Proof the Legendre polynomial $P_n$ has $n$ distinct real zeros
$begingroup$
I need a proof to show that the inequality $m < n$ leads to a contradiction and $P_n$ has $n$ distinct real roots, all of which lie in the open interval $(-1, 1)$.
polynomials roots orthogonal-polynomials
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I need a proof to show that the inequality $m < n$ leads to a contradiction and $P_n$ has $n$ distinct real roots, all of which lie in the open interval $(-1, 1)$.
polynomials roots orthogonal-polynomials
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
What is the meaning of $m$?
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Oct 15 '13 at 14:02
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I need a proof to show that the inequality $m < n$ leads to a contradiction and $P_n$ has $n$ distinct real roots, all of which lie in the open interval $(-1, 1)$.
polynomials roots orthogonal-polynomials
$endgroup$
I need a proof to show that the inequality $m < n$ leads to a contradiction and $P_n$ has $n$ distinct real roots, all of which lie in the open interval $(-1, 1)$.
polynomials roots orthogonal-polynomials
polynomials roots orthogonal-polynomials
edited Mar 24 '14 at 12:50
Antonio Vargas
20.7k245111
20.7k245111
asked Oct 15 '13 at 13:53
richitesenpairichitesenpai
1,1451027
1,1451027
$begingroup$
What is the meaning of $m$?
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Oct 15 '13 at 14:02
add a comment |
$begingroup$
What is the meaning of $m$?
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Oct 15 '13 at 14:02
$begingroup$
What is the meaning of $m$?
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Oct 15 '13 at 14:02
$begingroup$
What is the meaning of $m$?
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Oct 15 '13 at 14:02
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
By Rodrigues formula for Legendre polynomials,
$$displaystyle P_n(x) = frac{1}{2^nn!}frac{d^n}{dx^n} (x^2 - 1)^{n}tag{*1}$$
$P_n(x)$ is the $n^{th}$ derivative of a polynomial with roots at $-1$ and $1$.
Repeat applying Gauss-Lucas theorem $n$ times, we know all roots of $P_n(x)$ lie on the closed line segment
$[-1,1]$ in the complex plane. By direct expansion of $(*1)$, one can check that
$P_n(pm 1) ne 0$, so the roots of $P_n(x)$ are all real and belongs to $(-1,1)$.
Since Legendre polynomials are solutions of the Legendre's differential equation:
$$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}P_n(x)right] + n(n+1)P_n(x) = 0$$
which is a $2^{nd}$ order ODE, $P_n(x)$ cannot have any double roots. To see this,
let's say $P_n(x)$ has a double root at $alpha in (-1,1)$.
$P_n(x)$ will then be a solution of following initial value problem:
$$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}y(x)right] + n(n+1)y(x) = 0,quad
begin{cases}y(alpha) = 0,\y'(alpha) = 0end{cases}$$
Apply Picard-Lindelöf theorem to this $2^{nd}$ order ODE, the "uniqueness" part of the theorem tell us $P_n(x)$ vanishes over some neighbor of $alpha$. Since $P_n(x)$ is not identically zero, this is impossible. As a consequence, all roots of $P_n(x)$ are simple.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
@Sam: If you think the author of the Accepted Answer made a substantive error, you should point out your concern in a Comment rather than making a unilateral change by Editing.
