Proof the Legendre polynomial $P_n$ has $n$ distinct real zeros












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I need a proof to show that the inequality $m < n$ leads to a contradiction and $P_n$ has $n$ distinct real roots, all of which lie in the open interval $(-1, 1)$.










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  • $begingroup$
    What is the meaning of $m$?
    $endgroup$
    – gammatester
    Oct 15 '13 at 14:02


















6












$begingroup$


I need a proof to show that the inequality $m < n$ leads to a contradiction and $P_n$ has $n$ distinct real roots, all of which lie in the open interval $(-1, 1)$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What is the meaning of $m$?
    $endgroup$
    – gammatester
    Oct 15 '13 at 14:02
















6












6








6


6



$begingroup$


I need a proof to show that the inequality $m < n$ leads to a contradiction and $P_n$ has $n$ distinct real roots, all of which lie in the open interval $(-1, 1)$.










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I need a proof to show that the inequality $m < n$ leads to a contradiction and $P_n$ has $n$ distinct real roots, all of which lie in the open interval $(-1, 1)$.







polynomials roots orthogonal-polynomials






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edited Mar 24 '14 at 12:50









Antonio Vargas

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asked Oct 15 '13 at 13:53









richitesenpairichitesenpai

1,1451027




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  • $begingroup$
    What is the meaning of $m$?
    $endgroup$
    – gammatester
    Oct 15 '13 at 14:02




















  • $begingroup$
    What is the meaning of $m$?
    $endgroup$
    – gammatester
    Oct 15 '13 at 14:02


















$begingroup$
What is the meaning of $m$?
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Oct 15 '13 at 14:02






$begingroup$
What is the meaning of $m$?
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Oct 15 '13 at 14:02












3 Answers
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By Rodrigues formula for Legendre polynomials,
$$displaystyle P_n(x) = frac{1}{2^nn!}frac{d^n}{dx^n} (x^2 - 1)^{n}tag{*1}$$
$P_n(x)$ is the $n^{th}$ derivative of a polynomial with roots at $-1$ and $1$.
Repeat applying Gauss-Lucas theorem $n$ times, we know all roots of $P_n(x)$ lie on the closed line segment
$[-1,1]$ in the complex plane. By direct expansion of $(*1)$, one can check that
$P_n(pm 1) ne 0$, so the roots of $P_n(x)$ are all real and belongs to $(-1,1)$.



Since Legendre polynomials are solutions of the Legendre's differential equation:
$$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}P_n(x)right] + n(n+1)P_n(x) = 0$$
which is a $2^{nd}$ order ODE, $P_n(x)$ cannot have any double roots. To see this,
let's say $P_n(x)$ has a double root at $alpha in (-1,1)$.
$P_n(x)$ will then be a solution of following initial value problem:



$$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}y(x)right] + n(n+1)y(x) = 0,quad
begin{cases}y(alpha) = 0,\y'(alpha) = 0end{cases}$$
Apply Picard-Lindelöf theorem to this $2^{nd}$ order ODE, the "uniqueness" part of the theorem tell us $P_n(x)$ vanishes over some neighbor of $alpha$. Since $P_n(x)$ is not identically zero, this is impossible. As a consequence, all roots of $P_n(x)$ are simple.






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  • $begingroup$
    @Sam: If you think the author of the Accepted Answer made a substantive error, you should point out your concern in a Comment rather than making a unilateral change by Editing.
    $endgroup$
    – hardmath
    Apr 22 '18 at 22:31





















12












$begingroup$

From the wording of your question I guess you are looking for something like this:



The Legendre polynomial $P_n$ with $n>0$ has $n$ simple roots in $(-1, 1).$



Proof by contradiction: Assume $P_n$ has $m$ with $0 le m lt n;$
pairwise different zeroes $x_1, x_2, dots x_m$ of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),;$ i.e. $P_n$ changes sign in $x_i$, and consider the polynomial $Z_n(x) = (x-x_1)cdot (x-x_2) dots (x-x_m).;$ Because $P_n$ is orthogonal to $P_0$ the intgeral $int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) dx$ vanishes and $P_n$ has at least one zero of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),,$ i.e. $m>0.;$



