Probability it rains on random day












1














Problem



State of the weather in city can be modeled with simple probability. After rainy day it will rain the next day with probability of $0.5$ and after sunny day it will be sunny next day with probability of $0.9$. Let vector $vec{x_n}$ be



$$ vec{x_n} = begin{bmatrix} text{probability of sunny weather at day $n$} \ text{probability of rainy day at day $n$} end{bmatrix} $$



Probability of rainy and sunny weather for $n+1$:th day can be solved with matrix equation



$$ x_{n+1} = begin{bmatrix} 0.9 & 0.5 \ 0.1 & 0.5 end{bmatrix} x_n $$



We can assume that $vec{x_0}=begin{bmatrix}1 & 0end{bmatrix}^T$. What happens when $x_{infty}$ ? What are probabilities for random day when $nrightarrow infty$



Attempt to solve



First we compute eigenvalues and eigenvectors for our matrix. We can compute eigenvalues easily by utilizing two facts about eigenvalues. $1)$ sum of eigenvalues is same as trace. $2)$ product of eigenvalues is same as determinant. Let matrix $A$ be



$$ textbf{A} = begin{bmatrix} 0.9 & 0.5 \ 0.1 & 0.5 end{bmatrix}$$



Then we can note the equation as



$$ x_{n+1}=textbf{A}x_n $$



Then we can solve eigenvalues.



$$ begin{cases}
lambda_1 + lambda_2 = text{Tr}(textbf{A}) \
lambda_1cdot lambda_2= det(textbf{A}) \
end{cases} $$



$$ implies begin{cases}
lambda_1 + lambda_2 = 0.9 + 0.5 \
lambda_1cdot lambda_2= 0.9cdot 0.5 - 0.5 cdot 0.5 \
end{cases} $$



$$ implies begin{cases}
lambda_1 + lambda_2 = 1.4 \
lambda_1cdot lambda_2= 0.4 \
end{cases} $$



$$ implies lambda_1 = 0.4,lambda_2 = 1 $$



Eigenvectors can be acquired by solving $vec{x}$ from equation $(textbf{A}-lambda I)vec{x}=vec{0}$



$$
begin{bmatrix} 0.9 - lambda & 0.5 \ 0.1 & 0.5 - lambda end{bmatrix} begin{bmatrix} x_1 \ x_2 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 0 \ 0 end{bmatrix}
$$



Now we have eigenvectors



$$ lambda_1 text{ gives } vec{x_{lambda1}} = begin{bmatrix} 5 \ 1 end{bmatrix}, lambda_2 text{ gives } vec{x_{lambda2}} = begin{bmatrix} -1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $$



Eigenvectors are linearly independent so we can solve



$$ w_1 vec{x_{lambda1}} + w_2 vec{x_{lambda2}} = vec{x_0} $$



$$ implies w_1 begin{bmatrix} 5 \ 1 end{bmatrix} + w_2 begin{bmatrix} -1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 0 end{bmatrix} $$



$$ implies begin{bmatrix} 5 & -1 \ 1 & 1 end{bmatrix} begin{bmatrix} w_1 \ w_2 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 1 \0 end{bmatrix} $$



$$ implies w_1=1/6, w_2=-1/6 $$



I can write the original equation as:



$$ x_{n+1}=textbf{A}^n vec{x_{0}} = w_1 cdot lambda_1^n cdot vec{x_{lambda1}}+w_2 cdot lambda_2^n cdot vec{x_{lambda2}}$$



$$ x_{n+1} = w_1 cdot 0.4^n cdot begin{bmatrix} 5 \ 1 end{bmatrix} + w_2 cdot 1^n cdot begin{bmatrix} -1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} implies w_2 begin{bmatrix} -1 \ 1 end{bmatrix}, text{ when } k rightarrow infty $$



Then we have $P("text{sunny}")= -1w_1$ and $p(text{"it is raining"})=w_1$



$$ P("text{sunny}") = frac{1}{6} approx 16.67% $$
$$ P("text{raining}") = -frac{1}{6} approx -16.67% $$



Which is quite confusing that i have negative probability ? I think something went wrong with these calculations but i cannot see what ?










