Suppose $(a_n) rightarrow a.$ If $a_n geq 0$ for all $n$ then $a geq 0$. Prove this result.
$begingroup$
I have decided to assume that $a<0$ and let $epsilon=-a>0$. Then I want to come to a contradiction.
$|a_n-a|<-a$.
Since we have $a_n>a$ from our assumption,
$a_n-a<-a$
so $a_n<0$ which is a contradiction.
sequences-and-series proof-writing
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have decided to assume that $a<0$ and let $epsilon=-a>0$. Then I want to come to a contradiction.
$|a_n-a|<-a$.
Since we have $a_n>a$ from our assumption,
$a_n-a<-a$
so $a_n<0$ which is a contradiction.
sequences-and-series proof-writing
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
What if $a_n<a$?
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Oct 21 '18 at 16:11
$begingroup$
Then we have $a_n>2a$
$endgroup$
– m.bazza
Oct 21 '18 at 16:13
$begingroup$
But this isn't a contradiction as this gives us $a_ngeq 0$
$endgroup$
– m.bazza
Oct 21 '18 at 16:14
$begingroup$
But we know that $a_n-ageq 0$ from our assumption, why bother with cases
$endgroup$
– Jakobian
Oct 21 '18 at 16:15
$begingroup$
Oh of course haha didn't realise
$endgroup$
– m.bazza
Oct 21 '18 at 16:16
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have decided to assume that $a<0$ and let $epsilon=-a>0$. Then I want to come to a contradiction.
$|a_n-a|<-a$.
Since we have $a_n>a$ from our assumption,
$a_n-a<-a$
so $a_n<0$ which is a contradiction.
sequences-and-series proof-writing
$endgroup$
I have decided to assume that $a<0$ and let $epsilon=-a>0$. Then I want to come to a contradiction.
$|a_n-a|<-a$.
Since we have $a_n>a$ from our assumption,
$a_n-a<-a$
so $a_n<0$ which is a contradiction.
sequences-and-series proof-writing
sequences-and-series proof-writing
edited Oct 21 '18 at 16:17
m.bazza
asked Oct 21 '18 at 16:07
m.bazzam.bazza
827
827
$begingroup$
What if $a_n<a$?
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Oct 21 '18 at 16:11
$begingroup$
Then we have $a_n>2a$
$endgroup$
– m.bazza
Oct 21 '18 at 16:13
$begingroup$
But this isn't a contradiction as this gives us $a_ngeq 0$
$endgroup$
– m.bazza
Oct 21 '18 at 16:14
$begingroup$
But we know that $a_n-ageq 0$ from our assumption, why bother with cases
$endgroup$
– Jakobian
Oct 21 '18 at 16:15
$begingroup$
Oh of course haha didn't realise
$endgroup$
– m.bazza
Oct 21 '18 at 16:16
add a comment |
$begingroup$
What if $a_n<a$?
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Oct 21 '18 at 16:11
$begingroup$
Then we have $a_n>2a$
$endgroup$
– m.bazza
Oct 21 '18 at 16:13
$begingroup$
But this isn't a contradiction as this gives us $a_ngeq 0$
$endgroup$
– m.bazza
Oct 21 '18 at 16:14
$begingroup$
But we know that $a_n-ageq 0$ from our assumption, why bother with cases
$endgroup$
– Jakobian
Oct 21 '18 at 16:15
$begingroup$
Oh of course haha didn't realise
$endgroup$
– m.bazza
Oct 21 '18 at 16:16
$begingroup$
What if $a_n<a$?
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Oct 21 '18 at 16:11
$begingroup$
What if $a_n<a$?
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Oct 21 '18 at 16:11
$begingroup$
Then we have $a_n>2a$
$endgroup$
– m.bazza
Oct 21 '18 at 16:13
$begingroup$
Then we have $a_n>2a$
$endgroup$
– m.bazza
Oct 21 '18 at 16:13
$begingroup$
But this isn't a contradiction as this gives us $a_ngeq 0$
$endgroup$
– m.bazza
Oct 21 '18 at 16:14
$begingroup$
But this isn't a contradiction as this gives us $a_ngeq 0$
$endgroup$
– m.bazza
Oct 21 '18 at 16:14
$begingroup$
But we know that $a_n-ageq 0$ from our assumption, why bother with cases
$endgroup$
– Jakobian
Oct 21 '18 at 16:15
$begingroup$
But we know that $a_n-ageq 0$ from our assumption, why bother with cases
$endgroup$
– Jakobian
Oct 21 '18 at 16:15
$begingroup$
Oh of course haha didn't realise
$endgroup$
– m.bazza
Oct 21 '18 at 16:16
$begingroup$
Oh of course haha didn't realise
$endgroup$
– m.bazza
Oct 21 '18 at 16:16
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
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oldest
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$begingroup$
If $a<0$ then since $a_nto a$, there is an integer $N$ such that whenever $n>N$, we must have $a_nin (a,0)$, i.e. $a_n<0.$ And this is a contradiction.