The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$ and therefore $I_n = int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx ne 0.;$ On the other hand $Z_n$ has degree $m$ and can be written as a linear combination $Z_n = sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x)$. Thus we get the contradiction by means of the orthogonality of the $P_k$:
begin{align}
0 ne I_n &= int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx\
&= int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x) dx\
&= sum_{k=0}^m c_k int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) P_k(x) dx\
&= 0
end{align}



This shows that $P_n$ has $n$ pairwise different zeroes of odd multiplicity, and because $P_n$ has at most $n$ zeroes, the zeroes $x_1,dots, x_n$ are simple.



Note that this kind of proof can be applied to general orthogonal polynomials over intervals $(a,b)$ with weighting function $w(x) ge 0$.






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  • $begingroup$
    I don't see why "The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$". Suppose for example $P_n(x)$ has a root of multiplicity 3 in $(-1,1)$. Then $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign at that point.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Dec 18 '13 at 14:32










  • $begingroup$
    @Goos: A root of multiplicity 3 is not simple.
    $endgroup$
    – gammatester
    Dec 18 '13 at 15:19






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I am aware of that. Let $a$ be the root of multiplicity $3$. $Z_n(x)$ will not change sign at $a$ (since $a$ is not simple), and $P_n(x)$ will change sign (since $a$ has multiplicity 3). Hence $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Dec 18 '13 at 15:29










  • $begingroup$
    @Goos: I see what you mean and I refined the proof by showing that $P_n$ has $n$ roots of odd multiplicity.
    $endgroup$
    – gammatester
    Dec 19 '13 at 7:55








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Nice approach. But the proof only works if you have shown that there is at least one odd zero? Otherwise $Z_n = 0$ and there is no contradiction.
    $endgroup$
    – andreas
    Mar 24 '14 at 12:07



















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Let Legendre polynomial be $$ f_n(x)=frac{1}{2^n n!}frac{d^{n}}{d x^n}(x^2-1)^n .$$



Note that $ (x^2-1)^n $ has roots $ -1, 1 $ each with multiplicity $ n $, and $$ (x^2-1)Big|frac{d^m}{d x^{m}}(x^2-1)^n, , text{when} m<n .$$



Thus, $ -1, 1 $ are always roots of $ frac{d^{m}}{d x^m}(x^2-1)^n $. And by Rolle's theorem, we know that there are $ n-1 $ distinct zeros $ x_1, x_2, cdots, x_{n-1} $ in the interval $ (-1, 1) $ for the polynomial $ frac{d^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Since $ -1, 1 $ are also zeros of $ frac{d ^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Use Rolle's theorem once again, we get $ n $ distinct zeros in $ (-1, 1) $ and since $ deg (frac{d^{n}}{d x^{n}}(x^2-1)^n)=n $, we have found all the distinct roots of $ f_n(x) $ in $ (-1, 1) $.






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    3 Answers
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    3 Answers
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    $begingroup$

    By Rodrigues formula for Legendre polynomials,
    $$displaystyle P_n(x) = frac{1}{2^nn!}frac{d^n}{dx^n} (x^2 - 1)^{n}tag{*1}$$
    $P_n(x)$ is the $n^{th}$ derivative of a polynomial with roots at $-1$ and $1$.
    Repeat applying Gauss-Lucas theorem $n$ times, we know all roots of $P_n(x)$ lie on the closed line segment
    $[-1,1]$ in the complex plane. By direct expansion of $(*1)$, one can check that
    $P_n(pm 1) ne 0$, so the roots of $P_n(x)$ are all real and belongs to $(-1,1)$.