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Apr 22 '18 at 22:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
From the wording of your question I guess you are looking for something like this:
The Legendre polynomial $P_n$ with $n>0$ has $n$ simple roots in $(-1, 1).$
Proof by contradiction: Assume $P_n$ has $m$ with $0 le m lt n;$
pairwise different zeroes $x_1, x_2, dots x_m$ of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),;$ i.e. $P_n$ changes sign in $x_i$, and consider the polynomial $Z_n(x) = (x-x_1)cdot (x-x_2) dots (x-x_m).;$ Because $P_n$ is orthogonal to $P_0$ the intgeral $int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) dx$ vanishes and $P_n$ has at least one zero of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),,$ i.e. $m>0.;$
The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$ and therefore $I_n = int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx ne 0.;$ On the other hand $Z_n$ has degree $m$ and can be written as a linear combination $Z_n = sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x)$. Thus we get the contradiction by means of the orthogonality of the $P_k$:
begin{align}
0 ne I_n &= int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx\
&= int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x) dx\
&= sum_{k=0}^m c_k int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) P_k(x) dx\
&= 0
end{align}
This shows that $P_n$ has $n$ pairwise different zeroes of odd multiplicity, and because $P_n$ has at most $n$ zeroes, the zeroes $x_1,dots, x_n$ are simple.
Note that this kind of proof can be applied to general orthogonal polynomials over intervals $(a,b)$ with weighting function $w(x) ge 0$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I don't see why "The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$". Suppose for example $P_n(x)$ has a root of multiplicity 3 in $(-1,1)$. Then $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign at that point.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Dec 18 '13 at 14:32
$begingroup$
@Goos: A root of multiplicity 3 is not simple.
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Dec 18 '13 at 15:19
1
$begingroup$
I am aware of that. Let $a$ be the root of multiplicity $3$. $Z_n(x)$ will not change sign at $a$ (since $a$ is not simple), and $P_n(x)$ will change sign (since $a$ has multiplicity 3). Hence $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Dec 18 '13 at 15:29
$begingroup$
@Goos: I see what you mean and I refined the proof by showing that $P_n$ has $n$ roots of odd multiplicity.
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Dec 19 '13 at 7:55
1
$begingroup$
Nice approach. But the proof only works if you have shown that there is at least one odd zero? Otherwise $Z_n = 0$ and there is no contradiction.
$endgroup$
– andreas
Mar 24 '14 at 12:07
|
show 3 more comments
$begingroup$
Let Legendre polynomial be $$ f_n(x)=frac{1}{2^n n!}frac{d^{n}}{d x^n}(x^2-1)^n .$$
Note that $ (x^2-1)^n $ has roots $ -1, 1 $ each with multiplicity $ n $, and $$ (x^2-1)Big|frac{d^m}{d x^{m}}(x^2-1)^n, , text{when} m<n .$$
Thus, $ -1, 1 $ are always roots of $ frac{d^{m}}{d x^m}(x^2-1)^n $. And by Rolle's theorem, we know that there are $ n-1 $ distinct zeros $ x_1, x_2, cdots, x_{n-1} $ in the interval $ (-1, 1) $ for the polynomial $ frac{d^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Since $ -1, 1 $ are also zeros of $ frac{d ^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Use Rolle's theorem once again, we get $ n $ distinct zeros in $ (-1, 1) $ and since $ deg (frac{d^{n}}{d x^{n}}(x^2-1)^n)=n $, we have found all the distinct roots of $ f_n(x) $ in $ (-1, 1) $.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
Your Answer
StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
});
});
}, "mathjax-editing");
StackExchange.ready(function() {
var channelOptions = {
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
};
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);
StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
createEditor();
});
}
else {
createEditor();
}
});
function createEditor() {
StackExchange.prepareEditor({
heartbeatType: 'answer',
autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: true,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
imageUploader: {
brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
allowUrls: true
},
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
});
}
});
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f527140%2fproof-the-legendre-polynomial-p-n-has-n-distinct-real-zeros%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
By Rodrigues formula for Legendre polynomials,
$$displaystyle P_n(x) = frac{1}{2^nn!}frac{d^n}{dx^n} (x^2 - 1)^{n}tag{*1}$$
$P_n(x)$ is the $n^{th}$ derivative of a polynomial with roots at $-1$ and $1$.
Repeat applying Gauss-Lucas theorem $n$ times, we know all roots of $P_n(x)$ lie on the closed line segment
$[-1,1]$ in the complex plane. By direct expansion of $(*1)$, one can check that
$P_n(pm 1) ne 0$, so the roots of $P_n(x)$ are all real and belongs to $(-1,1)$.
