Explaination of the Frechet Derivative












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$begingroup$



Let $E$ and $F$ be Banach spaces and let $U$ be an open subset of $E$. Suppose $g:U to F $. $g$ is continuous at $x_0$ if there exists a linear transformation, $T_{x_0}$, such that $$ lim limits_{x_0 to 0}dfrac{||g(x_0+h)-g(x_0)-T_{x_0}(h)||}{||h||}. $$ Then $Dg_{x_0}=T_{x_0}$ is then the Frechet derivative of $g$ at $x_0$.




I have a question about this with two examples from this video (https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=RKHx1vQdZko).



For the first example we compute the Frechet derivative of $f(x)=x^2$ and we get that $T_x(h) = h(2x)$. For the second example we find the Frechet derivative of $f(x,y)=(xy , x+y)$ and here we get that $T_{(x,y)}(h,v)=begin{bmatrix}
y & x \
1 & 1 \
end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix}
h \
v \
end{bmatrix}$
.



But the definition says that $Df_{x_0}=T_{x_0}$ so does that mean that $Df_{x_0}=T_{x_0}(1)$? It seems to be the case for both of these examples. I believe this is always but am unsure. The reason why I think this is that the transformation is linear so $T_{x_0}(h)=h(Df_{x_0})$ since $T$ linearly maps $h$ so if we let $h=1$ then we are just left with $Df_{x_0}$. Does my reasoning make sense?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    No. What does even $h = 1$ mean in Banach spaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Will M.
    Nov 26 '18 at 4:56
















0












$begingroup$



Let $E$ and $F$ be Banach spaces and let $U$ be an open subset of $E$. Suppose $g:U to F $. $g$ is continuous at $x_0$ if there exists a linear transformation, $T_{x_0}$, such that $$ lim limits_{x_0 to 0}dfrac{||g(x_0+h)-g(x_0)-T_{x_0}(h)||}{||h||}. $$ Then $Dg_{x_0}=T_{x_0}$ is then the Frechet derivative of $g$ at $x_0$.




I have a question about this with two examples from this video (https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=RKHx1vQdZko).



For the first example we compute the Frechet derivative of $f(x)=x^2$ and we get that $T_x(h) = h(2x)$. For the second example we find the Frechet derivative of $f(x,y)=(xy , x+y)$ and here we get that $T_{(x,y)}(h,v)=begin{bmatrix}
y & x \
1 & 1 \
end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix}
h \
v \
end{bmatrix}$
.



But the definition says that $Df_{x_0}=T_{x_0}$ so does that mean that $Df_{x_0}=T_{x_0}(1)$? It seems to be the case for both of these examples. I believe this is always but am unsure. The reason why I think this is that the transformation is linear so $T_{x_0}(h)=h(Df_{x_0})$ since $T$ linearly maps $h$ so if we let $h=1$ then we are just left with $Df_{x_0}$. Does my reasoning make sense?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    No. What does even $h = 1$ mean in Banach spaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Will M.
    Nov 26 '18 at 4:56














0












0








0





$begingroup$



Let $E$ and $F$ be Banach spaces and let $U$ be an open subset of $E$. Suppose $g:U to F $. $g$ is continuous at $x_0$ if there exists a linear transformation, $T_{x_0}$, such that $$ lim limits_{x_0 to 0}dfrac{||g(x_0+h)-g(x_0)-T_{x_0}(h)||}{||h||}. $$ Then $Dg_{x_0}=T_{x_0}$ is then the Frechet derivative of $g$ at $x_0$.




I have a question about this with two examples from this video (https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=RKHx1vQdZko).



For the first example we compute the Frechet derivative of $f(x)=x^2$ and we get that $T_x(h) = h(2x)$. For the second example we find the Frechet derivative of $f(x,y)=(xy , x+y)$ and here we get that $T_{(x,y)}(h,v)=begin{bmatrix}
y & x \
1 & 1 \
end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix}
h \
v \
end{bmatrix}$
.