    Since Legendre polynomials are solutions of the Legendre's differential equation:
    $$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}P_n(x)right] + n(n+1)P_n(x) = 0$$
    which is a $2^{nd}$ order ODE, $P_n(x)$ cannot have any double roots. To see this,
    let's say $P_n(x)$ has a double root at $alpha in (-1,1)$.
    $P_n(x)$ will then be a solution of following initial value problem:



    $$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}y(x)right] + n(n+1)y(x) = 0,quad
    begin{cases}y(alpha) = 0,\y'(alpha) = 0end{cases}$$
    Apply Picard-Lindelöf theorem to this $2^{nd}$ order ODE, the "uniqueness" part of the theorem tell us $P_n(x)$ vanishes over some neighbor of $alpha$. Since $P_n(x)$ is not identically zero, this is impossible. As a consequence, all roots of $P_n(x)$ are simple.






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    • $begingroup$
      @Sam: If you think the author of the Accepted Answer made a substantive error, you should point out your concern in a Comment rather than making a unilateral change by Editing.
      $endgroup$
      – hardmath
      Apr 22 '18 at 22:31


















    5












    $begingroup$

    By Rodrigues formula for Legendre polynomials,
    $$displaystyle P_n(x) = frac{1}{2^nn!}frac{d^n}{dx^n} (x^2 - 1)^{n}tag{*1}$$
    $P_n(x)$ is the $n^{th}$ derivative of a polynomial with roots at $-1$ and $1$.
    Repeat applying Gauss-Lucas theorem $n$ times, we know all roots of $P_n(x)$ lie on the closed line segment
    $[-1,1]$ in the complex plane. By direct expansion of $(*1)$, one can check that
    $P_n(pm 1) ne 0$, so the roots of $P_n(x)$ are all real and belongs to $(-1,1)$.



    Since Legendre polynomials are solutions of the Legendre's differential equation:
    $$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}P_n(x)right] + n(n+1)P_n(x) = 0$$
    which is a $2^{nd}$ order ODE, $P_n(x)$ cannot have any double roots. To see this,
    let's say $P_n(x)$ has a double root at $alpha in (-1,1)$.
    $P_n(x)$ will then be a solution of following initial value problem:



    $$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}y(x)right] + n(n+1)y(x) = 0,quad
    begin{cases}y(alpha) = 0,\y'(alpha) = 0end{cases}$$
    Apply Picard-Lindelöf theorem to this $2^{nd}$ order ODE, the "uniqueness" part of the theorem tell us $P_n(x)$ vanishes over some neighbor of $alpha$. Since $P_n(x)$ is not identically zero, this is impossible. As a consequence, all roots of $P_n(x)$ are simple.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      @Sam: If you think the author of the Accepted Answer made a substantive error, you should point out your concern in a Comment rather than making a unilateral change by Editing.
      $endgroup$
      – hardmath
      Apr 22 '18 at 22:31
















    5












    5








    5





    $begingroup$

    By Rodrigues formula for Legendre polynomials,
    $$displaystyle P_n(x) = frac{1}{2^nn!}frac{d^n}{dx^n} (x^2 - 1)^{n}tag{*1}$$
    $P_n(x)$ is the $n^{th}$ derivative of a polynomial with roots at $-1$ and $1$.
    Repeat applying Gauss-Lucas theorem $n$ times, we know all roots of $P_n(x)$ lie on the closed line segment
    $[-1,1]$ in the complex plane. By direct expansion of $(*1)$, one can check that
    $P_n(pm 1) ne 0$, so the roots of $P_n(x)$ are all real and belongs to $(-1,1)$.



    Since Legendre polynomials are solutions of the Legendre's differential equation:
    $$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}P_n(x)right] + n(n+1)P_n(x) = 0$$
    which is a $2^{nd}$ order ODE, $P_n(x)$ cannot have any double roots. To see this,
    let's say $P_n(x)$ has a double root at $alpha in (-1,1)$.
    $P_n(x)$ will then be a solution of following initial value problem:



    $$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}y(x)right] + n(n+1)y(x) = 0,quad
    begin{cases}y(alpha) = 0,\y'(alpha) = 0end{cases}$$
    Apply Picard-Lindelöf theorem to this $2^{nd}$ order ODE, the "uniqueness" part of the theorem tell us $P_n(x)$ vanishes over some neighbor of $alpha$. Since $P_n(x)$ is not identically zero, this is impossible. As a consequence, all roots of $P_n(x)$ are simple.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    By Rodrigues formula for Legendre polynomials,
    $$displaystyle P_n(x) = frac{1}{2^nn!}frac{d^n}{dx^n} (x^2 - 1)^{n}tag{*1}$$
    $P_n(x)$ is the $n^{th}$ derivative of a polynomial with roots at $-1$ and $1$.
    Repeat applying Gauss-Lucas theorem $n$ times, we know all roots of $P_n(x)$ lie on the closed line segment
    $[-1,1]$ in the complex plane. By direct expansion of $(*1)$, one can check that
    $P_n(pm 1) ne 0$, so the roots of $P_n(x)$ are all real and belongs to $(-1,1)$.



    Since Legendre polynomials are solutions of the Legendre's differential equation:
    $$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}P_n(x)right] + n(n+1)P_n(x) = 0$$
    which is a $2^{nd}$ order ODE, $P_n(x)$ cannot have any double roots. To see this,
    let's say $P_n(x)$ has a double root at $alpha in (-1,1)$.
    $P_n(x)$ will then be a solution of following initial value problem:



    $$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}y(x)right] + n(n+1)y(x) = 0,quad
    begin{cases}y(alpha) = 0,\y'(alpha) = 0end{cases}$$
    Apply Picard-Lindelöf theorem to this $2^{nd}$ order ODE, the "uniqueness" part of the theorem tell us $P_n(x)$ vanishes over some neighbor of $alpha$. Since $P_n(x)$ is not identically zero, this is impossible. As a consequence, all roots of $P_n(x)$ are simple.







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    edited Apr 23 '18 at 3:26

























    answered Oct 15 '13 at 14:38









    achille huiachille hui

    95.8k5132258




    95.8k5132258












    • $begingroup$
      @Sam: If you think the author of the Accepted Answer made a substantive error, you should point out your concern in a Comment rather than making a unilateral change by Editing.
      $endgroup$
      – hardmath
      Apr 22 '18 at 22:31




















    • $begingroup$
      @Sam: If you think the author of the Accepted Answer made a substantive error, you should point out your concern in a Comment rather than making a unilateral change by Editing.
      $endgroup$
      – hardmath
      Apr 22 '18 at 22:31


















    $begingroup$
    @Sam: If you think the author of the Accepted Answer made a substantive error, you should point out your concern in a Comment rather than making a unilateral change by Editing.
    $endgroup$
    – hardmath
    Apr 22 '18 at 22:31






    $begingroup$
    @Sam: If you think the author of the Accepted Answer made a substantive error, you should point out your concern in a Comment rather than making a unilateral change by Editing.
    $endgroup$
    – hardmath
    Apr 22 '18 at 22:31













    12












    $begingroup$

    From the wording of your question I guess you are looking for something like this:



    The Legendre polynomial $P_n$ with $n>0$ has $n$ simple roots in $(-1, 1).$



    Proof by contradiction: Assume $P_n$ has $m$ with $0 le m lt n;$
    pairwise different zeroes $x_1, x_2, dots x_m$ of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),;$ i.e. $P_n$ changes sign in $x_i$, and consider the polynomial $Z_n(x) = (x-x_1)cdot (x-x_2) dots (x-x_m).;$ Because $P_n$ is orthogonal to $P_0$ the intgeral $int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) dx$ vanishes and $P_n$ has at least one zero of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),,$ i.e. $m>0.;$



    The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$ and therefore $I_n = int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx ne 0.;$ On the other hand $Z_n$ has degree $m$ and can be written as a linear combination $Z_n = sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x)$. Thus we get the contradiction by means of the orthogonality of the $P_k$:
    begin{align}
    0 ne I_n &= int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx\
    &= int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x) dx\
    &= sum_{k=0}^m c_k int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) P_k(x) dx\
    &= 0
    end{align}



    This shows that $P_n$ has $n$ pairwise different zeroes of odd multiplicity, and because $P_n$ has at most $n$ zeroes, the zeroes $x_1,dots, x_n$ are simple.