Since Legendre polynomials are solutions of the Legendre's differential equation:
$$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}P_n(x)right] + n(n+1)P_n(x) = 0$$
which is a $2^{nd}$ order ODE, $P_n(x)$ cannot have any double roots. To see this,
let's say $P_n(x)$ has a double root at $alpha in (-1,1)$.
$P_n(x)$ will then be a solution of following initial value problem:
$$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}y(x)right] + n(n+1)y(x) = 0,quad
begin{cases}y(alpha) = 0,\y'(alpha) = 0end{cases}$$
Apply Picard-Lindelöf theorem to this $2^{nd}$ order ODE, the "uniqueness" part of the theorem tell us $P_n(x)$ vanishes over some neighbor of $alpha$. Since $P_n(x)$ is not identically zero, this is impossible. As a consequence, all roots of $P_n(x)$ are simple.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
@Sam: If you think the author of the Accepted Answer made a substantive error, you should point out your concern in a Comment rather than making a unilateral change by Editing.
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Apr 22 '18 at 22:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By Rodrigues formula for Legendre polynomials,
$$displaystyle P_n(x) = frac{1}{2^nn!}frac{d^n}{dx^n} (x^2 - 1)^{n}tag{*1}$$
$P_n(x)$ is the $n^{th}$ derivative of a polynomial with roots at $-1$ and $1$.
Repeat applying Gauss-Lucas theorem $n$ times, we know all roots of $P_n(x)$ lie on the closed line segment
$[-1,1]$ in the complex plane. By direct expansion of $(*1)$, one can check that
$P_n(pm 1) ne 0$, so the roots of $P_n(x)$ are all real and belongs to $(-1,1)$.
Since Legendre polynomials are solutions of the Legendre's differential equation:
$$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}P_n(x)right] + n(n+1)P_n(x) = 0$$
which is a $2^{nd}$ order ODE, $P_n(x)$ cannot have any double roots. To see this,
let's say $P_n(x)$ has a double root at $alpha in (-1,1)$.
$P_n(x)$ will then be a solution of following initial value problem:
$$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}y(x)right] + n(n+1)y(x) = 0,quad
begin{cases}y(alpha) = 0,\y'(alpha) = 0end{cases}$$
Apply Picard-Lindelöf theorem to this $2^{nd}$ order ODE, the "uniqueness" part of the theorem tell us $P_n(x)$ vanishes over some neighbor of $alpha$. Since $P_n(x)$ is not identically zero, this is impossible. As a consequence, all roots of $P_n(x)$ are simple.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
@Sam: If you think the author of the Accepted Answer made a substantive error, you should point out your concern in a Comment rather than making a unilateral change by Editing.
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Apr 22 '18 at 22:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By Rodrigues formula for Legendre polynomials,
$$displaystyle P_n(x) = frac{1}{2^nn!}frac{d^n}{dx^n} (x^2 - 1)^{n}tag{*1}$$
$P_n(x)$ is the $n^{th}$ derivative of a polynomial with roots at $-1$ and $1$.
Repeat applying Gauss-Lucas theorem $n$ times, we know all roots of $P_n(x)$ lie on the closed line segment
$[-1,1]$ in the complex plane. By direct expansion of $(*1)$, one can check that
$P_n(pm 1) ne 0$, so the roots of $P_n(x)$ are all real and belongs to $(-1,1)$.
Since Legendre polynomials are solutions of the Legendre's differential equation:
$$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}P_n(x)right] + n(n+1)P_n(x) = 0$$
which is a $2^{nd}$ order ODE, $P_n(x)$ cannot have any double roots. To see this,
let's say $P_n(x)$ has a double root at $alpha in (-1,1)$.
