How to solve a specific complex integral: $int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz$












4












$begingroup$


In a test today, we were given a specific integral to solve: for a curve $M$ oriented clockwise, being a rectangle with vertices $(1,2), (-1,2), (-1,-1), (1,-1)$,



$$int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz$$



We were not actually taught how to solve integrals of this form at this point - which was a bit eyebrow-raising for a bunch of us. The professor said it was more of a test of confidence ... or something. Either way a little weird to put on a test, but okay.



So, my question is, how would one solve it?





My Attempt:




Post-script from a month after I posted this: this approach did touch on the correction but was wrong. The substitution was a big reason why.




Very recently, we discussed expressing complex functions as a power series. If we try to express the function $f(z)$ as a power series about $z = 0$,



$$f(z) = sum_{n=0}^{infty} a_n z^n$$



then each coefficient $a_n$ is given by either of the below,



$$a_n = frac{-1}{2pi i} int_{M} frac{f(zeta)}{zeta^{n+1}} d zeta = frac{1}{n!} f^{n}(0)$$



(The negative comes from $M$ being oriented clockwise.)



Well, if we make the substitution $zeta = 3z+1$ in our original integral (yielding $dzeta = 3dz$), we have



$$int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz= frac{1}{3} int_M frac{(2zeta-1)^5 cos(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta$$



If we let $f(zeta)$ be given by $f(zeta) = (2zeta-1)^5 cos(zeta)$, we then essentially match the form of the integral in the definition of the coefficients above if $n=1$, i.e.



$$a_2 = frac{-1}{2pi i} int_M frac{f(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta = frac{-1}{2pi i} int_M frac{(2zeta-1)^5 cos(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta = frac{1}{1!} f^{1}(0)$$



or, essentially,



$$int_M frac{f(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta = int_M frac{(2zeta-1)^5 cos(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta = -2 pi i cdot f'(0)$$



Would this be right so far?



From here, it's basically arithmetic: find the derivative of $f(zeta)$, evaluate it for $zeta = 0$, and multiply by $frac{1}{3}$ to return to the integral we got by the substitution $zeta = 3z+1$= and $dzeta = 3dz$.



I'm not going to bore you with that arithmetic, I'm more concerned with just the overarching idea of how to solve this integral, as opposed to the actual answer, since I'm not sure if I have the right idea.



Actually I feel pretty sure I don't, but I couldn't think of anything else that would apply.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Your "rectangle" is not a rectangle. Should the $(-1,2)$ be replaced with $(1,-1)$? Also, can you not just use the residue formula? You have a function which is holomorphic in the rectangle, except it has a pole of order $2$ at $z = -frac{1}{3}$.
    $endgroup$
    – AmorFati
    Oct 26 '18 at 6:14












  • $begingroup$
    Should've been $(1,-1)$, yeah, I'll edit that in. And we haven't learned the residue formula yet, so in a testing environment it wouldn't be kosher, so to speak.
    $endgroup$
    – Eevee Trainer
    Oct 26 '18 at 7:06


















4












$begingroup$


In a test today, we were given a specific integral to solve: for a curve $M$ oriented clockwise, being a rectangle with vertices $(1,2), (-1,2), (-1,-1), (1,-1)$,



$$int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz$$



We were not actually taught how to solve integrals of this form at this point - which was a bit eyebrow-raising for a bunch of us. The professor said it was more of a test of confidence ... or something. Either way a little weird to put on a test, but okay.



So, my question is, how would one solve it?





My Attempt:




Post-script from a month after I posted this: this approach did touch on the correction but was wrong. The substitution was a big reason why.




Very recently, we discussed expressing complex functions as a power series. If we try to express the function $f(z)$ as a power series about $z = 0$,



$$f(z) = sum_{n=0}^{infty} a_n z^n$$



then each coefficient $a_n$ is given by either of the below,



$$a_n = frac{-1}{2pi i} int_{M} frac{f(zeta)}{zeta^{n+1}} d zeta = frac{1}{n!} f^{n}(0)$$



(The negative comes from $M$ being oriented clockwise.)



