Moving frame method with non-matrix Lie group












0












$begingroup$


I am trying to understand the modern formulation of the moving frame method for Lie group acting on a manifold.
I know the following theorem




Let be $M$ a manifold, $G$ a Lie group and $omega$ the Maurer-Cartan form of $G$. If $f_1, f_2: M to G$ are two functions, than $f_1^*omega = f_2^*omega$ if and only if $f_1 = gf_2$ for a fixed $g in G$.




I have always seen this theorem proved for matrix Lie group. In this case that's easy because $G$ can play directly with his Lie algebra $frak{g}$ (for example we have $omega_g = g^{-1}dg$). My question is:




Is this theorem true for a general Lie group? How is this proved?




Thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    I am trying to understand the modern formulation of the moving frame method for Lie group acting on a manifold.
    I know the following theorem




    Let be $M$ a manifold, $G$ a Lie group and $omega$ the Maurer-Cartan form of $G$. If $f_1, f_2: M to G$ are two functions, than $f_1^*omega = f_2^*omega$ if and only if $f_1 = gf_2$ for a fixed $g in G$.




    I have always seen this theorem proved for matrix Lie group. In this case that's easy because $G$ can play directly with his Lie algebra $frak{g}$ (for example we have $omega_g = g^{-1}dg$). My question is:




    Is this theorem true for a general Lie group? How is this proved?




    Thanks in advance.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I am trying to understand the modern formulation of the moving frame method for Lie group acting on a manifold.
      I know the following theorem




      Let be $M$ a manifold, $G$ a Lie group and $omega$ the Maurer-Cartan form of $G$. If $f_1, f_2: M to G$ are two functions, than $f_1^*omega = f_2^*omega$ if and only if $f_1 = gf_2$ for a fixed $g in G$.




      I have always seen this theorem proved for matrix Lie group. In this case that's easy because $G$ can play directly with his Lie algebra $frak{g}$ (for example we have $omega_g = g^{-1}dg$). My question is:




      Is this theorem true for a general Lie group? How is this proved?




      Thanks in advance.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I am trying to understand the modern formulation of the moving frame method for Lie group acting on a manifold.
      I know the following theorem




      Let be $M$ a manifold, $G$ a Lie group and $omega$ the Maurer-Cartan form of $G$. If $f_1, f_2: M to G$ are two functions, than $f_1^*omega = f_2^*omega$ if and only if $f_1 = gf_2$ for a fixed $g in G$.




      I have always seen this theorem proved for matrix Lie group. In this case that's easy because $G$ can play directly with his Lie algebra $frak{g}$ (for example we have $omega_g = g^{-1}dg$). My question is:




      Is this theorem true for a general Lie group? How is this proved?




      Thanks in advance.







      differential-geometry lie-groups differential-forms






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Dec 3 '18 at 18:31









      Marco All-in NervoMarco All-in Nervo

      36118




      36118






















          2 Answers
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          1












          $begingroup$

          There are various proofs in textbooks. My favorite proof is to use E. Cartan's graph trick and the Frobenius Theorem.



          As you stated it, things aren't quite right. You need $M$ connected.



          If $omega^1,dots,omega^n$ are $n$ basis left-invariant forms (so we pick a basis for $mathfrak g^*$ and pull back by $L_g$), consider the differential ideal generated by the $1$-forms
          $$eta^i = f_1^*omega^i-f_2^*omega^i.$$
          Conceptually, we're looking at the map $F=(f_1,f_2)colon Mto Gtimes G$ and pulling back the forms $phi^i=pi_1^*omega^i - pi_2^*omega^i$ by the product map. The differential system $phi^1=dots=phi^n=0$ is completely integrable, since
          $$dphi = pi_1^*[omega,omega] - pi_2^*[omega,omega] = [phi,pi_1^*omega] + [pi_2^*omega,phi] equiv 0 pmodphi.$$
          Indeed, integral manifolds of $phi^i=0$ give left cosets of the diagonal subgroup $Deltasubset Gtimes G$. Since $F^*phi^i = 0$ by hypothesis, and since $M$ is connected the image of $F$ must be contained in one of those integral manifolds, which says that $f_1=gf_2$ for some $gin G$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks, as always, for your answer! Is necessary to use Frobenius theorem? I have always seen it used for the existence part. And which textbooks do you have in mind?
            $endgroup$
            – Marco All-in Nervo
            Dec 3 '18 at 23:18










          • $begingroup$
            Well, in this case you can get the integral manifolds by inspection. I was thinking of the more interesting parallel result that you construct $fcolon Mto G$ if you have a system of $1$-forms on $M$ satisfying the Maurer-Cartan equations of $G$. ... This stuff is in Warner and Spivak (volume 1). There's also a beautiful paper of Griffiths on Lie Groups and Moving Frames (Duke, 41, no. 4, pp. 775-814). Also, see Chern/Chen/Lam, pp. 198 ff.
            $endgroup$
            – Ted Shifrin
            Dec 3 '18 at 23:47