    Note that this kind of proof can be applied to general orthogonal polynomials over intervals $(a,b)$ with weighting function $w(x) ge 0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      I don't see why "The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$". Suppose for example $P_n(x)$ has a root of multiplicity 3 in $(-1,1)$. Then $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign at that point.
      $endgroup$
      – 6005
      Dec 18 '13 at 14:32










    • $begingroup$
      @Goos: A root of multiplicity 3 is not simple.
      $endgroup$
      – gammatester
      Dec 18 '13 at 15:19






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      I am aware of that. Let $a$ be the root of multiplicity $3$. $Z_n(x)$ will not change sign at $a$ (since $a$ is not simple), and $P_n(x)$ will change sign (since $a$ has multiplicity 3). Hence $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign.
      $endgroup$
      – 6005
      Dec 18 '13 at 15:29










    • $begingroup$
      @Goos: I see what you mean and I refined the proof by showing that $P_n$ has $n$ roots of odd multiplicity.
      $endgroup$
      – gammatester
      Dec 19 '13 at 7:55








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Nice approach. But the proof only works if you have shown that there is at least one odd zero? Otherwise $Z_n = 0$ and there is no contradiction.
      $endgroup$
      – andreas
      Mar 24 '14 at 12:07
















    12












    $begingroup$

    From the wording of your question I guess you are looking for something like this:



    The Legendre polynomial $P_n$ with $n>0$ has $n$ simple roots in $(-1, 1).$



    Proof by contradiction: Assume $P_n$ has $m$ with $0 le m lt n;$
    pairwise different zeroes $x_1, x_2, dots x_m$ of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),;$ i.e. $P_n$ changes sign in $x_i$, and consider the polynomial $Z_n(x) = (x-x_1)cdot (x-x_2) dots (x-x_m).;$ Because $P_n$ is orthogonal to $P_0$ the intgeral $int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) dx$ vanishes and $P_n$ has at least one zero of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),,$ i.e. $m>0.;$



    The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$ and therefore $I_n = int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx ne 0.;$ On the other hand $Z_n$ has degree $m$ and can be written as a linear combination $Z_n = sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x)$. Thus we get the contradiction by means of the orthogonality of the $P_k$:
    begin{align}
    0 ne I_n &= int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx\
    &= int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x) dx\
    &= sum_{k=0}^m c_k int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) P_k(x) dx\
    &= 0
    end{align}



    This shows that $P_n$ has $n$ pairwise different zeroes of odd multiplicity, and because $P_n$ has at most $n$ zeroes, the zeroes $x_1,dots, x_n$ are simple.



    Note that this kind of proof can be applied to general orthogonal polynomials over intervals $(a,b)$ with weighting function $w(x) ge 0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      I don't see why "The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$". Suppose for example $P_n(x)$ has a root of multiplicity 3 in $(-1,1)$. Then $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign at that point.
      $endgroup$
      – 6005
      Dec 18 '13 at 14:32










    • $begingroup$
      @Goos: A root of multiplicity 3 is not simple.
      $endgroup$
      – gammatester
      Dec 18 '13 at 15:19






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      I am aware of that. Let $a$ be the root of multiplicity $3$. $Z_n(x)$ will not change sign at $a$ (since $a$ is not simple), and $P_n(x)$ will change sign (since $a$ has multiplicity 3). Hence $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign.
      $endgroup$
      – 6005
      Dec 18 '13 at 15:29










    • $begingroup$
      @Goos: I see what you mean and I refined the proof by showing that $P_n$ has $n$ roots of odd multiplicity.
      $endgroup$
      – gammatester
      Dec 19 '13 at 7:55








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Nice approach. But the proof only works if you have shown that there is at least one odd zero? Otherwise $Z_n = 0$ and there is no contradiction.
      $endgroup$
      – andreas
      Mar 24 '14 at 12:07