$P_n(x)$ will then be a solution of following initial value problem:
$$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}y(x)right] + n(n+1)y(x) = 0,quad
begin{cases}y(alpha) = 0,\y'(alpha) = 0end{cases}$$
Apply Picard-Lindelöf theorem to this $2^{nd}$ order ODE, the "uniqueness" part of the theorem tell us $P_n(x)$ vanishes over some neighbor of $alpha$. Since $P_n(x)$ is not identically zero, this is impossible. As a consequence, all roots of $P_n(x)$ are simple.
$endgroup$
By Rodrigues formula for Legendre polynomials,
$$displaystyle P_n(x) = frac{1}{2^nn!}frac{d^n}{dx^n} (x^2 - 1)^{n}tag{*1}$$
$P_n(x)$ is the $n^{th}$ derivative of a polynomial with roots at $-1$ and $1$.
Repeat applying Gauss-Lucas theorem $n$ times, we know all roots of $P_n(x)$ lie on the closed line segment
$[-1,1]$ in the complex plane. By direct expansion of $(*1)$, one can check that
$P_n(pm 1) ne 0$, so the roots of $P_n(x)$ are all real and belongs to $(-1,1)$.
Since Legendre polynomials are solutions of the Legendre's differential equation:
$$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}P_n(x)right] + n(n+1)P_n(x) = 0$$
which is a $2^{nd}$ order ODE, $P_n(x)$ cannot have any double roots. To see this,
let's say $P_n(x)$ has a double root at $alpha in (-1,1)$.
$P_n(x)$ will then be a solution of following initial value problem:
$$frac{d}{dx}left[(1-x^2)frac{d}{dx}y(x)right] + n(n+1)y(x) = 0,quad
begin{cases}y(alpha) = 0,\y'(alpha) = 0end{cases}$$
Apply Picard-Lindelöf theorem to this $2^{nd}$ order ODE, the "uniqueness" part of the theorem tell us $P_n(x)$ vanishes over some neighbor of $alpha$. Since $P_n(x)$ is not identically zero, this is impossible. As a consequence, all roots of $P_n(x)$ are simple.
edited Apr 23 '18 at 3:26
answered Oct 15 '13 at 14:38
achille huiachille hui
95.8k5132258
95.8k5132258
$begingroup$
@Sam: If you think the author of the Accepted Answer made a substantive error, you should point out your concern in a Comment rather than making a unilateral change by Editing.
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Apr 22 '18 at 22:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
@Sam: If you think the author of the Accepted Answer made a substantive error, you should point out your concern in a Comment rather than making a unilateral change by Editing.
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Apr 22 '18 at 22:31
$begingroup$
@Sam: If you think the author of the Accepted Answer made a substantive error, you should point out your concern in a Comment rather than making a unilateral change by Editing.
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Apr 22 '18 at 22:31
$begingroup$
@Sam: If you think the author of the Accepted Answer made a substantive error, you should point out your concern in a Comment rather than making a unilateral change by Editing.
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Apr 22 '18 at 22:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
From the wording of your question I guess you are looking for something like this:
The Legendre polynomial $P_n$ with $n>0$ has $n$ simple roots in $(-1, 1).$
Proof by contradiction: Assume $P_n$ has $m$ with $0 le m lt n;$
pairwise different zeroes $x_1, x_2, dots x_m$ of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),;$ i.e. $P_n$ changes sign in $x_i$, and consider the polynomial $Z_n(x) = (x-x_1)cdot (x-x_2) dots (x-x_m).;$ Because $P_n$ is orthogonal to $P_0$ the intgeral $int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) dx$ vanishes and $P_n$ has at least one zero of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),,$ i.e. $m>0.;$
The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$ and therefore $I_n = int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx ne 0.;$ On the other hand $Z_n$ has degree $m$ and can be written as a linear combination $Z_n = sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x)$. Thus we get the contradiction by means of the orthogonality of the $P_k$:
begin{align}
0 ne I_n &= int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx\
&= int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x) dx\
&= sum_{k=0}^m c_k int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) P_k(x) dx\
&= 0
end{align}
This shows that $P_n$ has $n$ pairwise different zeroes of odd multiplicity, and because $P_n$ has at most $n$ zeroes, the zeroes $x_1,dots, x_n$ are simple.