          • $begingroup$
            Yes, I got your answer and your proof is really beautiful. I was looking for a simpler proof (as in Spivak, thank you!) with instruments that I can manage with my little experience. The paper of Griffiths seems really ...wow. Thank you again, next time I will start my question with "Dear Shifrin, here my new doubts about moving frames..."
            $endgroup$
            – Marco All-in Nervo
            Dec 4 '18 at 20:20



















          0












          $begingroup$

          Here Spivak's proof from A Comprehensive Introduction to Differential Geometry, Vol. 1



          enter image description here



          enter image description here






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            1












            $begingroup$

            There are various proofs in textbooks. My favorite proof is to use E. Cartan's graph trick and the Frobenius Theorem.



            As you stated it, things aren't quite right. You need $M$ connected.



            If $omega^1,dots,omega^n$ are $n$ basis left-invariant forms (so we pick a basis for $mathfrak g^*$ and pull back by $L_g$), consider the differential ideal generated by the $1$-forms
            $$eta^i = f_1^*omega^i-f_2^*omega^i.$$
            Conceptually, we're looking at the map $F=(f_1,f_2)colon Mto Gtimes G$ and pulling back the forms $phi^i=pi_1^*omega^i - pi_2^*omega^i$ by the product map. The differential system $phi^1=dots=phi^n=0$ is completely integrable, since
            $$dphi = pi_1^*[omega,omega] - pi_2^*[omega,omega] = [phi,pi_1^*omega] + [pi_2^*omega,phi] equiv 0 pmodphi.$$
            Indeed, integral manifolds of $phi^i=0$ give left cosets of the diagonal subgroup $Deltasubset Gtimes G$. Since $F^*phi^i = 0$ by hypothesis, and since $M$ is connected the image of $F$ must be contained in one of those integral manifolds, which says that $f_1=gf_2$ for some $gin G$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thanks, as always, for your answer! Is necessary to use Frobenius theorem? I have always seen it used for the existence part. And which textbooks do you have in mind?
              $endgroup$
              – Marco All-in Nervo
              Dec 3 '18 at 23:18










            • $begingroup$
              Well, in this case you can get the integral manifolds by inspection. I was thinking of the more interesting parallel result that you construct $fcolon Mto G$ if you have a system of $1$-forms on $M$ satisfying the Maurer-Cartan equations of $G$. ... This stuff is in Warner and Spivak (volume 1). There's also a beautiful paper of Griffiths on Lie Groups and Moving Frames (Duke, 41, no. 4, pp. 775-814). Also, see Chern/Chen/Lam, pp. 198 ff.
              $endgroup$
              – Ted Shifrin
              Dec 3 '18 at 23:47












            • $begingroup$
              Yes, I got your answer and your proof is really beautiful. I was looking for a simpler proof (as in Spivak, thank you!) with instruments that I can manage with my little experience. The paper of Griffiths seems really ...wow. Thank you again, next time I will start my question with "Dear Shifrin, here my new doubts about moving frames..."
              $endgroup$
              – Marco All-in Nervo
              Dec 4 '18 at 20:20
















            1












            $begingroup$

            There are various proofs in textbooks. My favorite proof is to use E. Cartan's graph trick and the Frobenius Theorem.



            As you stated it, things aren't quite right. You need $M$ connected.



            If $omega^1,dots,omega^n$ are $n$ basis left-invariant forms (so we pick a basis for $mathfrak g^*$ and pull back by $L_g$), consider the differential ideal generated by the $1$-forms
            $$eta^i = f_1^*omega^i-f_2^*omega^i.$$
            Conceptually, we're looking at the map $F=(f_1,f_2)colon Mto Gtimes G$ and pulling back the forms $phi^i=pi_1^*omega^i - pi_2^*omega^i$ by the product map. The differential system $phi^1=dots=phi^n=0$ is completely integrable, since
            $$dphi = pi_1^*[omega,omega] - pi_2^*[omega,omega] = [phi,pi_1^*omega] + [pi_2^*omega,phi] equiv 0 pmodphi.$$
            Indeed, integral manifolds of $phi^i=0$ give left cosets of the diagonal subgroup $Deltasubset Gtimes G$. Since $F^*phi^i = 0$ by hypothesis, and since $M$ is connected the image of $F$ must be contained in one of those integral manifolds, which says that $f_1=gf_2$ for some $gin G$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thanks, as always, for your answer! Is necessary to use Frobenius theorem? I have always seen it used for the existence part. And which textbooks do you have in mind?
              $endgroup$
              – Marco All-in Nervo
              Dec 3 '18 at 23:18










