Confusion regarding OPEF and CRLB












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$begingroup$


I am a little confused on this ,
We know that under suitable regularity conditions,the Cramer-Rao lower bound is attained by the variance of an unbiased estimator $T(X)$ of $g(theta)$ iff the family of distributions of $x$ is an One parameter exponential family.
Now, suppose , $X sim P(lambda)$.
Clearly, the family $(P(lambda): lambda>0)$ is an OPEF and it satisfies all the regularity conditions,then for any unbiased estimator $T$ of $e^{-lambda}$, $V(T)$ does not attain Cramer Rao lower bound.
Is this not contradictory?
Or am I missing something?
Help!










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The condition you mention at the beginning is definitely not 'iff', as shown by your example. Starting from the equality condition of the Cramer-Rao inequality one gets OPEF, not the other way around. And indeed, variance of an unbiased estimator/UMVUE need not attain CRLB in general.
    $endgroup$
    – StubbornAtom
    Dec 5 '18 at 19:34
















0












$begingroup$


I am a little confused on this ,
We know that under suitable regularity conditions,the Cramer-Rao lower bound is attained by the variance of an unbiased estimator $T(X)$ of $g(theta)$ iff the family of distributions of $x$ is an One parameter exponential family.
Now, suppose , $X sim P(lambda)$.
Clearly, the family $(P(lambda): lambda>0)$ is an OPEF and it satisfies all the regularity conditions,then for any unbiased estimator $T$ of $e^{-lambda}$, $V(T)$ does not attain Cramer Rao lower bound.
Is this not contradictory?
Or am I missing something?
Help!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The condition you mention at the beginning is definitely not 'iff', as shown by your example. Starting from the equality condition of the Cramer-Rao inequality one gets OPEF, not the other way around. And indeed, variance of an unbiased estimator/UMVUE need not attain CRLB in general.
    $endgroup$
    – StubbornAtom
    Dec 5 '18 at 19:34














0












0








0


1



$begingroup$


I am a little confused on this ,
We know that under suitable regularity conditions,the Cramer-Rao lower bound is attained by the variance of an unbiased estimator $T(X)$ of $g(theta)$ iff the family of distributions of $x$ is an One parameter exponential family.
Now, suppose , $X sim P(lambda)$.
Clearly, the family $(P(lambda): lambda>0)$ is an OPEF and it satisfies all the regularity conditions,then for any unbiased estimator $T$ of $e^{-lambda}$, $V(T)$ does not attain Cramer Rao lower bound.
Is this not contradictory?
Or am I missing something?
Help!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I am a little confused on this ,
We know that under suitable regularity conditions,the Cramer-Rao lower bound is attained by the variance of an unbiased estimator $T(X)$ of $g(theta)$ iff the family of distributions of $x$ is an One parameter exponential family.
Now, suppose , $X sim P(lambda)$.
Clearly, the family $(P(lambda): lambda>0)$ is an OPEF and it satisfies all the regularity conditions,then for any unbiased estimator $T$ of $e^{-lambda}$, $V(T)$ does not attain Cramer Rao lower bound.
Is this not contradictory?
Or am I missing something?
Help!







probability probability-theory statistics probability-distributions parameter-estimation






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 5 '18 at 17:34







Legend Killer

















asked Dec 5 '18 at 15:21









Legend KillerLegend Killer

1,6061523




1,6061523












  • $begingroup$
    The condition you mention at the beginning is definitely not 'iff', as shown by your example. Starting from the equality condition of the Cramer-Rao inequality one gets OPEF, not the other way around. And indeed, variance of an unbiased estimator/UMVUE need not attain CRLB in general.
    $endgroup$
    – StubbornAtom
    Dec 5 '18 at 19:34


















  • $begingroup$
    The condition you mention at the beginning is definitely not 'iff', as shown by your example. Starting from the equality condition of the Cramer-Rao inequality one gets OPEF, not the other way around. And indeed, variance of an unbiased estimator/UMVUE need not attain CRLB in general.
    $endgroup$
    – StubbornAtom
    Dec 5 '18 at 19:34
















$begingroup$
The condition you mention at the beginning is definitely not 'iff', as shown by your example. Starting from the equality condition of the Cramer-Rao inequality one gets OPEF, not the other way around. And indeed, variance of an unbiased estimator/UMVUE need not attain CRLB in general.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Dec 5 '18 at 19:34




$begingroup$
The condition you mention at the beginning is definitely not 'iff', as shown by your example. Starting from the equality condition of the Cramer-Rao inequality one gets OPEF, not the other way around. And indeed, variance of an unbiased estimator/UMVUE need not attain CRLB in general.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Dec 5 '18 at 19:34










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