But the definition says that $Df_{x_0}=T_{x_0}$ so does that mean that $Df_{x_0}=T_{x_0}(1)$? It seems to be the case for both of these examples. I believe this is always but am unsure. The reason why I think this is that the transformation is linear so $T_{x_0}(h)=h(Df_{x_0})$ since $T$ linearly maps $h$ so if we let $h=1$ then we are just left with $Df_{x_0}$. Does my reasoning make sense?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$





Let $E$ and $F$ be Banach spaces and let $U$ be an open subset of $E$. Suppose $g:U to F $. $g$ is continuous at $x_0$ if there exists a linear transformation, $T_{x_0}$, such that $$ lim limits_{x_0 to 0}dfrac{||g(x_0+h)-g(x_0)-T_{x_0}(h)||}{||h||}. $$ Then $Dg_{x_0}=T_{x_0}$ is then the Frechet derivative of $g$ at $x_0$.




I have a question about this with two examples from this video (https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=RKHx1vQdZko).



For the first example we compute the Frechet derivative of $f(x)=x^2$ and we get that $T_x(h) = h(2x)$. For the second example we find the Frechet derivative of $f(x,y)=(xy , x+y)$ and here we get that $T_{(x,y)}(h,v)=begin{bmatrix}
y & x \
1 & 1 \
end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix}
h \
v \
end{bmatrix}$
.



But the definition says that $Df_{x_0}=T_{x_0}$ so does that mean that $Df_{x_0}=T_{x_0}(1)$? It seems to be the case for both of these examples. I believe this is always but am unsure. The reason why I think this is that the transformation is linear so $T_{x_0}(h)=h(Df_{x_0})$ since $T$ linearly maps $h$ so if we let $h=1$ then we are just left with $Df_{x_0}$. Does my reasoning make sense?







frechet-derivative






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asked Sep 30 '18 at 3:11









alpastalpast

468314




468314












  • $begingroup$
    No. What does even $h = 1$ mean in Banach spaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Will M.
    Nov 26 '18 at 4:56


















  • $begingroup$
    No. What does even $h = 1$ mean in Banach spaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Will M.
    Nov 26 '18 at 4:56
















$begingroup$
No. What does even $h = 1$ mean in Banach spaces?
$endgroup$
– Will M.
Nov 26 '18 at 4:56




$begingroup$
No. What does even $h = 1$ mean in Banach spaces?
$endgroup$
– Will M.
Nov 26 '18 at 4:56










1 Answer
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oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

Yes, it makes sense in case $E = mathbb{K}$ where $mathbb{K}$ is $mathbb{R}$ or $mathbb{C}$, i.e. what you said makes sense for your first example. The comment of @WillM. is key here, as $h=1$ in Banach spaces only means something if the Banach space is a field too. Note that your equation $T_{x_0}(h) = h(Df_{x_0})$ doesn't make sense in any other case.



More precisely: $mathcal{L}(mathbb{K},F)$ is isometrically isomorphic to $F$ via $varphicolonmathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F)to F,, Amapsto A1$.



To see this, note that $varphi$ obviously is linear and injective. Next, consider, given $vin F$, the definition $(A_vx:=xcdot v,; xinmathbb{K})$. That way we get $A_vinmathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F)$ and $A_v1 = v$, i.e. $varphi$ is surjective. Finally,
$$ Vert AxVert_F = vert xvert Vert A1Vert_Fleq Vert A1Vert_f,quad vert xvert leq 1,; Ainmathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F),$$
which easily shows that $Vert AVert_{mathcal{L}(mathbb{K},F)} = Vert A1Vert_F$.



In conclusion, you may identify $mathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F) = F$.






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    $begingroup$

    Yes, it makes sense in case $E = mathbb{K}$ where $mathbb{K}$ is $mathbb{R}$ or $mathbb{C}$, i.e. what you said makes sense for your first example. The comment of @WillM. is key here, as $h=1$ in Banach spaces only means something if the Banach space is a field too. Note that your equation $T_{x_0}(h) = h(Df_{x_0})$ doesn't make sense in any other case.



    More precisely: $mathcal{L}(mathbb{K},F)$ is isometrically isomorphic to $F$ via $varphicolonmathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F)to F,, Amapsto A1$.