            • $begingroup$
              Well, in this case you can get the integral manifolds by inspection. I was thinking of the more interesting parallel result that you construct $fcolon Mto G$ if you have a system of $1$-forms on $M$ satisfying the Maurer-Cartan equations of $G$. ... This stuff is in Warner and Spivak (volume 1). There's also a beautiful paper of Griffiths on Lie Groups and Moving Frames (Duke, 41, no. 4, pp. 775-814). Also, see Chern/Chen/Lam, pp. 198 ff.
              $endgroup$
              – Ted Shifrin
              Dec 3 '18 at 23:47












            • $begingroup$
              Yes, I got your answer and your proof is really beautiful. I was looking for a simpler proof (as in Spivak, thank you!) with instruments that I can manage with my little experience. The paper of Griffiths seems really ...wow. Thank you again, next time I will start my question with "Dear Shifrin, here my new doubts about moving frames..."
              $endgroup$
              – Marco All-in Nervo
              Dec 4 '18 at 20:20














            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            There are various proofs in textbooks. My favorite proof is to use E. Cartan's graph trick and the Frobenius Theorem.



            As you stated it, things aren't quite right. You need $M$ connected.



            If $omega^1,dots,omega^n$ are $n$ basis left-invariant forms (so we pick a basis for $mathfrak g^*$ and pull back by $L_g$), consider the differential ideal generated by the $1$-forms
            $$eta^i = f_1^*omega^i-f_2^*omega^i.$$
            Conceptually, we're looking at the map $F=(f_1,f_2)colon Mto Gtimes G$ and pulling back the forms $phi^i=pi_1^*omega^i - pi_2^*omega^i$ by the product map. The differential system $phi^1=dots=phi^n=0$ is completely integrable, since
            $$dphi = pi_1^*[omega,omega] - pi_2^*[omega,omega] = [phi,pi_1^*omega] + [pi_2^*omega,phi] equiv 0 pmodphi.$$
            Indeed, integral manifolds of $phi^i=0$ give left cosets of the diagonal subgroup $Deltasubset Gtimes G$. Since $F^*phi^i = 0$ by hypothesis, and since $M$ is connected the image of $F$ must be contained in one of those integral manifolds, which says that $f_1=gf_2$ for some $gin G$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            There are various proofs in textbooks. My favorite proof is to use E. Cartan's graph trick and the Frobenius Theorem.



            As you stated it, things aren't quite right. You need $M$ connected.



            If $omega^1,dots,omega^n$ are $n$ basis left-invariant forms (so we pick a basis for $mathfrak g^*$ and pull back by $L_g$), consider the differential ideal generated by the $1$-forms
            $$eta^i = f_1^*omega^i-f_2^*omega^i.$$
            Conceptually, we're looking at the map $F=(f_1,f_2)colon Mto Gtimes G$ and pulling back the forms $phi^i=pi_1^*omega^i - pi_2^*omega^i$ by the product map. The differential system $phi^1=dots=phi^n=0$ is completely integrable, since
            $$dphi = pi_1^*[omega,omega] - pi_2^*[omega,omega] = [phi,pi_1^*omega] + [pi_2^*omega,phi] equiv 0 pmodphi.$$
            Indeed, integral manifolds of $phi^i=0$ give left cosets of the diagonal subgroup $Deltasubset Gtimes G$. Since $F^*phi^i = 0$ by hypothesis, and since $M$ is connected the image of $F$ must be contained in one of those integral manifolds, which says that $f_1=gf_2$ for some $gin G$.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Dec 3 '18 at 21:02









            Ted ShifrinTed Shifrin

            63.2k44489




            63.2k44489












            • $begingroup$
              Thanks, as always, for your answer! Is necessary to use Frobenius theorem? I have always seen it used for the existence part. And which textbooks do you have in mind?
              $endgroup$
              – Marco All-in Nervo
              Dec 3 '18 at 23:18










            • $begingroup$
              Well, in this case you can get the integral manifolds by inspection. I was thinking of the more interesting parallel result that you construct $fcolon Mto G$ if you have a system of $1$-forms on $M$ satisfying the Maurer-Cartan equations of $G$. ... This stuff is in Warner and Spivak (volume 1). There's also a beautiful paper of Griffiths on Lie Groups and Moving Frames (Duke, 41, no. 4, pp. 775-814). Also, see Chern/Chen/Lam, pp. 198 ff.
              $endgroup$
              – Ted Shifrin
              Dec 3 '18 at 23:47