Well, if we make the substitution $zeta = 3z+1$ in our original integral (yielding $dzeta = 3dz$), we have



$$int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz= frac{1}{3} int_M frac{(2zeta-1)^5 cos(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta$$



If we let $f(zeta)$ be given by $f(zeta) = (2zeta-1)^5 cos(zeta)$, we then essentially match the form of the integral in the definition of the coefficients above if $n=1$, i.e.



$$a_2 = frac{-1}{2pi i} int_M frac{f(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta = frac{-1}{2pi i} int_M frac{(2zeta-1)^5 cos(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta = frac{1}{1!} f^{1}(0)$$



or, essentially,



$$int_M frac{f(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta = int_M frac{(2zeta-1)^5 cos(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta = -2 pi i cdot f'(0)$$



Would this be right so far?



From here, it's basically arithmetic: find the derivative of $f(zeta)$, evaluate it for $zeta = 0$, and multiply by $frac{1}{3}$ to return to the integral we got by the substitution $zeta = 3z+1$= and $dzeta = 3dz$.



I'm not going to bore you with that arithmetic, I'm more concerned with just the overarching idea of how to solve this integral, as opposed to the actual answer, since I'm not sure if I have the right idea.



Actually I feel pretty sure I don't, but I couldn't think of anything else that would apply.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Your "rectangle" is not a rectangle. Should the $(-1,2)$ be replaced with $(1,-1)$? Also, can you not just use the residue formula? You have a function which is holomorphic in the rectangle, except it has a pole of order $2$ at $z = -frac{1}{3}$.
    $endgroup$
    – AmorFati
    Oct 26 '18 at 6:14












  • $begingroup$
    Should've been $(1,-1)$, yeah, I'll edit that in. And we haven't learned the residue formula yet, so in a testing environment it wouldn't be kosher, so to speak.
    $endgroup$
    – Eevee Trainer
    Oct 26 '18 at 7:06
















4












4








4


3



$begingroup$


In a test today, we were given a specific integral to solve: for a curve $M$ oriented clockwise, being a rectangle with vertices $(1,2), (-1,2), (-1,-1), (1,-1)$,



$$int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz$$



We were not actually taught how to solve integrals of this form at this point - which was a bit eyebrow-raising for a bunch of us. The professor said it was more of a test of confidence ... or something. Either way a little weird to put on a test, but okay.



So, my question is, how would one solve it?





My Attempt:




Post-script from a month after I posted this: this approach did touch on the correction but was wrong. The substitution was a big reason why.




Very recently, we discussed expressing complex functions as a power series. If we try to express the function $f(z)$ as a power series about $z = 0$,



$$f(z) = sum_{n=0}^{infty} a_n z^n$$



then each coefficient $a_n$ is given by either of the below,



$$a_n = frac{-1}{2pi i} int_{M} frac{f(zeta)}{zeta^{n+1}} d zeta = frac{1}{n!} f^{n}(0)$$



(The negative comes from $M$ being oriented clockwise.)



Well, if we make the substitution $zeta = 3z+1$ in our original integral (yielding $dzeta = 3dz$), we have



$$int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz= frac{1}{3} int_M frac{(2zeta-1)^5 cos(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta$$



If we let $f(zeta)$ be given by $f(zeta) = (2zeta-1)^5 cos(zeta)$, we then essentially match the form of the integral in the definition of the coefficients above if $n=1$, i.e.



$$a_2 = frac{-1}{2pi i} int_M frac{f(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta = frac{-1}{2pi i} int_M frac{(2zeta-1)^5 cos(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta = frac{1}{1!} f^{1}(0)$$



or, essentially,



$$int_M frac{f(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta = int_M frac{(2zeta-1)^5 cos(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta = -2 pi i cdot f'(0)$$



Would this be right so far?



From here, it's basically arithmetic: find the derivative of $f(zeta)$, evaluate it for $zeta = 0$, and multiply by $frac{1}{3}$ to return to the integral we got by the substitution $zeta = 3z+1$= and $dzeta = 3dz$.



