Proving the geometric series $sum_{i=0}^n r^i = frac{1-r^{n+1}}{1-r}$ by induction for $ngeq 1$
$begingroup$
Let $P(n)$ be the statement
$$
P(n) : sumlimits^{n}_{i=0}r^i = dfrac{1-r^{1+n}}{1-r}text{ for all }n in mathbb{N}text{.}
$$
I am stuck at the base case:
$$P(1):1 + r = dfrac{1-r^2}{1-r}text{.}$$
I am stuck as to how I can show $P(1)$ is true.
proof-writing induction
$endgroup$
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Let $P(n)$ be the statement
$$
P(n) : sumlimits^{n}_{i=0}r^i = dfrac{1-r^{1+n}}{1-r}text{ for all }n in mathbb{N}text{.}
$$
I am stuck at the base case:
$$P(1):1 + r = dfrac{1-r^2}{1-r}text{.}$$
I am stuck as to how I can show $P(1)$ is true.
proof-writing induction
$endgroup$
3
$begingroup$
Hint: $a^2-b^2=(a+b)(a-b)$
$endgroup$
– user105475
Aug 14 '14 at 1:42
$begingroup$
Base Case is P(0) not P(1)
$endgroup$
– user137481
Aug 14 '14 at 1:42
$begingroup$
@user137481 Natural Numbers start at 1 ... so should the base case not be P(1)
$endgroup$
– Guest
Aug 14 '14 at 1:43
1
$begingroup$
That depends on your teacher. In some courses, Natural Numbers start at 0
$endgroup$
– user137481
Aug 14 '14 at 1:47
1
$begingroup$
Note that the problem really should have specified that $rne 1$. As to the base case, it depends on the exact statement of the problem. If we are asked to prove the result is true for every natural number $n$, then the base case is $n=1$. If we are asked to prove the result holds for every non-negative integer, then the base case is $n=0$.
$endgroup$
– André Nicolas
Aug 14 '14 at 1:48
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Let $P(n)$ be the statement
$$
P(n) : sumlimits^{n}_{i=0}r^i = dfrac{1-r^{1+n}}{1-r}text{ for all }n in mathbb{N}text{.}
$$
I am stuck at the base case:
$$P(1):1 + r = dfrac{1-r^2}{1-r}text{.}$$
I am stuck as to how I can show $P(1)$ is true.
proof-writing induction
$endgroup$
Let $P(n)$ be the statement
$$
P(n) : sumlimits^{n}_{i=0}r^i = dfrac{1-r^{1+n}}{1-r}text{ for all }n in mathbb{N}text{.}
$$
I am stuck at the base case:
$$P(1):1 + r = dfrac{1-r^2}{1-r}text{.}$$
I am stuck as to how I can show $P(1)$ is true.
proof-writing induction
proof-writing induction
edited Mar 23 '15 at 16:36
Daniel W. Farlow
17.6k114488
17.6k114488
asked Aug 14 '14 at 1:40
GuestGuest
17313
17313
3
$begingroup$
Hint: $a^2-b^2=(a+b)(a-b)$
$endgroup$
– user105475
Aug 14 '14 at 1:42
$begingroup$
Base Case is P(0) not P(1)
$endgroup$
– user137481
Aug 14 '14 at 1:42
$begingroup$
@user137481 Natural Numbers start at 1 ... so should the base case not be P(1)
$endgroup$
– Guest
Aug 14 '14 at 1:43
1
$begingroup$
That depends on your teacher. In some courses, Natural Numbers start at 0
$endgroup$
– user137481
Aug 14 '14 at 1:47
1
$begingroup$
Note that the problem really should have specified that $rne 1$. As to the base case, it depends on the exact statement of the problem. If we are asked to prove the result is true for every natural number $n$, then the base case is $n=1$. If we are asked to prove the result holds for every non-negative integer, then the base case is $n=0$.