    12












    12








    12





    $begingroup$

    From the wording of your question I guess you are looking for something like this:



    The Legendre polynomial $P_n$ with $n>0$ has $n$ simple roots in $(-1, 1).$



    Proof by contradiction: Assume $P_n$ has $m$ with $0 le m lt n;$
    pairwise different zeroes $x_1, x_2, dots x_m$ of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),;$ i.e. $P_n$ changes sign in $x_i$, and consider the polynomial $Z_n(x) = (x-x_1)cdot (x-x_2) dots (x-x_m).;$ Because $P_n$ is orthogonal to $P_0$ the intgeral $int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) dx$ vanishes and $P_n$ has at least one zero of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),,$ i.e. $m>0.;$



    The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$ and therefore $I_n = int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx ne 0.;$ On the other hand $Z_n$ has degree $m$ and can be written as a linear combination $Z_n = sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x)$. Thus we get the contradiction by means of the orthogonality of the $P_k$:
    begin{align}
    0 ne I_n &= int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx\
    &= int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x) dx\
    &= sum_{k=0}^m c_k int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) P_k(x) dx\
    &= 0
    end{align}



    This shows that $P_n$ has $n$ pairwise different zeroes of odd multiplicity, and because $P_n$ has at most $n$ zeroes, the zeroes $x_1,dots, x_n$ are simple.



    Note that this kind of proof can be applied to general orthogonal polynomials over intervals $(a,b)$ with weighting function $w(x) ge 0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    From the wording of your question I guess you are looking for something like this:



    The Legendre polynomial $P_n$ with $n>0$ has $n$ simple roots in $(-1, 1).$



    Proof by contradiction: Assume $P_n$ has $m$ with $0 le m lt n;$
    pairwise different zeroes $x_1, x_2, dots x_m$ of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),;$ i.e. $P_n$ changes sign in $x_i$, and consider the polynomial $Z_n(x) = (x-x_1)cdot (x-x_2) dots (x-x_m).;$ Because $P_n$ is orthogonal to $P_0$ the intgeral $int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) dx$ vanishes and $P_n$ has at least one zero of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),,$ i.e. $m>0.;$



    The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$ and therefore $I_n = int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx ne 0.;$ On the other hand $Z_n$ has degree $m$ and can be written as a linear combination $Z_n = sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x)$. Thus we get the contradiction by means of the orthogonality of the $P_k$:
    begin{align}
    0 ne I_n &= int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx\
    &= int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x) dx\
    &= sum_{k=0}^m c_k int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) P_k(x) dx\
    &= 0
    end{align}



    This shows that $P_n$ has $n$ pairwise different zeroes of odd multiplicity, and because $P_n$ has at most $n$ zeroes, the zeroes $x_1,dots, x_n$ are simple.



    Note that this kind of proof can be applied to general orthogonal polynomials over intervals $(a,b)$ with weighting function $w(x) ge 0$.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Mar 24 '14 at 12:46

























    answered Oct 16 '13 at 6:43









    gammatestergammatester

    16.7k21632




    16.7k21632












    • $begingroup$
      I don't see why "The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$". Suppose for example $P_n(x)$ has a root of multiplicity 3 in $(-1,1)$. Then $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign at that point.
      $endgroup$
      – 6005
      Dec 18 '13 at 14:32










    • $begingroup$
      @Goos: A root of multiplicity 3 is not simple.
      $endgroup$
      – gammatester
      Dec 18 '13 at 15:19






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      I am aware of that. Let $a$ be the root of multiplicity $3$. $Z_n(x)$ will not change sign at $a$ (since $a$ is not simple), and $P_n(x)$ will change sign (since $a$ has multiplicity 3). Hence $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign.
      $endgroup$
      – 6005
      Dec 18 '13 at 15:29










    • $begingroup$
      @Goos: I see what you mean and I refined the proof by showing that $P_n$ has $n$ roots of odd multiplicity.
      $endgroup$
      – gammatester
      Dec 19 '13 at 7:55