I'm not going to bore you with that arithmetic, I'm more concerned with just the overarching idea of how to solve this integral, as opposed to the actual answer, since I'm not sure if I have the right idea.



Actually I feel pretty sure I don't, but I couldn't think of anything else that would apply.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




In a test today, we were given a specific integral to solve: for a curve $M$ oriented clockwise, being a rectangle with vertices $(1,2), (-1,2), (-1,-1), (1,-1)$,



$$int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz$$



We were not actually taught how to solve integrals of this form at this point - which was a bit eyebrow-raising for a bunch of us. The professor said it was more of a test of confidence ... or something. Either way a little weird to put on a test, but okay.



So, my question is, how would one solve it?





My Attempt:




Post-script from a month after I posted this: this approach did touch on the correction but was wrong. The substitution was a big reason why.




Very recently, we discussed expressing complex functions as a power series. If we try to express the function $f(z)$ as a power series about $z = 0$,



$$f(z) = sum_{n=0}^{infty} a_n z^n$$



then each coefficient $a_n$ is given by either of the below,



$$a_n = frac{-1}{2pi i} int_{M} frac{f(zeta)}{zeta^{n+1}} d zeta = frac{1}{n!} f^{n}(0)$$



(The negative comes from $M$ being oriented clockwise.)



Well, if we make the substitution $zeta = 3z+1$ in our original integral (yielding $dzeta = 3dz$), we have



$$int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz= frac{1}{3} int_M frac{(2zeta-1)^5 cos(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta$$



If we let $f(zeta)$ be given by $f(zeta) = (2zeta-1)^5 cos(zeta)$, we then essentially match the form of the integral in the definition of the coefficients above if $n=1$, i.e.



$$a_2 = frac{-1}{2pi i} int_M frac{f(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta = frac{-1}{2pi i} int_M frac{(2zeta-1)^5 cos(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta = frac{1}{1!} f^{1}(0)$$



or, essentially,



$$int_M frac{f(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta = int_M frac{(2zeta-1)^5 cos(zeta)}{zeta^2}dzeta = -2 pi i cdot f'(0)$$



Would this be right so far?



From here, it's basically arithmetic: find the derivative of $f(zeta)$, evaluate it for $zeta = 0$, and multiply by $frac{1}{3}$ to return to the integral we got by the substitution $zeta = 3z+1$= and $dzeta = 3dz$.



I'm not going to bore you with that arithmetic, I'm more concerned with just the overarching idea of how to solve this integral, as opposed to the actual answer, since I'm not sure if I have the right idea.



Actually I feel pretty sure I don't, but I couldn't think of anything else that would apply.







complex-analysis complex-integration






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 1 '18 at 6:21







Eevee Trainer

















asked Oct 26 '18 at 4:20









Eevee TrainerEevee Trainer

5,3981936




5,3981936








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Your "rectangle" is not a rectangle. Should the $(-1,2)$ be replaced with $(1,-1)$? Also, can you not just use the residue formula? You have a function which is holomorphic in the rectangle, except it has a pole of order $2$ at $z = -frac{1}{3}$.
    $endgroup$
    – AmorFati
    Oct 26 '18 at 6:14












  • $begingroup$
    Should've been $(1,-1)$, yeah, I'll edit that in. And we haven't learned the residue formula yet, so in a testing environment it wouldn't be kosher, so to speak.
    $endgroup$
    – Eevee Trainer
    Oct 26 '18 at 7:06
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Your "rectangle" is not a rectangle. Should the $(-1,2)$ be replaced with $(1,-1)$? Also, can you not just use the residue formula? You have a function which is holomorphic in the rectangle, except it has a pole of order $2$ at $z = -frac{1}{3}$.
    $endgroup$
    – AmorFati
    Oct 26 '18 at 6:14












  • $begingroup$
    Should've been $(1,-1)$, yeah, I'll edit that in. And we haven't learned the residue formula yet, so in a testing environment it wouldn't be kosher, so to speak.
    $endgroup$
    – Eevee Trainer
    Oct 26 '18 at 7:06