In fact, the same reasoning shows that if $a_n>0$ for all $n$, then $any$ limit point $a$ of $(a_n)$ must satisfy $age 0.$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This proof has a flaw since there is no restriction that $a_n>a$ (consider $a_n=(-{1over 2})^n+1$ and $a=1$) but it can be simply fixed. Just conclude from $|a_n-a|<-a$ that $$a<a_n-a<-a$$ or equivalently $$2a<a_n<0$$ which is now a contradiction. Except that, your proof is fine.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
If $a<0$ then since $a_nto a$, there is an integer $N$ such that whenever $n>N$, we must have $a_nin (a,0)$, i.e. $a_n<0.$ And this is a contradiction.
In fact, the same reasoning shows that if $a_n>0$ for all $n$, then $any$ limit point $a$ of $(a_n)$ must satisfy $age 0.$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $a<0$ then since $a_nto a$, there is an integer $N$ such that whenever $n>N$, we must have $a_nin (a,0)$, i.e. $a_n<0.$ And this is a contradiction.
In fact, the same reasoning shows that if $a_n>0$ for all $n$, then $any$ limit point $a$ of $(a_n)$ must satisfy $age 0.$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $a<0$ then since $a_nto a$, there is an integer $N$ such that whenever $n>N$, we must have $a_nin (a,0)$, i.e. $a_n<0.$ And this is a contradiction.
In fact, the same reasoning shows that if $a_n>0$ for all $n$, then $any$ limit point $a$ of $(a_n)$ must satisfy $age 0.$
$endgroup$
If $a<0$ then since $a_nto a$, there is an integer $N$ such that whenever $n>N$, we must have $a_nin (a,0)$, i.e. $a_n<0.$ And this is a contradiction.
In fact, the same reasoning shows that if $a_n>0$ for all $n$, then $any$ limit point $a$ of $(a_n)$ must satisfy $age 0.$
answered Oct 21 '18 at 16:27
MatematletaMatematleta
10.2k2918
10.2k2918
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This proof has a flaw since there is no restriction that $a_n>a$ (consider $a_n=(-{1over 2})^n+1$ and $a=1$) but it can be simply fixed. Just conclude from $|a_n-a|<-a$ that $$a<a_n-a<-a$$ or equivalently $$2a<a_n<0$$ which is now a contradiction. Except that, your proof is fine.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This proof has a flaw since there is no restriction that $a_n>a$ (consider $a_n=(-{1over 2})^n+1$ and $a=1$) but it can be simply fixed. Just conclude from $|a_n-a|<-a$ that $$a<a_n-a<-a$$ or equivalently $$2a<a_n<0$$ which is now a contradiction. Except that, your proof is fine.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This proof has a flaw since there is no restriction that $a_n>a$ (consider $a_n=(-{1over 2})^n+1$ and $a=1$) but it can be simply fixed. Just conclude from $|a_n-a|<-a$ that $$a<a_n-a<-a$$ or equivalently $$2a<a_n<0$$ which is now a contradiction. Except that, your proof is fine.
$endgroup$
This proof has a flaw since there is no restriction that $a_n>a$ (consider $a_n=(-{1over 2})^n+1$ and $a=1$) but it can be simply fixed. Just conclude from $|a_n-a|<-a$ that $$a<a_n-a<-a$$ or equivalently $$2a<a_n<0$$ which is now a contradiction. Except that, your proof is fine.
answered Nov 30 '18 at 18:21
Mostafa AyazMostafa Ayaz
14.8k3938
14.8k3938
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
What if $a_n<a$?
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Oct 21 '18 at 16:11
$begingroup$
Then we have $a_n>2a$
$endgroup$
– m.bazza
Oct 21 '18 at 16:13
$begingroup$
But this isn't a contradiction as this gives us $a_ngeq 0$
$endgroup$
– m.bazza
Oct 21 '18 at 16:14
$begingroup$
But we know that $a_n-ageq 0$ from our assumption, why bother with cases
$endgroup$
– Jakobian
Oct 21 '18 at 16:15
$begingroup$
Oh of course haha didn't realise
$endgroup$
– m.bazza
Oct 21 '18 at 16:16