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Nice approach. But the proof only works if you have shown that there is at least one odd zero? Otherwise $Z_n = 0$ and there is no contradiction.
      $endgroup$
      – andreas
      Mar 24 '14 at 12:07


















    • $begingroup$
      I don't see why "The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$". Suppose for example $P_n(x)$ has a root of multiplicity 3 in $(-1,1)$. Then $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign at that point.
      $endgroup$
      – 6005
      Dec 18 '13 at 14:32










    • $begingroup$
      @Goos: A root of multiplicity 3 is not simple.
      $endgroup$
      – gammatester
      Dec 18 '13 at 15:19






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      I am aware of that. Let $a$ be the root of multiplicity $3$. $Z_n(x)$ will not change sign at $a$ (since $a$ is not simple), and $P_n(x)$ will change sign (since $a$ has multiplicity 3). Hence $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign.
      $endgroup$
      – 6005
      Dec 18 '13 at 15:29










    • $begingroup$
      @Goos: I see what you mean and I refined the proof by showing that $P_n$ has $n$ roots of odd multiplicity.
      $endgroup$
      – gammatester
      Dec 19 '13 at 7:55








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Nice approach. But the proof only works if you have shown that there is at least one odd zero? Otherwise $Z_n = 0$ and there is no contradiction.
      $endgroup$
      – andreas
      Mar 24 '14 at 12:07
















    $begingroup$
    I don't see why "The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$". Suppose for example $P_n(x)$ has a root of multiplicity 3 in $(-1,1)$. Then $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign at that point.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Dec 18 '13 at 14:32




    $begingroup$
    I don't see why "The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$". Suppose for example $P_n(x)$ has a root of multiplicity 3 in $(-1,1)$. Then $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign at that point.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Dec 18 '13 at 14:32












    $begingroup$
    @Goos: A root of multiplicity 3 is not simple.
    $endgroup$
    – gammatester
    Dec 18 '13 at 15:19




    $begingroup$
    @Goos: A root of multiplicity 3 is not simple.
    $endgroup$
    – gammatester
    Dec 18 '13 at 15:19




    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    I am aware of that. Let $a$ be the root of multiplicity $3$. $Z_n(x)$ will not change sign at $a$ (since $a$ is not simple), and $P_n(x)$ will change sign (since $a$ has multiplicity 3). Hence $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Dec 18 '13 at 15:29




    $begingroup$
    I am aware of that. Let $a$ be the root of multiplicity $3$. $Z_n(x)$ will not change sign at $a$ (since $a$ is not simple), and $P_n(x)$ will change sign (since $a$ has multiplicity 3). Hence $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Dec 18 '13 at 15:29












    $begingroup$
    @Goos: I see what you mean and I refined the proof by showing that $P_n$ has $n$ roots of odd multiplicity.
    $endgroup$
    – gammatester
    Dec 19 '13 at 7:55






    $begingroup$
    @Goos: I see what you mean and I refined the proof by showing that $P_n$ has $n$ roots of odd multiplicity.
    $endgroup$
    – gammatester
    Dec 19 '13 at 7:55






    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    Nice approach. But the proof only works if you have shown that there is at least one odd zero? Otherwise $Z_n = 0$ and there is no contradiction.
    $endgroup$
    – andreas
    Mar 24 '14 at 12:07




    $begingroup$
    Nice approach. But the proof only works if you have shown that there is at least one odd zero? Otherwise $Z_n = 0$ and there is no contradiction.
    $endgroup$
    – andreas
    Mar 24 '14 at 12:07











    0












    $begingroup$

    Let Legendre polynomial be $$ f_n(x)=frac{1}{2^n n!}frac{d^{n}}{d x^n}(x^2-1)^n .$$



    Note that $ (x^2-1)^n $ has roots $ -1, 1 $ each with multiplicity $ n $, and $$ (x^2-1)Big|frac{d^m}{d x^{m}}(x^2-1)^n, , text{when} m<n .$$