$endgroup$
– André Nicolas
Aug 14 '14 at 1:48
|
show 1 more comment
3
$begingroup$
Hint: $a^2-b^2=(a+b)(a-b)$
$endgroup$
– user105475
Aug 14 '14 at 1:42
$begingroup$
Base Case is P(0) not P(1)
$endgroup$
– user137481
Aug 14 '14 at 1:42
$begingroup$
@user137481 Natural Numbers start at 1 ... so should the base case not be P(1)
$endgroup$
– Guest
Aug 14 '14 at 1:43
1
$begingroup$
That depends on your teacher. In some courses, Natural Numbers start at 0
$endgroup$
– user137481
Aug 14 '14 at 1:47
1
$begingroup$
Note that the problem really should have specified that $rne 1$. As to the base case, it depends on the exact statement of the problem. If we are asked to prove the result is true for every natural number $n$, then the base case is $n=1$. If we are asked to prove the result holds for every non-negative integer, then the base case is $n=0$.
$endgroup$
– André Nicolas
Aug 14 '14 at 1:48
3
3
$begingroup$
Hint: $a^2-b^2=(a+b)(a-b)$
$endgroup$
– user105475
Aug 14 '14 at 1:42
$begingroup$
Hint: $a^2-b^2=(a+b)(a-b)$
$endgroup$
– user105475
Aug 14 '14 at 1:42
$begingroup$
Base Case is P(0) not P(1)
$endgroup$
– user137481
Aug 14 '14 at 1:42
$begingroup$
Base Case is P(0) not P(1)
$endgroup$
– user137481
Aug 14 '14 at 1:42
$begingroup$
@user137481 Natural Numbers start at 1 ... so should the base case not be P(1)
$endgroup$
– Guest
Aug 14 '14 at 1:43
$begingroup$
@user137481 Natural Numbers start at 1 ... so should the base case not be P(1)
$endgroup$
– Guest
Aug 14 '14 at 1:43
1
1
$begingroup$
That depends on your teacher. In some courses, Natural Numbers start at 0
$endgroup$
– user137481
Aug 14 '14 at 1:47
$begingroup$
That depends on your teacher. In some courses, Natural Numbers start at 0
$endgroup$
– user137481
Aug 14 '14 at 1:47
1
1
$begingroup$
Note that the problem really should have specified that $rne 1$. As to the base case, it depends on the exact statement of the problem. If we are asked to prove the result is true for every natural number $n$, then the base case is $n=1$. If we are asked to prove the result holds for every non-negative integer, then the base case is $n=0$.
$endgroup$
– André Nicolas
Aug 14 '14 at 1:48
$begingroup$
Note that the problem really should have specified that $rne 1$. As to the base case, it depends on the exact statement of the problem. If we are asked to prove the result is true for every natural number $n$, then the base case is $n=1$. If we are asked to prove the result holds for every non-negative integer, then the base case is $n=0$.
$endgroup$
– André Nicolas
Aug 14 '14 at 1:48
|
show 1 more comment
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Note: First note that you are really summing the geometric series ($a,rinmathbb{R}, aneq 0, rneq 1$)
$$
a+ar+ar^2+cdots+ar^n=afrac{r^{n+1}-1}{r-1}=afrac{1-r^{n+1}}{1-r}
$$
with $a=1$. Let's tidy up the question wording just a little bit and then prove your claim.
Claim: Let $a$ and $r$ be real numbers with $aneq 0$ and $rneq 1$. Prove that for each integer $ngeq 1$ that
$$
a+ar+ar^2+cdots+ar^n=afrac{r^{n+1}-1}{r-1}.
$$
Proof. Fix $rinmathbb{R}, rneq 1$, and let $S(n)$ denote the following statement for $ngeq 1$:
$$
S(n) : 1+r+r^2+cdots+r^n=frac{r^{n+1}-1}{r-1}.
$$
In order to solve this problem, it is sufficient for us to prove that $S(n)$ holds for each $ngeq 1$; that is, it suffices to consider only $a=1$. For $r=0$, we can see that $S(n)$ becomes $1=1$. Thus, assume that $rneq 0$ without loss of generality.