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 2




    A quick way to get the answer is to note that the probability that it is raining on one day far in the future must be the same as it is on the next day. Thus $p_r=.5times p_r+.1times (1-p_r)implies p_r=frac 16$
    – lulu
    Nov 27 '18 at 20:14
















1














Problem



State of the weather in city can be modeled with simple probability. After rainy day it will rain the next day with probability of $0.5$ and after sunny day it will be sunny next day with probability of $0.9$. Let vector $vec{x_n}$ be



$$ vec{x_n} = begin{bmatrix} text{probability of sunny weather at day $n$} \ text{probability of rainy day at day $n$} end{bmatrix} $$



Probability of rainy and sunny weather for $n+1$:th day can be solved with matrix equation



$$ x_{n+1} = begin{bmatrix} 0.9 & 0.5 \ 0.1 & 0.5 end{bmatrix} x_n $$



We can assume that $vec{x_0}=begin{bmatrix}1 & 0end{bmatrix}^T$. What happens when $x_{infty}$ ? What are probabilities for random day when $nrightarrow infty$



Attempt to solve



First we compute eigenvalues and eigenvectors for our matrix. We can compute eigenvalues easily by utilizing two facts about eigenvalues. $1)$ sum of eigenvalues is same as trace. $2)$ product of eigenvalues is same as determinant. Let matrix $A$ be



$$ textbf{A} = begin{bmatrix} 0.9 & 0.5 \ 0.1 & 0.5 end{bmatrix}$$



Then we can note the equation as



$$ x_{n+1}=textbf{A}x_n $$



Then we can solve eigenvalues.



$$ begin{cases}
lambda_1 + lambda_2 = text{Tr}(textbf{A}) \
lambda_1cdot lambda_2= det(textbf{A}) \
end{cases} $$



$$ implies begin{cases}
lambda_1 + lambda_2 = 0.9 + 0.5 \
lambda_1cdot lambda_2= 0.9cdot 0.5 - 0.5 cdot 0.5 \
end{cases} $$



$$ implies begin{cases}
lambda_1 + lambda_2 = 1.4 \
lambda_1cdot lambda_2= 0.4 \
end{cases} $$



$$ implies lambda_1 = 0.4,lambda_2 = 1 $$



Eigenvectors can be acquired by solving $vec{x}$ from equation $(textbf{A}-lambda I)vec{x}=vec{0}$



$$
begin{bmatrix} 0.9 - lambda & 0.5 \ 0.1 & 0.5 - lambda end{bmatrix} begin{bmatrix} x_1 \ x_2 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 0 \ 0 end{bmatrix}
$$



Now we have eigenvectors



$$ lambda_1 text{ gives } vec{x_{lambda1}} = begin{bmatrix} 5 \ 1 end{bmatrix}, lambda_2 text{ gives } vec{x_{lambda2}} = begin{bmatrix} -1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $$



Eigenvectors are linearly independent so we can solve



$$ w_1 vec{x_{lambda1}} + w_2 vec{x_{lambda2}} = vec{x_0} $$



$$ implies w_1 begin{bmatrix} 5 \ 1 end{bmatrix} + w_2 begin{bmatrix} -1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 0 end{bmatrix} $$



$$ implies begin{bmatrix} 5 & -1 \ 1 & 1 end{bmatrix} begin{bmatrix} w_1 \ w_2 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 1 \0 end{bmatrix} $$



$$ implies w_1=1/6, w_2=-1/6 $$



I can write the original equation as:



$$ x_{n+1}=textbf{A}^n vec{x_{0}} = w_1 cdot lambda_1^n cdot vec{x_{lambda1}}+w_2 cdot lambda_2^n cdot vec{x_{lambda2}}$$



$$ x_{n+1} = w_1 cdot 0.4^n cdot begin{bmatrix} 5 \ 1 end{bmatrix} + w_2 cdot 1^n cdot begin{bmatrix} -1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} implies w_2 begin{bmatrix} -1 \ 1 end{bmatrix}, text{ when } k rightarrow infty $$



Then we have $P("text{sunny}")= -1w_1$ and $p(text{"it is raining"})=w_1$



$$ P("text{sunny}") = frac{1}{6} approx 16.67% $$
$$ P("text{raining}") = -frac{1}{6} approx -16.67% $$



Which is quite confusing that i have negative probability ? I think something went wrong with these calculations but i cannot see what ?