    Thus, $ -1, 1 $ are always roots of $ frac{d^{m}}{d x^m}(x^2-1)^n $. And by Rolle's theorem, we know that there are $ n-1 $ distinct zeros $ x_1, x_2, cdots, x_{n-1} $ in the interval $ (-1, 1) $ for the polynomial $ frac{d^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Since $ -1, 1 $ are also zeros of $ frac{d ^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Use Rolle's theorem once again, we get $ n $ distinct zeros in $ (-1, 1) $ and since $ deg (frac{d^{n}}{d x^{n}}(x^2-1)^n)=n $, we have found all the distinct roots of $ f_n(x) $ in $ (-1, 1) $.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      Let Legendre polynomial be $$ f_n(x)=frac{1}{2^n n!}frac{d^{n}}{d x^n}(x^2-1)^n .$$



      Note that $ (x^2-1)^n $ has roots $ -1, 1 $ each with multiplicity $ n $, and $$ (x^2-1)Big|frac{d^m}{d x^{m}}(x^2-1)^n, , text{when} m<n .$$



      Thus, $ -1, 1 $ are always roots of $ frac{d^{m}}{d x^m}(x^2-1)^n $. And by Rolle's theorem, we know that there are $ n-1 $ distinct zeros $ x_1, x_2, cdots, x_{n-1} $ in the interval $ (-1, 1) $ for the polynomial $ frac{d^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Since $ -1, 1 $ are also zeros of $ frac{d ^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Use Rolle's theorem once again, we get $ n $ distinct zeros in $ (-1, 1) $ and since $ deg (frac{d^{n}}{d x^{n}}(x^2-1)^n)=n $, we have found all the distinct roots of $ f_n(x) $ in $ (-1, 1) $.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Let Legendre polynomial be $$ f_n(x)=frac{1}{2^n n!}frac{d^{n}}{d x^n}(x^2-1)^n .$$



        Note that $ (x^2-1)^n $ has roots $ -1, 1 $ each with multiplicity $ n $, and $$ (x^2-1)Big|frac{d^m}{d x^{m}}(x^2-1)^n, , text{when} m<n .$$



        Thus, $ -1, 1 $ are always roots of $ frac{d^{m}}{d x^m}(x^2-1)^n $. And by Rolle's theorem, we know that there are $ n-1 $ distinct zeros $ x_1, x_2, cdots, x_{n-1} $ in the interval $ (-1, 1) $ for the polynomial $ frac{d^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Since $ -1, 1 $ are also zeros of $ frac{d ^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Use Rolle's theorem once again, we get $ n $ distinct zeros in $ (-1, 1) $ and since $ deg (frac{d^{n}}{d x^{n}}(x^2-1)^n)=n $, we have found all the distinct roots of $ f_n(x) $ in $ (-1, 1) $.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Let Legendre polynomial be $$ f_n(x)=frac{1}{2^n n!}frac{d^{n}}{d x^n}(x^2-1)^n .$$



        Note that $ (x^2-1)^n $ has roots $ -1, 1 $ each with multiplicity $ n $, and $$ (x^2-1)Big|frac{d^m}{d x^{m}}(x^2-1)^n, , text{when} m<n .$$



        Thus, $ -1, 1 $ are always roots of $ frac{d^{m}}{d x^m}(x^2-1)^n $. And by Rolle's theorem, we know that there are $ n-1 $ distinct zeros $ x_1, x_2, cdots, x_{n-1} $ in the interval $ (-1, 1) $ for the polynomial $ frac{d^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Since $ -1, 1 $ are also zeros of $ frac{d ^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Use Rolle's theorem once again, we get $ n $ distinct zeros in $ (-1, 1) $ and since $ deg (frac{d^{n}}{d x^{n}}(x^2-1)^n)=n $, we have found all the distinct roots of $ f_n(x) $ in $ (-1, 1) $.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 6 '18 at 14:37









        user549397user549397

        1,4061417




        1,4061417






























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