Base step ($n=1$): The statement $S(1)$ says that $1+r=frac{r^2-1}{r-1}$, which is true since $r^2-1=(r+1)(r-1)$ and $rneq 1$. [Also observe that you could begin the induction at $n=0$ because $S(0)$ simply says $1=frac{r-1}{r-1}$.]
Inductive step ($S(k)to S(k+1)$): Fix some $kgeq 1$ and suppose that $S(k)$ is true; that is, assume that
$$
S(k) : 1+r+r^2+cdots+r^k=frac{r^{k+1}-1}{r-1}
$$
is true. We must show that $S(k+1)$ follows where
$$
S(k+1) : 1+r+r^2+cdots+r^k+r^{k+1}=frac{r^{k+2}-1}{r-1}.
$$
Starting with the left-hand side of $S(k+1)$,
begin{align}
text{LHS} &= color{red}{1+r+r^2+cdots+r^k}+r^{k+1}tag{by definition}\[1em]
&= color{red}{frac{r^{k+1}-1}{r-1}}+r^{k+1}tag{by $S(k)$}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+1}-1}{r-1}+frac{r^{k+1}(r-1)}{r-1}tag{common denom.}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+1}-1+r^{k+1}(r-1)}{r-1}tag{combine like terms}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+1}-1+r^{k+2}-r^{k+1}}{r-1}tag{expand}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+2}-1}{r-1},tag{simplify}
end{align}
we see that the right-hand side of $S(k+1)$ follows. Thus, $S(k)to S(k+1)$, completing the inductive step.
By mathematical induction, for all $ngeq 1, S(n)$ holds true. $blacksquare$
Last note: There are many identities that use this main result. For example, a question was posed not long at all ago to prove that $sum_{i=0}^n 2^i=2^{n+1}-1$. One can easily set $r=2$ in what we just proved to see that this result is true.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$1+r=frac{1-r^2}{1-r}$$should lead you to check if $$(1+r)(1-r)=1-r^2.$$
I don't need to tell you more.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Why this downvote ?
$endgroup$
– Yves Daoust
Mar 23 '15 at 9:11
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
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active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Note: First note that you are really summing the geometric series ($a,rinmathbb{R}, aneq 0, rneq 1$)
$$
a+ar+ar^2+cdots+ar^n=afrac{r^{n+1}-1}{r-1}=afrac{1-r^{n+1}}{1-r}
$$
with $a=1$. Let's tidy up the question wording just a little bit and then prove your claim.
Claim: Let $a$ and $r$ be real numbers with $aneq 0$ and $rneq 1$. Prove that for each integer $ngeq 1$ that
$$
a+ar+ar^2+cdots+ar^n=afrac{r^{n+1}-1}{r-1}.
$$
Proof. Fix $rinmathbb{R}, rneq 1$, and let $S(n)$ denote the following statement for $ngeq 1$:
$$
S(n) : 1+r+r^2+cdots+r^n=frac{r^{n+1}-1}{r-1}.
$$
In order to solve this problem, it is sufficient for us to prove that $S(n)$ holds for each $ngeq 1$; that is, it suffices to consider only $a=1$. For $r=0$, we can see that $S(n)$ becomes $1=1$. Thus, assume that $rneq 0$ without loss of generality.
Base step ($n=1$): The statement $S(1)$ says that $1+r=frac{r^2-1}{r-1}$, which is true since $r^2-1=(r+1)(r-1)$ and $rneq 1$. [Also observe that you could begin the induction at $n=0$ because $S(0)$ simply says $1=frac{r-1}{r-1}$.]
Inductive step ($S(k)to S(k+1)$): Fix some $kgeq 1$ and suppose that $S(k)$ is true; that is, assume that
$$
S(k) : 1+r+r^2+cdots+r^k=frac{r^{k+1}-1}{r-1}
$$
is true. We must show that $S(k+1)$ follows where
$$
S(k+1) : 1+r+r^2+cdots+r^k+r^{k+1}=frac{r^{k+2}-1}{r-1}.
$$
Starting with the left-hand side of $S(k+1)$,
begin{align}
text{LHS} &= color{red}{1+r+r^2+cdots+r^k}+r^{k+1}tag{by definition}\[1em]
&= color{red}{frac{r^{k+1}-1}{r-1}}+r^{k+1}tag{by $S(k)$}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+1}-1}{r-1}+frac{r^{k+1}(r-1)}{r-1}tag{common denom.}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+1}-1+r^{k+1}(r-1)}{r-1}tag{combine like terms}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+1}-1+r^{k+2}-r^{k+1}}{r-1}tag{expand}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+2}-1}{r-1},tag{simplify}
end{align}
we see that the right-hand side of $S(k+1)$ follows. Thus, $S(k)to S(k+1)$, completing the inductive step.