1




1




$begingroup$
Your "rectangle" is not a rectangle. Should the $(-1,2)$ be replaced with $(1,-1)$? Also, can you not just use the residue formula? You have a function which is holomorphic in the rectangle, except it has a pole of order $2$ at $z = -frac{1}{3}$.
$endgroup$
– AmorFati
Oct 26 '18 at 6:14






$begingroup$
Your "rectangle" is not a rectangle. Should the $(-1,2)$ be replaced with $(1,-1)$? Also, can you not just use the residue formula? You have a function which is holomorphic in the rectangle, except it has a pole of order $2$ at $z = -frac{1}{3}$.
$endgroup$
– AmorFati
Oct 26 '18 at 6:14














$begingroup$
Should've been $(1,-1)$, yeah, I'll edit that in. And we haven't learned the residue formula yet, so in a testing environment it wouldn't be kosher, so to speak.
$endgroup$
– Eevee Trainer
Oct 26 '18 at 7:06






$begingroup$
Should've been $(1,-1)$, yeah, I'll edit that in. And we haven't learned the residue formula yet, so in a testing environment it wouldn't be kosher, so to speak.
$endgroup$
– Eevee Trainer
Oct 26 '18 at 7:06












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$


Disclosure: Saw that this question was open after learning the proper way to do it. Since an answer beyond "use the residue theorem" wasn't used, I figured I'd answer my own question. And on top of that, use the residue theorem I learned, as well as showing how it implies the solution I was intended to use (the relation you derive from using power series).






With regards to the method in the OP, this is very incorrect. The solution itself is best done with the residue theorem, which subsumes all prior activity in the course I was taking: Cauchy's integral formula, Cauchy's integral theorem, etc., ultimately were all implications of the residue theorem.



So it's best to tackle it from that mindset.





Solution:



So let's begin with our integral on the clockwise rectangle $M$:



$$int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz$$



We factor out $1/3$ from the denominator twice, thus noting



$$int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz = frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz$$



The one and only pole for this integrand is $z=-1/3$ and it is of order $2$. Thus, we can claim



$$begin{align}
&frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz \
&= frac{1}{9} cdot (-2pi i )cdot frac{1}{(2-1)!} cdot left. frac{d^{2-1}}{dz^{2-1}} (z+1/3)^2 frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2} right|_{z=(-1/3)}
end{align}$$



We clean up a bit and see



$$frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz = frac{-2pi i}{9} left. frac{d}{dz} (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)}$$





Digression: Residue Theorem vs. Power Series Method:



A slight digression on how the solution thus far, using the residue theorem, basically implies an approach under what I was expected to do (the whole power series relation thing).



Let $f(z) = (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)$, i.e. the numerator of our integrand. Then from the power series, we know



$$int_M frac{f(z)}{(z- (-1/3))^2} dz = frac{-2pi i}{(2-1)!} f^{(2-1)}(-1/3)$$



and more generally, for counterclockwise closed curves $C$,



$$int_C frac{f(z)}{(z-z_0)^k} dz = frac{2pi i}{(k-1)!} f^{(k-1)}(z_0)$$



Equivalently, as it was introduced in my class,



$$int_C frac{f(z)}{(z-z_0)^{k+1}} dz = frac{2pi i}{k!} f^{(k)}(z_0)$$





Solution: Part 2: (a.k.a. boring arithmetic)



So we find



$$left. frac{d}{dz} (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)}$$



We use the product rule and thus



$$begin{align}
&left. frac{d}{dz} (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)} \
&= left. (5)(6)(6z+1)^4 cos(3z+1) + (-3)(6z+1)^5 sin(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)}
end{align}$$



Simplifying, we obtain



$$left. 30(6z+1)^4 cos(3z+1) -3(6z+1)^5 sin(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)} = 30$$



Thus,



$$frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz = frac{-2pi i}{9} cdot 30 = frac{-20 pi i}{3}$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I thought you said you couldn't use the residue theorem? The other way to do it is to do 4 line integrals.
    $endgroup$
    – Doug M
    Jan 4 at 7:10