Note that this kind of proof can be applied to general orthogonal polynomials over intervals $(a,b)$ with weighting function $w(x) ge 0$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I don't see why "The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$". Suppose for example $P_n(x)$ has a root of multiplicity 3 in $(-1,1)$. Then $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign at that point.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Dec 18 '13 at 14:32
$begingroup$
@Goos: A root of multiplicity 3 is not simple.
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Dec 18 '13 at 15:19
1
$begingroup$
I am aware of that. Let $a$ be the root of multiplicity $3$. $Z_n(x)$ will not change sign at $a$ (since $a$ is not simple), and $P_n(x)$ will change sign (since $a$ has multiplicity 3). Hence $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Dec 18 '13 at 15:29
$begingroup$
@Goos: I see what you mean and I refined the proof by showing that $P_n$ has $n$ roots of odd multiplicity.
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Dec 19 '13 at 7:55
1
$begingroup$
Nice approach. But the proof only works if you have shown that there is at least one odd zero? Otherwise $Z_n = 0$ and there is no contradiction.
$endgroup$
– andreas
Mar 24 '14 at 12:07
|
show 3 more comments
$begingroup$
From the wording of your question I guess you are looking for something like this:
The Legendre polynomial $P_n$ with $n>0$ has $n$ simple roots in $(-1, 1).$
Proof by contradiction: Assume $P_n$ has $m$ with $0 le m lt n;$
pairwise different zeroes $x_1, x_2, dots x_m$ of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),;$ i.e. $P_n$ changes sign in $x_i$, and consider the polynomial $Z_n(x) = (x-x_1)cdot (x-x_2) dots (x-x_m).;$ Because $P_n$ is orthogonal to $P_0$ the intgeral $int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) dx$ vanishes and $P_n$ has at least one zero of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),,$ i.e. $m>0.;$
The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$ and therefore $I_n = int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx ne 0.;$ On the other hand $Z_n$ has degree $m$ and can be written as a linear combination $Z_n = sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x)$. Thus we get the contradiction by means of the orthogonality of the $P_k$:
begin{align}
0 ne I_n &= int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx\
&= int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x) dx\
&= sum_{k=0}^m c_k int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) P_k(x) dx\
&= 0
end{align}
This shows that $P_n$ has $n$ pairwise different zeroes of odd multiplicity, and because $P_n$ has at most $n$ zeroes, the zeroes $x_1,dots, x_n$ are simple.
Note that this kind of proof can be applied to general orthogonal polynomials over intervals $(a,b)$ with weighting function $w(x) ge 0$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I don't see why "The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$". Suppose for example $P_n(x)$ has a root of multiplicity 3 in $(-1,1)$. Then $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign at that point.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Dec 18 '13 at 14:32
$begingroup$
@Goos: A root of multiplicity 3 is not simple.
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Dec 18 '13 at 15:19
1
$begingroup$
I am aware of that. Let $a$ be the root of multiplicity $3$. $Z_n(x)$ will not change sign at $a$ (since $a$ is not simple), and $P_n(x)$ will change sign (since $a$ has multiplicity 3). Hence $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Dec 18 '13 at 15:29
$begingroup$
@Goos: I see what you mean and I refined the proof by showing that $P_n$ has $n$ roots of odd multiplicity.
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Dec 19 '13 at 7:55
1
$begingroup$
Nice approach. But the proof only works if you have shown that there is at least one odd zero? Otherwise $Z_n = 0$ and there is no contradiction.