By mathematical induction, for all $ngeq 1, S(n)$ holds true. $blacksquare$
Last note: There are many identities that use this main result. For example, a question was posed not long at all ago to prove that $sum_{i=0}^n 2^i=2^{n+1}-1$. One can easily set $r=2$ in what we just proved to see that this result is true.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note: First note that you are really summing the geometric series ($a,rinmathbb{R}, aneq 0, rneq 1$)
$$
a+ar+ar^2+cdots+ar^n=afrac{r^{n+1}-1}{r-1}=afrac{1-r^{n+1}}{1-r}
$$
with $a=1$. Let's tidy up the question wording just a little bit and then prove your claim.
Claim: Let $a$ and $r$ be real numbers with $aneq 0$ and $rneq 1$. Prove that for each integer $ngeq 1$ that
$$
a+ar+ar^2+cdots+ar^n=afrac{r^{n+1}-1}{r-1}.
$$
Proof. Fix $rinmathbb{R}, rneq 1$, and let $S(n)$ denote the following statement for $ngeq 1$:
$$
S(n) : 1+r+r^2+cdots+r^n=frac{r^{n+1}-1}{r-1}.
$$
In order to solve this problem, it is sufficient for us to prove that $S(n)$ holds for each $ngeq 1$; that is, it suffices to consider only $a=1$. For $r=0$, we can see that $S(n)$ becomes $1=1$. Thus, assume that $rneq 0$ without loss of generality.
Base step ($n=1$): The statement $S(1)$ says that $1+r=frac{r^2-1}{r-1}$, which is true since $r^2-1=(r+1)(r-1)$ and $rneq 1$. [Also observe that you could begin the induction at $n=0$ because $S(0)$ simply says $1=frac{r-1}{r-1}$.]
Inductive step ($S(k)to S(k+1)$): Fix some $kgeq 1$ and suppose that $S(k)$ is true; that is, assume that
$$
S(k) : 1+r+r^2+cdots+r^k=frac{r^{k+1}-1}{r-1}
$$
is true. We must show that $S(k+1)$ follows where
$$
S(k+1) : 1+r+r^2+cdots+r^k+r^{k+1}=frac{r^{k+2}-1}{r-1}.
$$
Starting with the left-hand side of $S(k+1)$,
begin{align}
text{LHS} &= color{red}{1+r+r^2+cdots+r^k}+r^{k+1}tag{by definition}\[1em]
&= color{red}{frac{r^{k+1}-1}{r-1}}+r^{k+1}tag{by $S(k)$}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+1}-1}{r-1}+frac{r^{k+1}(r-1)}{r-1}tag{common denom.}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+1}-1+r^{k+1}(r-1)}{r-1}tag{combine like terms}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+1}-1+r^{k+2}-r^{k+1}}{r-1}tag{expand}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+2}-1}{r-1},tag{simplify}
end{align}
we see that the right-hand side of $S(k+1)$ follows. Thus, $S(k)to S(k+1)$, completing the inductive step.
By mathematical induction, for all $ngeq 1, S(n)$ holds true. $blacksquare$
Last note: There are many identities that use this main result. For example, a question was posed not long at all ago to prove that $sum_{i=0}^n 2^i=2^{n+1}-1$. One can easily set $r=2$ in what we just proved to see that this result is true.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note: First note that you are really summing the geometric series ($a,rinmathbb{R}, aneq 0, rneq 1$)
$$
a+ar+ar^2+cdots+ar^n=afrac{r^{n+1}-1}{r-1}=afrac{1-r^{n+1}}{1-r}
$$
with $a=1$. Let's tidy up the question wording just a little bit and then prove your claim.