            • $begingroup$
              Yes, I got your answer and your proof is really beautiful. I was looking for a simpler proof (as in Spivak, thank you!) with instruments that I can manage with my little experience. The paper of Griffiths seems really ...wow. Thank you again, next time I will start my question with "Dear Shifrin, here my new doubts about moving frames..."
              $endgroup$
              – Marco All-in Nervo
              Dec 4 '18 at 20:20


















            • $begingroup$
              Thanks, as always, for your answer! Is necessary to use Frobenius theorem? I have always seen it used for the existence part. And which textbooks do you have in mind?
              $endgroup$
              – Marco All-in Nervo
              Dec 3 '18 at 23:18










            • $begingroup$
              Well, in this case you can get the integral manifolds by inspection. I was thinking of the more interesting parallel result that you construct $fcolon Mto G$ if you have a system of $1$-forms on $M$ satisfying the Maurer-Cartan equations of $G$. ... This stuff is in Warner and Spivak (volume 1). There's also a beautiful paper of Griffiths on Lie Groups and Moving Frames (Duke, 41, no. 4, pp. 775-814). Also, see Chern/Chen/Lam, pp. 198 ff.
              $endgroup$
              – Ted Shifrin
              Dec 3 '18 at 23:47












            • $begingroup$
              Yes, I got your answer and your proof is really beautiful. I was looking for a simpler proof (as in Spivak, thank you!) with instruments that I can manage with my little experience. The paper of Griffiths seems really ...wow. Thank you again, next time I will start my question with "Dear Shifrin, here my new doubts about moving frames..."
              $endgroup$
              – Marco All-in Nervo
              Dec 4 '18 at 20:20
















            $begingroup$
            Thanks, as always, for your answer! Is necessary to use Frobenius theorem? I have always seen it used for the existence part. And which textbooks do you have in mind?
            $endgroup$
            – Marco All-in Nervo
            Dec 3 '18 at 23:18




            $begingroup$
            Thanks, as always, for your answer! Is necessary to use Frobenius theorem? I have always seen it used for the existence part. And which textbooks do you have in mind?
            $endgroup$
            – Marco All-in Nervo
            Dec 3 '18 at 23:18












            $begingroup$
            Well, in this case you can get the integral manifolds by inspection. I was thinking of the more interesting parallel result that you construct $fcolon Mto G$ if you have a system of $1$-forms on $M$ satisfying the Maurer-Cartan equations of $G$. ... This stuff is in Warner and Spivak (volume 1). There's also a beautiful paper of Griffiths on Lie Groups and Moving Frames (Duke, 41, no. 4, pp. 775-814). Also, see Chern/Chen/Lam, pp. 198 ff.
            $endgroup$
            – Ted Shifrin
            Dec 3 '18 at 23:47






            $begingroup$
            Well, in this case you can get the integral manifolds by inspection. I was thinking of the more interesting parallel result that you construct $fcolon Mto G$ if you have a system of $1$-forms on $M$ satisfying the Maurer-Cartan equations of $G$. ... This stuff is in Warner and Spivak (volume 1). There's also a beautiful paper of Griffiths on Lie Groups and Moving Frames (Duke, 41, no. 4, pp. 775-814). Also, see Chern/Chen/Lam, pp. 198 ff.
            $endgroup$
            – Ted Shifrin
            Dec 3 '18 at 23:47














            $begingroup$
            Yes, I got your answer and your proof is really beautiful. I was looking for a simpler proof (as in Spivak, thank you!) with instruments that I can manage with my little experience. The paper of Griffiths seems really ...wow. Thank you again, next time I will start my question with "Dear Shifrin, here my new doubts about moving frames..."
            $endgroup$
            – Marco All-in Nervo
            Dec 4 '18 at 20:20




            $begingroup$
            Yes, I got your answer and your proof is really beautiful. I was looking for a simpler proof (as in Spivak, thank you!) with instruments that I can manage with my little experience. The paper of Griffiths seems really ...wow. Thank you again, next time I will start my question with "Dear Shifrin, here my new doubts about moving frames..."
            $endgroup$
            – Marco All-in Nervo
            Dec 4 '18 at 20:20











            0












            $begingroup$

            Here Spivak's proof from A Comprehensive Introduction to Differential Geometry, Vol. 1



            enter image description here



            enter image description here






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              0












              $begingroup$

              Here Spivak's proof from A Comprehensive Introduction to Differential Geometry, Vol. 1



              enter image description here



              enter image description here






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                Here Spivak's proof from A Comprehensive Introduction to Differential Geometry, Vol. 1



                enter image description here



                enter image description here






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Here Spivak's proof from A Comprehensive Introduction to Differential Geometry, Vol. 1



                enter image description here



                enter image description here







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 4 '18 at 20:26









                Marco All-in NervoMarco All-in Nervo

                36118




                36118






























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