  • $begingroup$
    I couldn't do it, at the time. But the residue theorem is a generalization of the method intended to be used. So I focused in my answer on using that method because it's the more easily applicable one, and also explained briefly how it implies the solution I was intended to use at the time.
    $endgroup$
    – Eevee Trainer
    Jan 4 at 7:12










  • $begingroup$
    The Residue Theorem and The Cauchy Integral Formula are effectively the same thing.
    $endgroup$
    – Doug M
    Jan 4 at 7:14










  • $begingroup$
    Precisely my point.
    $endgroup$
    – Eevee Trainer
    Jan 4 at 7:15











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$


Disclosure: Saw that this question was open after learning the proper way to do it. Since an answer beyond "use the residue theorem" wasn't used, I figured I'd answer my own question. And on top of that, use the residue theorem I learned, as well as showing how it implies the solution I was intended to use (the relation you derive from using power series).






With regards to the method in the OP, this is very incorrect. The solution itself is best done with the residue theorem, which subsumes all prior activity in the course I was taking: Cauchy's integral formula, Cauchy's integral theorem, etc., ultimately were all implications of the residue theorem.



So it's best to tackle it from that mindset.





Solution:



So let's begin with our integral on the clockwise rectangle $M$:



$$int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz$$



We factor out $1/3$ from the denominator twice, thus noting



$$int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz = frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz$$



The one and only pole for this integrand is $z=-1/3$ and it is of order $2$. Thus, we can claim



$$begin{align}
&frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz \
&= frac{1}{9} cdot (-2pi i )cdot frac{1}{(2-1)!} cdot left. frac{d^{2-1}}{dz^{2-1}} (z+1/3)^2 frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2} right|_{z=(-1/3)}
end{align}$$



We clean up a bit and see



$$frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz = frac{-2pi i}{9} left. frac{d}{dz} (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)}$$





Digression: Residue Theorem vs. Power Series Method:



A slight digression on how the solution thus far, using the residue theorem, basically implies an approach under what I was expected to do (the whole power series relation thing).



Let $f(z) = (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)$, i.e. the numerator of our integrand. Then from the power series, we know



$$int_M frac{f(z)}{(z- (-1/3))^2} dz = frac{-2pi i}{(2-1)!} f^{(2-1)}(-1/3)$$



and more generally, for counterclockwise closed curves $C$,



$$int_C frac{f(z)}{(z-z_0)^k} dz = frac{2pi i}{(k-1)!} f^{(k-1)}(z_0)$$



Equivalently, as it was introduced in my class,



$$int_C frac{f(z)}{(z-z_0)^{k+1}} dz = frac{2pi i}{k!} f^{(k)}(z_0)$$





Solution: Part 2: (a.k.a. boring arithmetic)



So we find



$$left. frac{d}{dz} (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)}$$



We use the product rule and thus



$$begin{align}
&left. frac{d}{dz} (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)} \
&= left. (5)(6)(6z+1)^4 cos(3z+1) + (-3)(6z+1)^5 sin(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)}
end{align}$$



Simplifying, we obtain



$$left. 30(6z+1)^4 cos(3z+1) -3(6z+1)^5 sin(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)} = 30$$



Thus,



$$frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz = frac{-2pi i}{9} cdot 30 = frac{-20 pi i}{3}$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I thought you said you couldn't use the residue theorem? The other way to do it is to do 4 line integrals.
    $endgroup$
    – Doug M
    Jan 4 at 7:10










  • $begingroup$
    I couldn't do it, at the time. But the residue theorem is a generalization of the method intended to be used. So I focused in my answer on using that method because it's the more easily applicable one, and also explained briefly how it implies the solution I was intended to use at the time.
    $endgroup$
    – Eevee Trainer
    Jan 4 at 7:12










  • $begingroup$
    The Residue Theorem and The Cauchy Integral Formula are effectively the same thing.
    $endgroup$
    – Doug M
    Jan 4 at 7:14










  • $begingroup$
    Precisely my point.
    $endgroup$
    – Eevee Trainer
    Jan 4 at 7:15
















1












$begingroup$


Disclosure: Saw that this question was open after learning the proper way to do it. Since an answer beyond "use the residue theorem" wasn't used, I figured I'd answer my own question. And on top of that, use the residue theorem I learned, as well as showing how it implies the solution I was intended to use (the relation you derive from using power series).