Claim: Let $a$ and $r$ be real numbers with $aneq 0$ and $rneq 1$. Prove that for each integer $ngeq 1$ that
$$
a+ar+ar^2+cdots+ar^n=afrac{r^{n+1}-1}{r-1}.
$$
Proof. Fix $rinmathbb{R}, rneq 1$, and let $S(n)$ denote the following statement for $ngeq 1$:
$$
S(n) : 1+r+r^2+cdots+r^n=frac{r^{n+1}-1}{r-1}.
$$
In order to solve this problem, it is sufficient for us to prove that $S(n)$ holds for each $ngeq 1$; that is, it suffices to consider only $a=1$. For $r=0$, we can see that $S(n)$ becomes $1=1$. Thus, assume that $rneq 0$ without loss of generality.
Base step ($n=1$): The statement $S(1)$ says that $1+r=frac{r^2-1}{r-1}$, which is true since $r^2-1=(r+1)(r-1)$ and $rneq 1$. [Also observe that you could begin the induction at $n=0$ because $S(0)$ simply says $1=frac{r-1}{r-1}$.]
Inductive step ($S(k)to S(k+1)$): Fix some $kgeq 1$ and suppose that $S(k)$ is true; that is, assume that
$$
S(k) : 1+r+r^2+cdots+r^k=frac{r^{k+1}-1}{r-1}
$$
is true. We must show that $S(k+1)$ follows where
$$
S(k+1) : 1+r+r^2+cdots+r^k+r^{k+1}=frac{r^{k+2}-1}{r-1}.
$$
Starting with the left-hand side of $S(k+1)$,
begin{align}
text{LHS} &= color{red}{1+r+r^2+cdots+r^k}+r^{k+1}tag{by definition}\[1em]
&= color{red}{frac{r^{k+1}-1}{r-1}}+r^{k+1}tag{by $S(k)$}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+1}-1}{r-1}+frac{r^{k+1}(r-1)}{r-1}tag{common denom.}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+1}-1+r^{k+1}(r-1)}{r-1}tag{combine like terms}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+1}-1+r^{k+2}-r^{k+1}}{r-1}tag{expand}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+2}-1}{r-1},tag{simplify}
end{align}
we see that the right-hand side of $S(k+1)$ follows. Thus, $S(k)to S(k+1)$, completing the inductive step.
By mathematical induction, for all $ngeq 1, S(n)$ holds true. $blacksquare$
Last note: There are many identities that use this main result. For example, a question was posed not long at all ago to prove that $sum_{i=0}^n 2^i=2^{n+1}-1$. One can easily set $r=2$ in what we just proved to see that this result is true.
$endgroup$
Note: First note that you are really summing the geometric series ($a,rinmathbb{R}, aneq 0, rneq 1$)
$$
a+ar+ar^2+cdots+ar^n=afrac{r^{n+1}-1}{r-1}=afrac{1-r^{n+1}}{1-r}
$$
with $a=1$. Let's tidy up the question wording just a little bit and then prove your claim.
Claim: Let $a$ and $r$ be real numbers with $aneq 0$ and $rneq 1$. Prove that for each integer $ngeq 1$ that
$$
a+ar+ar^2+cdots+ar^n=afrac{r^{n+1}-1}{r-1}.
$$
Proof. Fix $rinmathbb{R}, rneq 1$, and let $S(n)$ denote the following statement for $ngeq 1$:
$$
S(n) : 1+r+r^2+cdots+r^n=frac{r^{n+1}-1}{r-1}.
$$
In order to solve this problem, it is sufficient for us to prove that $S(n)$ holds for each $ngeq 1$; that is, it suffices to consider only $a=1$. For $r=0$, we can see that $S(n)$ becomes $1=1$. Thus, assume that $rneq 0$ without loss of generality.