$endgroup$
– andreas
Mar 24 '14 at 12:07
|
show 3 more comments
$begingroup$
From the wording of your question I guess you are looking for something like this:
The Legendre polynomial $P_n$ with $n>0$ has $n$ simple roots in $(-1, 1).$
Proof by contradiction: Assume $P_n$ has $m$ with $0 le m lt n;$
pairwise different zeroes $x_1, x_2, dots x_m$ of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),;$ i.e. $P_n$ changes sign in $x_i$, and consider the polynomial $Z_n(x) = (x-x_1)cdot (x-x_2) dots (x-x_m).;$ Because $P_n$ is orthogonal to $P_0$ the intgeral $int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) dx$ vanishes and $P_n$ has at least one zero of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),,$ i.e. $m>0.;$
The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$ and therefore $I_n = int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx ne 0.;$ On the other hand $Z_n$ has degree $m$ and can be written as a linear combination $Z_n = sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x)$. Thus we get the contradiction by means of the orthogonality of the $P_k$:
begin{align}
0 ne I_n &= int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx\
&= int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x) dx\
&= sum_{k=0}^m c_k int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) P_k(x) dx\
&= 0
end{align}
This shows that $P_n$ has $n$ pairwise different zeroes of odd multiplicity, and because $P_n$ has at most $n$ zeroes, the zeroes $x_1,dots, x_n$ are simple.
Note that this kind of proof can be applied to general orthogonal polynomials over intervals $(a,b)$ with weighting function $w(x) ge 0$.
$endgroup$
From the wording of your question I guess you are looking for something like this:
The Legendre polynomial $P_n$ with $n>0$ has $n$ simple roots in $(-1, 1).$
Proof by contradiction: Assume $P_n$ has $m$ with $0 le m lt n;$
pairwise different zeroes $x_1, x_2, dots x_m$ of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),;$ i.e. $P_n$ changes sign in $x_i$, and consider the polynomial $Z_n(x) = (x-x_1)cdot (x-x_2) dots (x-x_m).;$ Because $P_n$ is orthogonal to $P_0$ the intgeral $int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) dx$ vanishes and $P_n$ has at least one zero of odd multiplicity in $(-1,1),,$ i.e. $m>0.;$
The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$ and therefore $I_n = int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx ne 0.;$ On the other hand $Z_n$ has degree $m$ and can be written as a linear combination $Z_n = sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x)$. Thus we get the contradiction by means of the orthogonality of the $P_k$:
begin{align}
0 ne I_n &= int_{-1}^{1} Z_n(x) P_n(x) dx\
&= int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) sum_{k=0}^m c_k P_k(x) dx\
&= sum_{k=0}^m c_k int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) P_k(x) dx\
&= 0
end{align}
This shows that $P_n$ has $n$ pairwise different zeroes of odd multiplicity, and because $P_n$ has at most $n$ zeroes, the zeroes $x_1,dots, x_n$ are simple.
Note that this kind of proof can be applied to general orthogonal polynomials over intervals $(a,b)$ with weighting function $w(x) ge 0$.
edited Mar 24 '14 at 12:46
answered Oct 16 '13 at 6:43
gammatestergammatester
16.7k21632
16.7k21632
$begingroup$
I don't see why "The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$". Suppose for example $P_n(x)$ has a root of multiplicity 3 in $(-1,1)$. Then $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign at that point.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Dec 18 '13 at 14:32
$begingroup$
@Goos: A root of multiplicity 3 is not simple.
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Dec 18 '13 at 15:19
1
$begingroup$
I am aware of that. Let $a$ be the root of multiplicity $3$. $Z_n(x)$ will not change sign at $a$ (since $a$ is not simple), and $P_n(x)$ will change sign (since $a$ has multiplicity 3). Hence $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Dec 18 '13 at 15:29
$begingroup$
@Goos: I see what you mean and I refined the proof by showing that $P_n$ has $n$ roots of odd multiplicity.
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Dec 19 '13 at 7:55
1
$begingroup$
Nice approach. But the proof only works if you have shown that there is at least one odd zero? Otherwise $Z_n = 0$ and there is no contradiction.
