Application of Hadamard's Formula to a function that never vanish











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Suppose $f$ is an entire and never vanishes, and that none of higher derivatives of $f$ ever vanish. Prove that if $f$ is also of finite order, then $f(z) = e^{az+b}$ for some constants $a,b$.




I have an idea that doesn't seem to work on two points. I want to know if there is any way to take advantage of this idea or if there is some other way.



My approach. By Hadamard's Formula,
$$f(z) = e^{p(z)}z^{m}prod_{1}^{infty}E_{k}(z/a_{n})$$
where $p$ is a polynomial of degree $leq k$, $m$ is the order of the zero of $f$ at $z=0$ and ${a_{n}}_{n}$ denotes the non-zero zeros of $f$.
But in this case, ${a_{n}}_{n} = emptyset$.




  1. Is there any way to get
    $$f(z) = ce^{p(z)}$$
    with $c$ constant?


  2. If yes, we have $f'(z) = cp'(z)e^{p(z)}$. My idea is to use the hypothesis about the higher derivatives to conclude that $p'(z)$ is constant. But the higher derivatives may have zeros.











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    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite













    Suppose $f$ is an entire and never vanishes, and that none of higher derivatives of $f$ ever vanish. Prove that if $f$ is also of finite order, then $f(z) = e^{az+b}$ for some constants $a,b$.




    I have an idea that doesn't seem to work on two points. I want to know if there is any way to take advantage of this idea or if there is some other way.



    My approach. By Hadamard's Formula,
    $$f(z) = e^{p(z)}z^{m}prod_{1}^{infty}E_{k}(z/a_{n})$$
    where $p$ is a polynomial of degree $leq k$, $m$ is the order of the zero of $f$ at $z=0$ and ${a_{n}}_{n}$ denotes the non-zero zeros of $f$.
    But in this case, ${a_{n}}_{n} = emptyset$.




    1. Is there any way to get
      $$f(z) = ce^{p(z)}$$
      with $c$ constant?


    2. If yes, we have $f'(z) = cp'(z)e^{p(z)}$. My idea is to use the hypothesis about the higher derivatives to conclude that $p'(z)$ is constant. But the higher derivatives may have zeros.











    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite












      Suppose $f$ is an entire and never vanishes, and that none of higher derivatives of $f$ ever vanish. Prove that if $f$ is also of finite order, then $f(z) = e^{az+b}$ for some constants $a,b$.




      I have an idea that doesn't seem to work on two points. I want to know if there is any way to take advantage of this idea or if there is some other way.



      My approach. By Hadamard's Formula,
      $$f(z) = e^{p(z)}z^{m}prod_{1}^{infty}E_{k}(z/a_{n})$$
      where $p$ is a polynomial of degree $leq k$, $m$ is the order of the zero of $f$ at $z=0$ and ${a_{n}}_{n}$ denotes the non-zero zeros of $f$.
      But in this case, ${a_{n}}_{n} = emptyset$.




      1. Is there any way to get
        $$f(z) = ce^{p(z)}$$
        with $c$ constant?


      2. If yes, we have $f'(z) = cp'(z)e^{p(z)}$. My idea is to use the hypothesis about the higher derivatives to conclude that $p'(z)$ is constant. But the higher derivatives may have zeros.











      share|cite|improve this question














      Suppose $f$ is an entire and never vanishes, and that none of higher derivatives of $f$ ever vanish. Prove that if $f$ is also of finite order, then $f(z) = e^{az+b}$ for some constants $a,b$.




      I have an idea that doesn't seem to work on two points. I want to know if there is any way to take advantage of this idea or if there is some other way.



      My approach. By Hadamard's Formula,
      $$f(z) = e^{p(z)}z^{m}prod_{1}^{infty}E_{k}(z/a_{n})$$
      where $p$ is a polynomial of degree $leq k$, $m$ is the order of the zero of $f$ at $z=0$ and ${a_{n}}_{n}$ denotes the non-zero zeros of $f$.
      But in this case, ${a_{n}}_{n} = emptyset$.




