of $-frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z)$ at $0$. You can use this whenever you have a function that is holomorphic for large values of $z$. I.e. for $|z| > R$ for some $R$. See the Wikipedia entry. Also see math.stackexchange.com/q/571510 or math.usm.edu/schroeder/slides/comp_var/18_residue_theorem.pdf or whatever other source you can dig up if you want more information.
    – Trevor Gunn
    Nov 29 '18 at 5:09
















What is $Res_0$? Is it just the residue? Also, what are the conditions for when I can use residue at infinity. Thank you
– Safder
Nov 29 '18 at 4:43




What is $Res_0$? Is it just the residue? Also, what are the conditions for when I can use residue at infinity. Thank you
– Safder
Nov 29 '18 at 4:43












@Safder Yes, the residue of $f$ at $infty$ is the same as the residue of $-frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z)$ at $0$. You can use this whenever you have a function that is holomorphic for large values of $z$. I.e. for $|z| > R$ for some $R$. See the Wikipedia entry. Also see math.stackexchange.com/q/571510 or math.usm.edu/schroeder/slides/comp_var/18_residue_theorem.pdf or whatever other source you can dig up if you want more information.
– Trevor Gunn
Nov 29 '18 at 5:09




@Safder Yes, the residue of $f$ at $infty$ is the same as the residue of $-frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z)$ at $0$. You can use this whenever you have a function that is holomorphic for large values of $z$. I.e. for $|z| > R$ for some $R$. See the Wikipedia entry. Also see math.stackexchange.com/q/571510 or math.usm.edu/schroeder/slides/comp_var/18_residue_theorem.pdf or whatever other source you can dig up if you want more information.
– Trevor Gunn
Nov 29 '18 at 5:09


















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