With regards to the method in the OP, this is very incorrect. The solution itself is best done with the residue theorem, which subsumes all prior activity in the course I was taking: Cauchy's integral formula, Cauchy's integral theorem, etc., ultimately were all implications of the residue theorem.



So it's best to tackle it from that mindset.





Solution:



So let's begin with our integral on the clockwise rectangle $M$:



$$int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz$$



We factor out $1/3$ from the denominator twice, thus noting



$$int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz = frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz$$



The one and only pole for this integrand is $z=-1/3$ and it is of order $2$. Thus, we can claim



$$begin{align}
&frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz \
&= frac{1}{9} cdot (-2pi i )cdot frac{1}{(2-1)!} cdot left. frac{d^{2-1}}{dz^{2-1}} (z+1/3)^2 frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2} right|_{z=(-1/3)}
end{align}$$



We clean up a bit and see



$$frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz = frac{-2pi i}{9} left. frac{d}{dz} (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)}$$





Digression: Residue Theorem vs. Power Series Method:



A slight digression on how the solution thus far, using the residue theorem, basically implies an approach under what I was expected to do (the whole power series relation thing).



Let $f(z) = (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)$, i.e. the numerator of our integrand. Then from the power series, we know



$$int_M frac{f(z)}{(z- (-1/3))^2} dz = frac{-2pi i}{(2-1)!} f^{(2-1)}(-1/3)$$



and more generally, for counterclockwise closed curves $C$,



$$int_C frac{f(z)}{(z-z_0)^k} dz = frac{2pi i}{(k-1)!} f^{(k-1)}(z_0)$$



Equivalently, as it was introduced in my class,



$$int_C frac{f(z)}{(z-z_0)^{k+1}} dz = frac{2pi i}{k!} f^{(k)}(z_0)$$





Solution: Part 2: (a.k.a. boring arithmetic)



So we find



$$left. frac{d}{dz} (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)}$$



We use the product rule and thus



$$begin{align}
&left. frac{d}{dz} (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)} \
&= left. (5)(6)(6z+1)^4 cos(3z+1) + (-3)(6z+1)^5 sin(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)}
end{align}$$



Simplifying, we obtain



$$left. 30(6z+1)^4 cos(3z+1) -3(6z+1)^5 sin(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)} = 30$$



Thus,



$$frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz = frac{-2pi i}{9} cdot 30 = frac{-20 pi i}{3}$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I thought you said you couldn't use the residue theorem? The other way to do it is to do 4 line integrals.
    $endgroup$
    – Doug M
    Jan 4 at 7:10










  • $begingroup$
    I couldn't do it, at the time. But the residue theorem is a generalization of the method intended to be used. So I focused in my answer on using that method because it's the more easily applicable one, and also explained briefly how it implies the solution I was intended to use at the time.
    $endgroup$
    – Eevee Trainer
    Jan 4 at 7:12










  • $begingroup$
    The Residue Theorem and The Cauchy Integral Formula are effectively the same thing.
    $endgroup$
    – Doug M
    Jan 4 at 7:14










  • $begingroup$
    Precisely my point.
    $endgroup$
    – Eevee Trainer
    Jan 4 at 7:15














1












1








1





$begingroup$


Disclosure: Saw that this question was open after learning the proper way to do it. Since an answer beyond "use the residue theorem" wasn't used, I figured I'd answer my own question. And on top of that, use the residue theorem I learned, as well as showing how it implies the solution I was intended to use (the relation you derive from using power series).






With regards to the method in the OP, this is very incorrect. The solution itself is best done with the residue theorem, which subsumes all prior activity in the course I was taking: Cauchy's integral formula, Cauchy's integral theorem, etc., ultimately were all implications of the residue theorem.



So it's best to tackle it from that mindset.