      1. Is there any way to get
        $$f(z) = ce^{p(z)}$$
        with $c$ constant?


      2. If yes, we have $f'(z) = cp'(z)e^{p(z)}$. My idea is to use the hypothesis about the higher derivatives to conclude that $p'(z)$ is constant. But the higher derivatives may have zeros.








      complex-analysis entire-functions






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      asked Nov 18 at 19:01









      Lucas Corrêa

      1,252321




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          $f$ has no zeros, therefore $m=0$ and – as you noticed – the set ${ a_n }$ of non-zero zeros is empty. So
          $ f(z) = e^{p(z)} $ for some polynomial $p$, and $f'(z) = p'(z) e^{p(z)} $.



          If $f'$ never vanishes then $p'$ is a polynomial without zeros, and therefore
          constant. It follows that $p$ is a polynomial of degree at most one.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • For second, I had an interpretation problem. I understood that the higher derivatives were not null, but could be zero in some points.
            – Lucas Corrêa
            Nov 18 at 19:59










          • Thank you! ${}$
            – Lucas Corrêa
            Nov 18 at 19:59











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          1 Answer
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          active

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          up vote
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          down vote



          accepted










          $f$ has no zeros, therefore $m=0$ and – as you noticed – the set ${ a_n }$ of non-zero zeros is empty. So
          $ f(z) = e^{p(z)} $ for some polynomial $p$, and $f'(z) = p'(z) e^{p(z)} $.



          If $f'$ never vanishes then $p'$ is a polynomial without zeros, and therefore
          constant. It follows that $p$ is a polynomial of degree at most one.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • For second, I had an interpretation problem. I understood that the higher derivatives were not null, but could be zero in some points.
            – Lucas Corrêa
            Nov 18 at 19:59










          • Thank you! ${}$
            – Lucas Corrêa
            Nov 18 at 19:59















          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          $f$ has no zeros, therefore $m=0$ and – as you noticed – the set ${ a_n }$ of non-zero zeros is empty. So
          $ f(z) = e^{p(z)} $ for some polynomial $p$, and $f'(z) = p'(z) e^{p(z)} $.



          If $f'$ never vanishes then $p'$ is a polynomial without zeros, and therefore
          constant. It follows that $p$ is a polynomial of degree at most one.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • For second, I had an interpretation problem. I understood that the higher derivatives were not null, but could be zero in some points.
            – Lucas Corrêa
            Nov 18 at 19:59










          • Thank you! ${}$
            – Lucas Corrêa
            Nov 18 at 19:59













          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          $f$ has no zeros, therefore $m=0$ and – as you noticed – the set ${ a_n }$ of non-zero zeros is empty. So
          $ f(z) = e^{p(z)} $ for some polynomial $p$, and $f'(z) = p'(z) e^{p(z)} $.



          If $f'$ never vanishes then $p'$ is a polynomial without zeros, and therefore
          constant. It follows that $p$ is a polynomial of degree at most one.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          $f$ has no zeros, therefore $m=0$ and – as you noticed – the set ${ a_n }$ of non-zero zeros is empty. So
          $ f(z) = e^{p(z)} $ for some polynomial $p$, and $f'(z) = p'(z) e^{p(z)} $.



          If $f'$ never vanishes then $p'$ is a polynomial without zeros, and therefore
          constant. It follows that $p$ is a polynomial of degree at most one.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 18 at 19:46









          Martin R

          26k32946




          26k32946












          • For second, I had an interpretation problem. I understood that the higher derivatives were not null, but could be zero in some points.
            – Lucas Corrêa
            Nov 18 at 19:59










          • Thank you! ${}$
            – Lucas Corrêa
            Nov 18 at 19:59


















          • For second, I had an interpretation problem. I understood that the higher derivatives were not null, but could be zero in some points.
            – Lucas Corrêa
            Nov 18 at 19:59










          • Thank you! ${}$
            – Lucas Corrêa
            Nov 18 at 19:59
















          For second, I had an interpretation problem. I understood that the higher derivatives were not null, but could be zero in some points.
          – Lucas Corrêa
          Nov 18 at 19:59




          For second, I had an interpretation problem. I understood that the higher derivatives were not null, but could be zero in some points.
          – Lucas Corrêa
          Nov 18 at 19:59












          Thank you! ${}$
          – Lucas Corrêa
          Nov 18 at 19:59




          Thank you! ${}$
          – Lucas Corrêa
          Nov 18 at 19:59


















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