Base step ($n=1$): The statement $S(1)$ says that $1+r=frac{r^2-1}{r-1}$, which is true since $r^2-1=(r+1)(r-1)$ and $rneq 1$. [Also observe that you could begin the induction at $n=0$ because $S(0)$ simply says $1=frac{r-1}{r-1}$.]
Inductive step ($S(k)to S(k+1)$): Fix some $kgeq 1$ and suppose that $S(k)$ is true; that is, assume that
$$
S(k) : 1+r+r^2+cdots+r^k=frac{r^{k+1}-1}{r-1}
$$
is true. We must show that $S(k+1)$ follows where
$$
S(k+1) : 1+r+r^2+cdots+r^k+r^{k+1}=frac{r^{k+2}-1}{r-1}.
$$
Starting with the left-hand side of $S(k+1)$,
begin{align}
text{LHS} &= color{red}{1+r+r^2+cdots+r^k}+r^{k+1}tag{by definition}\[1em]
&= color{red}{frac{r^{k+1}-1}{r-1}}+r^{k+1}tag{by $S(k)$}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+1}-1}{r-1}+frac{r^{k+1}(r-1)}{r-1}tag{common denom.}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+1}-1+r^{k+1}(r-1)}{r-1}tag{combine like terms}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+1}-1+r^{k+2}-r^{k+1}}{r-1}tag{expand}\[1em]
&= frac{r^{k+2}-1}{r-1},tag{simplify}
end{align}
we see that the right-hand side of $S(k+1)$ follows. Thus, $S(k)to S(k+1)$, completing the inductive step.
By mathematical induction, for all $ngeq 1, S(n)$ holds true. $blacksquare$
Last note: There are many identities that use this main result. For example, a question was posed not long at all ago to prove that $sum_{i=0}^n 2^i=2^{n+1}-1$. One can easily set $r=2$ in what we just proved to see that this result is true.
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:19
Community♦
1
1
answered Mar 23 '15 at 9:01
Daniel W. FarlowDaniel W. Farlow
17.6k114488
17.6k114488
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$1+r=frac{1-r^2}{1-r}$$should lead you to check if $$(1+r)(1-r)=1-r^2.$$
I don't need to tell you more.
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Why this downvote ?
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– Yves Daoust
Mar 23 '15 at 9:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$1+r=frac{1-r^2}{1-r}$$should lead you to check if $$(1+r)(1-r)=1-r^2.$$
I don't need to tell you more.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Why this downvote ?
$endgroup$
– Yves Daoust
Mar 23 '15 at 9:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$1+r=frac{1-r^2}{1-r}$$should lead you to check if $$(1+r)(1-r)=1-r^2.$$
I don't need to tell you more.
$endgroup$
$$1+r=frac{1-r^2}{1-r}$$should lead you to check if $$(1+r)(1-r)=1-r^2.$$
I don't need to tell you more.
answered Mar 23 '15 at 9:10
Yves DaoustYves Daoust
127k673226
127k673226
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Why this downvote ?
$endgroup$
– Yves Daoust
Mar 23 '15 at 9:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Why this downvote ?
$endgroup$
– Yves Daoust
Mar 23 '15 at 9:11
$begingroup$
Why this downvote ?
$endgroup$
– Yves Daoust
Mar 23 '15 at 9:11
$begingroup$
Why this downvote ?
$endgroup$
– Yves Daoust
Mar 23 '15 at 9:11
add a comment |
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Hint: $a^2-b^2=(a+b)(a-b)$
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– user105475
Aug 14 '14 at 1:42
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Base Case is P(0) not P(1)
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– user137481
Aug 14 '14 at 1:42
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@user137481 Natural Numbers start at 1 ... so should the base case not be P(1)
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– Guest
Aug 14 '14 at 1:43
1
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That depends on your teacher. In some courses, Natural Numbers start at 0
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– user137481
Aug 14 '14 at 1:47
1
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Note that the problem really should have specified that $rne 1$. As to the base case, it depends on the exact statement of the problem. If we are asked to prove the result is true for every natural number $n$, then the base case is $n=1$. If we are asked to prove the result holds for every non-negative integer, then the base case is $n=0$.
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– André Nicolas
Aug 14 '14 at 1:48