Solution:



So let's begin with our integral on the clockwise rectangle $M$:



$$int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz$$



We factor out $1/3$ from the denominator twice, thus noting



$$int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz = frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz$$



The one and only pole for this integrand is $z=-1/3$ and it is of order $2$. Thus, we can claim



$$begin{align}
&frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz \
&= frac{1}{9} cdot (-2pi i )cdot frac{1}{(2-1)!} cdot left. frac{d^{2-1}}{dz^{2-1}} (z+1/3)^2 frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2} right|_{z=(-1/3)}
end{align}$$



We clean up a bit and see



$$frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz = frac{-2pi i}{9} left. frac{d}{dz} (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)}$$





Digression: Residue Theorem vs. Power Series Method:



A slight digression on how the solution thus far, using the residue theorem, basically implies an approach under what I was expected to do (the whole power series relation thing).



Let $f(z) = (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)$, i.e. the numerator of our integrand. Then from the power series, we know



$$int_M frac{f(z)}{(z- (-1/3))^2} dz = frac{-2pi i}{(2-1)!} f^{(2-1)}(-1/3)$$



and more generally, for counterclockwise closed curves $C$,



$$int_C frac{f(z)}{(z-z_0)^k} dz = frac{2pi i}{(k-1)!} f^{(k-1)}(z_0)$$



Equivalently, as it was introduced in my class,



$$int_C frac{f(z)}{(z-z_0)^{k+1}} dz = frac{2pi i}{k!} f^{(k)}(z_0)$$





Solution: Part 2: (a.k.a. boring arithmetic)



So we find



$$left. frac{d}{dz} (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)}$$



We use the product rule and thus



$$begin{align}
&left. frac{d}{dz} (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)} \
&= left. (5)(6)(6z+1)^4 cos(3z+1) + (-3)(6z+1)^5 sin(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)}
end{align}$$



Simplifying, we obtain



$$left. 30(6z+1)^4 cos(3z+1) -3(6z+1)^5 sin(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)} = 30$$



Thus,



$$frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz = frac{-2pi i}{9} cdot 30 = frac{-20 pi i}{3}$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




Disclosure: Saw that this question was open after learning the proper way to do it. Since an answer beyond "use the residue theorem" wasn't used, I figured I'd answer my own question. And on top of that, use the residue theorem I learned, as well as showing how it implies the solution I was intended to use (the relation you derive from using power series).






With regards to the method in the OP, this is very incorrect. The solution itself is best done with the residue theorem, which subsumes all prior activity in the course I was taking: Cauchy's integral formula, Cauchy's integral theorem, etc., ultimately were all implications of the residue theorem.



So it's best to tackle it from that mindset.





Solution:



So let's begin with our integral on the clockwise rectangle $M$:



$$int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz$$



We factor out $1/3$ from the denominator twice, thus noting



$$int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(3z+1)^2}dz = frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz$$



The one and only pole for this integrand is $z=-1/3$ and it is of order $2$. Thus, we can claim



$$begin{align}
&frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz \
&= frac{1}{9} cdot (-2pi i )cdot frac{1}{(2-1)!} cdot left. frac{d^{2-1}}{dz^{2-1}} (z+1/3)^2 frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2} right|_{z=(-1/3)}
end{align}$$



We clean up a bit and see



$$frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz = frac{-2pi i}{9} left. frac{d}{dz} (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)}$$





Digression: Residue Theorem vs. Power Series Method:



A slight digression on how the solution thus far, using the residue theorem, basically implies an approach under what I was expected to do (the whole power series relation thing).