    To see this, note that $varphi$ obviously is linear and injective. Next, consider, given $vin F$, the definition $(A_vx:=xcdot v,; xinmathbb{K})$. That way we get $A_vinmathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F)$ and $A_v1 = v$, i.e. $varphi$ is surjective. Finally,
    $$ Vert AxVert_F = vert xvert Vert A1Vert_Fleq Vert A1Vert_f,quad vert xvert leq 1,; Ainmathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F),$$
    which easily shows that $Vert AVert_{mathcal{L}(mathbb{K},F)} = Vert A1Vert_F$.



    In conclusion, you may identify $mathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F) = F$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      Yes, it makes sense in case $E = mathbb{K}$ where $mathbb{K}$ is $mathbb{R}$ or $mathbb{C}$, i.e. what you said makes sense for your first example. The comment of @WillM. is key here, as $h=1$ in Banach spaces only means something if the Banach space is a field too. Note that your equation $T_{x_0}(h) = h(Df_{x_0})$ doesn't make sense in any other case.



      More precisely: $mathcal{L}(mathbb{K},F)$ is isometrically isomorphic to $F$ via $varphicolonmathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F)to F,, Amapsto A1$.



      To see this, note that $varphi$ obviously is linear and injective. Next, consider, given $vin F$, the definition $(A_vx:=xcdot v,; xinmathbb{K})$. That way we get $A_vinmathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F)$ and $A_v1 = v$, i.e. $varphi$ is surjective. Finally,
      $$ Vert AxVert_F = vert xvert Vert A1Vert_Fleq Vert A1Vert_f,quad vert xvert leq 1,; Ainmathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F),$$
      which easily shows that $Vert AVert_{mathcal{L}(mathbb{K},F)} = Vert A1Vert_F$.



      In conclusion, you may identify $mathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F) = F$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Yes, it makes sense in case $E = mathbb{K}$ where $mathbb{K}$ is $mathbb{R}$ or $mathbb{C}$, i.e. what you said makes sense for your first example. The comment of @WillM. is key here, as $h=1$ in Banach spaces only means something if the Banach space is a field too. Note that your equation $T_{x_0}(h) = h(Df_{x_0})$ doesn't make sense in any other case.



        More precisely: $mathcal{L}(mathbb{K},F)$ is isometrically isomorphic to $F$ via $varphicolonmathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F)to F,, Amapsto A1$.



        To see this, note that $varphi$ obviously is linear and injective. Next, consider, given $vin F$, the definition $(A_vx:=xcdot v,; xinmathbb{K})$. That way we get $A_vinmathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F)$ and $A_v1 = v$, i.e. $varphi$ is surjective. Finally,
        $$ Vert AxVert_F = vert xvert Vert A1Vert_Fleq Vert A1Vert_f,quad vert xvert leq 1,; Ainmathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F),$$
        which easily shows that $Vert AVert_{mathcal{L}(mathbb{K},F)} = Vert A1Vert_F$.



        In conclusion, you may identify $mathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F) = F$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Yes, it makes sense in case $E = mathbb{K}$ where $mathbb{K}$ is $mathbb{R}$ or $mathbb{C}$, i.e. what you said makes sense for your first example. The comment of @WillM. is key here, as $h=1$ in Banach spaces only means something if the Banach space is a field too. Note that your equation $T_{x_0}(h) = h(Df_{x_0})$ doesn't make sense in any other case.



        More precisely: $mathcal{L}(mathbb{K},F)$ is isometrically isomorphic to $F$ via $varphicolonmathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F)to F,, Amapsto A1$.



        To see this, note that $varphi$ obviously is linear and injective. Next, consider, given $vin F$, the definition $(A_vx:=xcdot v,; xinmathbb{K})$. That way we get $A_vinmathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F)$ and $A_v1 = v$, i.e. $varphi$ is surjective. Finally,
        $$ Vert AxVert_F = vert xvert Vert A1Vert_Fleq Vert A1Vert_f,quad vert xvert leq 1,; Ainmathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F),$$
        which easily shows that $Vert AVert_{mathcal{L}(mathbb{K},F)} = Vert A1Vert_F$.



        In conclusion, you may identify $mathcal{L}(mathbb{K}, F) = F$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Dec 3 '18 at 18:44

























        answered Dec 3 '18 at 18:32









        RamenRamen

        463412




        463412






























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