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 2




    A quick way to get the answer is to note that the probability that it is raining on one day far in the future must be the same as it is on the next day. Thus $p_r=.5times p_r+.1times (1-p_r)implies p_r=frac 16$
    – lulu
    Nov 27 '18 at 20:14














1












1








1







Problem



State of the weather in city can be modeled with simple probability. After rainy day it will rain the next day with probability of $0.5$ and after sunny day it will be sunny next day with probability of $0.9$. Let vector $vec{x_n}$ be



$$ vec{x_n} = begin{bmatrix} text{probability of sunny weather at day $n$} \ text{probability of rainy day at day $n$} end{bmatrix} $$



Probability of rainy and sunny weather for $n+1$:th day can be solved with matrix equation



$$ x_{n+1} = begin{bmatrix} 0.9 & 0.5 \ 0.1 & 0.5 end{bmatrix} x_n $$



We can assume that $vec{x_0}=begin{bmatrix}1 & 0end{bmatrix}^T$. What happens when $x_{infty}$ ? What are probabilities for random day when $nrightarrow infty$



Attempt to solve



First we compute eigenvalues and eigenvectors for our matrix. We can compute eigenvalues easily by utilizing two facts about eigenvalues. $1)$ sum of eigenvalues is same as trace. $2)$ product of eigenvalues is same as determinant. Let matrix $A$ be



$$ textbf{A} = begin{bmatrix} 0.9 & 0.5 \ 0.1 & 0.5 end{bmatrix}$$



Then we can note the equation as



$$ x_{n+1}=textbf{A}x_n $$



Then we can solve eigenvalues.



$$ begin{cases}
lambda_1 + lambda_2 = text{Tr}(textbf{A}) \
lambda_1cdot lambda_2= det(textbf{A}) \
end{cases} $$



$$ implies begin{cases}
lambda_1 + lambda_2 = 0.9 + 0.5 \
lambda_1cdot lambda_2= 0.9cdot 0.5 - 0.5 cdot 0.5 \
end{cases} $$



$$ implies begin{cases}
lambda_1 + lambda_2 = 1.4 \
lambda_1cdot lambda_2= 0.4 \
end{cases} $$



$$ implies lambda_1 = 0.4,lambda_2 = 1 $$



Eigenvectors can be acquired by solving $vec{x}$ from equation $(textbf{A}-lambda I)vec{x}=vec{0}$



$$
begin{bmatrix} 0.9 - lambda & 0.5 \ 0.1 & 0.5 - lambda end{bmatrix} begin{bmatrix} x_1 \ x_2 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 0 \ 0 end{bmatrix}
$$



Now we have eigenvectors



$$ lambda_1 text{ gives } vec{x_{lambda1}} = begin{bmatrix} 5 \ 1 end{bmatrix}, lambda_2 text{ gives } vec{x_{lambda2}} = begin{bmatrix} -1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $$



Eigenvectors are linearly independent so we can solve



$$ w_1 vec{x_{lambda1}} + w_2 vec{x_{lambda2}} = vec{x_0} $$



$$ implies w_1 begin{bmatrix} 5 \ 1 end{bmatrix} + w_2 begin{bmatrix} -1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 0 end{bmatrix} $$



$$ implies begin{bmatrix} 5 & -1 \ 1 & 1 end{bmatrix} begin{bmatrix} w_1 \ w_2 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 1 \0 end{bmatrix} $$



$$ implies w_1=1/6, w_2=-1/6 $$



I can write the original equation as:



$$ x_{n+1}=textbf{A}^n vec{x_{0}} = w_1 cdot lambda_1^n cdot vec{x_{lambda1}}+w_2 cdot lambda_2^n cdot vec{x_{lambda2}}$$



$$ x_{n+1} = w_1 cdot 0.4^n cdot begin{bmatrix} 5 \ 1 end{bmatrix} + w_2 cdot 1^n cdot begin{bmatrix} -1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} implies w_2 begin{bmatrix} -1 \ 1 end{bmatrix}, text{ when } k rightarrow infty $$