Let $f(z) = (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)$, i.e. the numerator of our integrand. Then from the power series, we know



$$int_M frac{f(z)}{(z- (-1/3))^2} dz = frac{-2pi i}{(2-1)!} f^{(2-1)}(-1/3)$$



and more generally, for counterclockwise closed curves $C$,



$$int_C frac{f(z)}{(z-z_0)^k} dz = frac{2pi i}{(k-1)!} f^{(k-1)}(z_0)$$



Equivalently, as it was introduced in my class,



$$int_C frac{f(z)}{(z-z_0)^{k+1}} dz = frac{2pi i}{k!} f^{(k)}(z_0)$$





Solution: Part 2: (a.k.a. boring arithmetic)



So we find



$$left. frac{d}{dz} (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)}$$



We use the product rule and thus



$$begin{align}
&left. frac{d}{dz} (6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)} \
&= left. (5)(6)(6z+1)^4 cos(3z+1) + (-3)(6z+1)^5 sin(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)}
end{align}$$



Simplifying, we obtain



$$left. 30(6z+1)^4 cos(3z+1) -3(6z+1)^5 sin(3z+1) right|_{z=(-1/3)} = 30$$



Thus,



$$frac{1}{9} int_M frac{(6z+1)^5 cos(3z+1)}{(z+1/3)^2}dz = frac{-2pi i}{9} cdot 30 = frac{-20 pi i}{3}$$







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jan 4 at 7:06

























answered Dec 1 '18 at 6:19









Eevee TrainerEevee Trainer

5,3981936




5,3981936












  • $begingroup$
    I thought you said you couldn't use the residue theorem? The other way to do it is to do 4 line integrals.
    $endgroup$
    – Doug M
    Jan 4 at 7:10










  • $begingroup$
    I couldn't do it, at the time. But the residue theorem is a generalization of the method intended to be used. So I focused in my answer on using that method because it's the more easily applicable one, and also explained briefly how it implies the solution I was intended to use at the time.
    $endgroup$
    – Eevee Trainer
    Jan 4 at 7:12










  • $begingroup$
    The Residue Theorem and The Cauchy Integral Formula are effectively the same thing.
    $endgroup$
    – Doug M
    Jan 4 at 7:14










  • $begingroup$
    Precisely my point.
    $endgroup$
    – Eevee Trainer
    Jan 4 at 7:15


















  • $begingroup$
    I thought you said you couldn't use the residue theorem? The other way to do it is to do 4 line integrals.
    $endgroup$
    – Doug M
    Jan 4 at 7:10










  • $begingroup$
    I couldn't do it, at the time. But the residue theorem is a generalization of the method intended to be used. So I focused in my answer on using that method because it's the more easily applicable one, and also explained briefly how it implies the solution I was intended to use at the time.
    $endgroup$
    – Eevee Trainer
    Jan 4 at 7:12










  • $begingroup$
    The Residue Theorem and The Cauchy Integral Formula are effectively the same thing.
    $endgroup$
    – Doug M
    Jan 4 at 7:14










  • $begingroup$
    Precisely my point.
    $endgroup$
    – Eevee Trainer
    Jan 4 at 7:15
















$begingroup$
I thought you said you couldn't use the residue theorem? The other way to do it is to do 4 line integrals.
$endgroup$
– Doug M
Jan 4 at 7:10




$begingroup$
I thought you said you couldn't use the residue theorem? The other way to do it is to do 4 line integrals.
$endgroup$
– Doug M
Jan 4 at 7:10












$begingroup$
I couldn't do it, at the time. But the residue theorem is a generalization of the method intended to be used. So I focused in my answer on using that method because it's the more easily applicable one, and also explained briefly how it implies the solution I was intended to use at the time.
$endgroup$
– Eevee Trainer
Jan 4 at 7:12




$begingroup$
I couldn't do it, at the time. But the residue theorem is a generalization of the method intended to be used. So I focused in my answer on using that method because it's the more easily applicable one, and also explained briefly how it implies the solution I was intended to use at the time.
$endgroup$
– Eevee Trainer
Jan 4 at 7:12












$begingroup$
The Residue Theorem and The Cauchy Integral Formula are effectively the same thing.
$endgroup$
– Doug M
Jan 4 at 7:14




$begingroup$
The Residue Theorem and The Cauchy Integral Formula are effectively the same thing.
$endgroup$
– Doug M
Jan 4 at 7:14












$begingroup$
Precisely my point.
$endgroup$
– Eevee Trainer
Jan 4 at 7:15




$begingroup$
Precisely my point.
$endgroup$
– Eevee Trainer
Jan 4 at 7:15


















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