$endgroup$
– andreas
Mar 24 '14 at 12:07
|
show 3 more comments
$begingroup$
I don't see why "The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$". Suppose for example $P_n(x)$ has a root of multiplicity 3 in $(-1,1)$. Then $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign at that point.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Dec 18 '13 at 14:32
$begingroup$
@Goos: A root of multiplicity 3 is not simple.
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Dec 18 '13 at 15:19
1
$begingroup$
I am aware of that. Let $a$ be the root of multiplicity $3$. $Z_n(x)$ will not change sign at $a$ (since $a$ is not simple), and $P_n(x)$ will change sign (since $a$ has multiplicity 3). Hence $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Dec 18 '13 at 15:29
$begingroup$
@Goos: I see what you mean and I refined the proof by showing that $P_n$ has $n$ roots of odd multiplicity.
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Dec 19 '13 at 7:55
1
$begingroup$
Nice approach. But the proof only works if you have shown that there is at least one odd zero? Otherwise $Z_n = 0$ and there is no contradiction.
$endgroup$
– andreas
Mar 24 '14 at 12:07
$begingroup$
I don't see why "The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$". Suppose for example $P_n(x)$ has a root of multiplicity 3 in $(-1,1)$. Then $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign at that point.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Dec 18 '13 at 14:32
$begingroup$
I don't see why "The polynomial $Z_n(x) P_n(x)$ does not change sign in $(-1,1)$". Suppose for example $P_n(x)$ has a root of multiplicity 3 in $(-1,1)$. Then $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign at that point.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Dec 18 '13 at 14:32
$begingroup$
@Goos: A root of multiplicity 3 is not simple.
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Dec 18 '13 at 15:19
$begingroup$
@Goos: A root of multiplicity 3 is not simple.
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Dec 18 '13 at 15:19
1
1
$begingroup$
I am aware of that. Let $a$ be the root of multiplicity $3$. $Z_n(x)$ will not change sign at $a$ (since $a$ is not simple), and $P_n(x)$ will change sign (since $a$ has multiplicity 3). Hence $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Dec 18 '13 at 15:29
$begingroup$
I am aware of that. Let $a$ be the root of multiplicity $3$. $Z_n(x)$ will not change sign at $a$ (since $a$ is not simple), and $P_n(x)$ will change sign (since $a$ has multiplicity 3). Hence $Z_n(x)P_n(x)$ will change sign.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Dec 18 '13 at 15:29
$begingroup$
@Goos: I see what you mean and I refined the proof by showing that $P_n$ has $n$ roots of odd multiplicity.
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Dec 19 '13 at 7:55
$begingroup$
@Goos: I see what you mean and I refined the proof by showing that $P_n$ has $n$ roots of odd multiplicity.
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Dec 19 '13 at 7:55
1
1
$begingroup$
Nice approach. But the proof only works if you have shown that there is at least one odd zero? Otherwise $Z_n = 0$ and there is no contradiction.
$endgroup$
– andreas
Mar 24 '14 at 12:07
$begingroup$
Nice approach. But the proof only works if you have shown that there is at least one odd zero? Otherwise $Z_n = 0$ and there is no contradiction.