Then we have $P("text{sunny}")= -1w_1$ and $p(text{"it is raining"})=w_1$



$$ P("text{sunny}") = frac{1}{6} approx 16.67% $$
$$ P("text{raining}") = -frac{1}{6} approx -16.67% $$



Which is quite confusing that i have negative probability ? I think something went wrong with these calculations but i cannot see what ?










share|cite|improve this question













Problem



State of the weather in city can be modeled with simple probability. After rainy day it will rain the next day with probability of $0.5$ and after sunny day it will be sunny next day with probability of $0.9$. Let vector $vec{x_n}$ be



$$ vec{x_n} = begin{bmatrix} text{probability of sunny weather at day $n$} \ text{probability of rainy day at day $n$} end{bmatrix} $$



Probability of rainy and sunny weather for $n+1$:th day can be solved with matrix equation



$$ x_{n+1} = begin{bmatrix} 0.9 & 0.5 \ 0.1 & 0.5 end{bmatrix} x_n $$



We can assume that $vec{x_0}=begin{bmatrix}1 & 0end{bmatrix}^T$. What happens when $x_{infty}$ ? What are probabilities for random day when $nrightarrow infty$



Attempt to solve



First we compute eigenvalues and eigenvectors for our matrix. We can compute eigenvalues easily by utilizing two facts about eigenvalues. $1)$ sum of eigenvalues is same as trace. $2)$ product of eigenvalues is same as determinant. Let matrix $A$ be



$$ textbf{A} = begin{bmatrix} 0.9 & 0.5 \ 0.1 & 0.5 end{bmatrix}$$



Then we can note the equation as



$$ x_{n+1}=textbf{A}x_n $$



Then we can solve eigenvalues.



$$ begin{cases}
lambda_1 + lambda_2 = text{Tr}(textbf{A}) \
lambda_1cdot lambda_2= det(textbf{A}) \
end{cases} $$



$$ implies begin{cases}
lambda_1 + lambda_2 = 0.9 + 0.5 \
lambda_1cdot lambda_2= 0.9cdot 0.5 - 0.5 cdot 0.5 \
end{cases} $$



$$ implies begin{cases}
lambda_1 + lambda_2 = 1.4 \
lambda_1cdot lambda_2= 0.4 \
end{cases} $$



$$ implies lambda_1 = 0.4,lambda_2 = 1 $$



Eigenvectors can be acquired by solving $vec{x}$ from equation $(textbf{A}-lambda I)vec{x}=vec{0}$



$$
begin{bmatrix} 0.9 - lambda & 0.5 \ 0.1 & 0.5 - lambda end{bmatrix} begin{bmatrix} x_1 \ x_2 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 0 \ 0 end{bmatrix}
$$



Now we have eigenvectors



$$ lambda_1 text{ gives } vec{x_{lambda1}} = begin{bmatrix} 5 \ 1 end{bmatrix}, lambda_2 text{ gives } vec{x_{lambda2}} = begin{bmatrix} -1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $$



Eigenvectors are linearly independent so we can solve



$$ w_1 vec{x_{lambda1}} + w_2 vec{x_{lambda2}} = vec{x_0} $$



$$ implies w_1 begin{bmatrix} 5 \ 1 end{bmatrix} + w_2 begin{bmatrix} -1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 0 end{bmatrix} $$



$$ implies begin{bmatrix} 5 & -1 \ 1 & 1 end{bmatrix} begin{bmatrix} w_1 \ w_2 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 1 \0 end{bmatrix} $$



$$ implies w_1=1/6, w_2=-1/6 $$



I can write the original equation as:



$$ x_{n+1}=textbf{A}^n vec{x_{0}} = w_1 cdot lambda_1^n cdot vec{x_{lambda1}}+w_2 cdot lambda_2^n cdot vec{x_{lambda2}}$$



$$ x_{n+1} = w_1 cdot 0.4^n cdot begin{bmatrix} 5 \ 1 end{bmatrix} + w_2 cdot 1^n cdot begin{bmatrix} -1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} implies w_2 begin{bmatrix} -1 \ 1 end{bmatrix}, text{ when } k rightarrow infty $$