$endgroup$
– andreas
Mar 24 '14 at 12:07
|
show 3 more comments
$begingroup$
Let Legendre polynomial be $$ f_n(x)=frac{1}{2^n n!}frac{d^{n}}{d x^n}(x^2-1)^n .$$
Note that $ (x^2-1)^n $ has roots $ -1, 1 $ each with multiplicity $ n $, and $$ (x^2-1)Big|frac{d^m}{d x^{m}}(x^2-1)^n, , text{when} m<n .$$
Thus, $ -1, 1 $ are always roots of $ frac{d^{m}}{d x^m}(x^2-1)^n $. And by Rolle's theorem, we know that there are $ n-1 $ distinct zeros $ x_1, x_2, cdots, x_{n-1} $ in the interval $ (-1, 1) $ for the polynomial $ frac{d^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Since $ -1, 1 $ are also zeros of $ frac{d ^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Use Rolle's theorem once again, we get $ n $ distinct zeros in $ (-1, 1) $ and since $ deg (frac{d^{n}}{d x^{n}}(x^2-1)^n)=n $, we have found all the distinct roots of $ f_n(x) $ in $ (-1, 1) $.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let Legendre polynomial be $$ f_n(x)=frac{1}{2^n n!}frac{d^{n}}{d x^n}(x^2-1)^n .$$
Note that $ (x^2-1)^n $ has roots $ -1, 1 $ each with multiplicity $ n $, and $$ (x^2-1)Big|frac{d^m}{d x^{m}}(x^2-1)^n, , text{when} m<n .$$
Thus, $ -1, 1 $ are always roots of $ frac{d^{m}}{d x^m}(x^2-1)^n $. And by Rolle's theorem, we know that there are $ n-1 $ distinct zeros $ x_1, x_2, cdots, x_{n-1} $ in the interval $ (-1, 1) $ for the polynomial $ frac{d^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Since $ -1, 1 $ are also zeros of $ frac{d ^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Use Rolle's theorem once again, we get $ n $ distinct zeros in $ (-1, 1) $ and since $ deg (frac{d^{n}}{d x^{n}}(x^2-1)^n)=n $, we have found all the distinct roots of $ f_n(x) $ in $ (-1, 1) $.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let Legendre polynomial be $$ f_n(x)=frac{1}{2^n n!}frac{d^{n}}{d x^n}(x^2-1)^n .$$
Note that $ (x^2-1)^n $ has roots $ -1, 1 $ each with multiplicity $ n $, and $$ (x^2-1)Big|frac{d^m}{d x^{m}}(x^2-1)^n, , text{when} m<n .$$
Thus, $ -1, 1 $ are always roots of $ frac{d^{m}}{d x^m}(x^2-1)^n $. And by Rolle's theorem, we know that there are $ n-1 $ distinct zeros $ x_1, x_2, cdots, x_{n-1} $ in the interval $ (-1, 1) $ for the polynomial $ frac{d^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Since $ -1, 1 $ are also zeros of $ frac{d ^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Use Rolle's theorem once again, we get $ n $ distinct zeros in $ (-1, 1) $ and since $ deg (frac{d^{n}}{d x^{n}}(x^2-1)^n)=n $, we have found all the distinct roots of $ f_n(x) $ in $ (-1, 1) $.
$endgroup$
Let Legendre polynomial be $$ f_n(x)=frac{1}{2^n n!}frac{d^{n}}{d x^n}(x^2-1)^n .$$
Note that $ (x^2-1)^n $ has roots $ -1, 1 $ each with multiplicity $ n $, and $$ (x^2-1)Big|frac{d^m}{d x^{m}}(x^2-1)^n, , text{when} m<n .$$
Thus, $ -1, 1 $ are always roots of $ frac{d^{m}}{d x^m}(x^2-1)^n $. And by Rolle's theorem, we know that there are $ n-1 $ distinct zeros $ x_1, x_2, cdots, x_{n-1} $ in the interval $ (-1, 1) $ for the polynomial $ frac{d^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Since $ -1, 1 $ are also zeros of $ frac{d ^{n-1}}{d x^{n-1}}(x^2-1)^n $. Use Rolle's theorem once again, we get $ n $ distinct zeros in $ (-1, 1) $ and since $ deg (frac{d^{n}}{d x^{n}}(x^2-1)^n)=n $, we have found all the distinct roots of $ f_n(x) $ in $ (-1, 1) $.
answered Dec 6 '18 at 14:37
user549397user549397
1,4061417
1,4061417
add a comment |
add a comment |
Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!
- Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!
But avoid …
- Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.
- Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.
Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.
To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f527140%2fproof-the-legendre-polynomial-p-n-has-n-distinct-real-zeros%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
$begingroup$
What is the meaning of $m$?
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Oct 15 '13 at 14:02