Then we have $P("text{sunny}")= -1w_1$ and $p(text{"it is raining"})=w_1$



$$ P("text{sunny}") = frac{1}{6} approx 16.67% $$
$$ P("text{raining}") = -frac{1}{6} approx -16.67% $$



Which is quite confusing that i have negative probability ? I think something went wrong with these calculations but i cannot see what ?







probability matrices eigenvalues-eigenvectors markov-chains






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asked Nov 27 '18 at 20:08









Tuki

1,019316




1,019316








  • 2




    A quick way to get the answer is to note that the probability that it is raining on one day far in the future must be the same as it is on the next day. Thus $p_r=.5times p_r+.1times (1-p_r)implies p_r=frac 16$
    – lulu
    Nov 27 '18 at 20:14














  • 2




    A quick way to get the answer is to note that the probability that it is raining on one day far in the future must be the same as it is on the next day. Thus $p_r=.5times p_r+.1times (1-p_r)implies p_r=frac 16$
    – lulu
    Nov 27 '18 at 20:14








2




2




A quick way to get the answer is to note that the probability that it is raining on one day far in the future must be the same as it is on the next day. Thus $p_r=.5times p_r+.1times (1-p_r)implies p_r=frac 16$
– lulu
Nov 27 '18 at 20:14




A quick way to get the answer is to note that the probability that it is raining on one day far in the future must be the same as it is on the next day. Thus $p_r=.5times p_r+.1times (1-p_r)implies p_r=frac 16$
– lulu
Nov 27 '18 at 20:14










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It's all good except for the fact that the eigenvalue $lambda_1=0.4$ yields as eigenvector $(-1,1)$ and eigenvalue $lambda_2=1$ the eigenvector $(5,1)$ (that is, the other way around).



Being so, at the end you would have that $$lim_{ntoinfty}w_2,lambda_2^n,vec{x}_{lambda_2} = w_2,(5,1)=(5/6, 1/6)$$






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    It's all good except for the fact that the eigenvalue $lambda_1=0.4$ yields as eigenvector $(-1,1)$ and eigenvalue $lambda_2=1$ the eigenvector $(5,1)$ (that is, the other way around).



    Being so, at the end you would have that $$lim_{ntoinfty}w_2,lambda_2^n,vec{x}_{lambda_2} = w_2,(5,1)=(5/6, 1/6)$$






    share|cite|improve this answer


























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      It's all good except for the fact that the eigenvalue $lambda_1=0.4$ yields as eigenvector $(-1,1)$ and eigenvalue $lambda_2=1$ the eigenvector $(5,1)$ (that is, the other way around).



      Being so, at the end you would have that $$lim_{ntoinfty}w_2,lambda_2^n,vec{x}_{lambda_2} = w_2,(5,1)=(5/6, 1/6)$$






      share|cite|improve this answer
























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        1








        1






        It's all good except for the fact that the eigenvalue $lambda_1=0.4$ yields as eigenvector $(-1,1)$ and eigenvalue $lambda_2=1$ the eigenvector $(5,1)$ (that is, the other way around).



        Being so, at the end you would have that $$lim_{ntoinfty}w_2,lambda_2^n,vec{x}_{lambda_2} = w_2,(5,1)=(5/6, 1/6)$$






        share|cite|improve this answer












        It's all good except for the fact that the eigenvalue $lambda_1=0.4$ yields as eigenvector $(-1,1)$ and eigenvalue $lambda_2=1$ the eigenvector $(5,1)$ (that is, the other way around).



        Being so, at the end you would have that $$lim_{ntoinfty}w_2,lambda_2^n,vec{x}_{lambda_2} = w_2,(5,1)=(5/6, 1/6)$$







        share|cite|improve this answer












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        answered Nov 28 '18 at 3:10









        DavidPM

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