Application of Hadamard's Formula to a function that never vanish
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Suppose $f$ is an entire and never vanishes, and that none of higher derivatives of $f$ ever vanish. Prove that if $f$ is also of finite order, then $f(z) = e^{az+b}$ for some constants $a,b$.
I have an idea that doesn't seem to work on two points. I want to know if there is any way to take advantage of this idea or if there is some other way.
My approach. By Hadamard's Formula,
$$f(z) = e^{p(z)}z^{m}prod_{1}^{infty}E_{k}(z/a_{n})$$
where $p$ is a polynomial of degree $leq k$, $m$ is the order of the zero of $f$ at $z=0$ and ${a_{n}}_{n}$ denotes the non-zero zeros of $f$.
But in this case, ${a_{n}}_{n} = emptyset$.
Is there any way to get
$$f(z) = ce^{p(z)}$$
with $c$ constant?If yes, we have $f'(z) = cp'(z)e^{p(z)}$. My idea is to use the hypothesis about the higher derivatives to conclude that $p'(z)$ is constant. But the higher derivatives may have zeros.
complex-analysis entire-functions
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up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Suppose $f$ is an entire and never vanishes, and that none of higher derivatives of $f$ ever vanish. Prove that if $f$ is also of finite order, then $f(z) = e^{az+b}$ for some constants $a,b$.
I have an idea that doesn't seem to work on two points. I want to know if there is any way to take advantage of this idea or if there is some other way.
My approach. By Hadamard's Formula,
$$f(z) = e^{p(z)}z^{m}prod_{1}^{infty}E_{k}(z/a_{n})$$
where $p$ is a polynomial of degree $leq k$, $m$ is the order of the zero of $f$ at $z=0$ and ${a_{n}}_{n}$ denotes the non-zero zeros of $f$.
But in this case, ${a_{n}}_{n} = emptyset$.
Is there any way to get
$$f(z) = ce^{p(z)}$$
with $c$ constant?If yes, we have $f'(z) = cp'(z)e^{p(z)}$. My idea is to use the hypothesis about the higher derivatives to conclude that $p'(z)$ is constant. But the higher derivatives may have zeros.
complex-analysis entire-functions
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Suppose $f$ is an entire and never vanishes, and that none of higher derivatives of $f$ ever vanish. Prove that if $f$ is also of finite order, then $f(z) = e^{az+b}$ for some constants $a,b$.
I have an idea that doesn't seem to work on two points. I want to know if there is any way to take advantage of this idea or if there is some other way.
My approach. By Hadamard's Formula,
$$f(z) = e^{p(z)}z^{m}prod_{1}^{infty}E_{k}(z/a_{n})$$
where $p$ is a polynomial of degree $leq k$, $m$ is the order of the zero of $f$ at $z=0$ and ${a_{n}}_{n}$ denotes the non-zero zeros of $f$.
But in this case, ${a_{n}}_{n} = emptyset$.
Is there any way to get
$$f(z) = ce^{p(z)}$$
with $c$ constant?If yes, we have $f'(z) = cp'(z)e^{p(z)}$. My idea is to use the hypothesis about the higher derivatives to conclude that $p'(z)$ is constant. But the higher derivatives may have zeros.
complex-analysis entire-functions
Suppose $f$ is an entire and never vanishes, and that none of higher derivatives of $f$ ever vanish. Prove that if $f$ is also of finite order, then $f(z) = e^{az+b}$ for some constants $a,b$.
I have an idea that doesn't seem to work on two points. I want to know if there is any way to take advantage of this idea or if there is some other way.
My approach. By Hadamard's Formula,
$$f(z) = e^{p(z)}z^{m}prod_{1}^{infty}E_{k}(z/a_{n})$$
where $p$ is a polynomial of degree $leq k$, $m$ is the order of the zero of $f$ at $z=0$ and ${a_{n}}_{n}$ denotes the non-zero zeros of $f$.
But in this case, ${a_{n}}_{n} = emptyset$.
Is there any way to get
$$f(z) = ce^{p(z)}$$
with $c$ constant?If yes, we have $f'(z) = cp'(z)e^{p(z)}$. My idea is to use the hypothesis about the higher derivatives to conclude that $p'(z)$ is constant. But the higher derivatives may have zeros.
complex-analysis entire-functions
complex-analysis entire-functions
asked Nov 18 at 19:01
Lucas Corrêa
1,252321
1,252321
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1 Answer
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$f$ has no zeros, therefore $m=0$ and – as you noticed – the set ${ a_n }$ of non-zero zeros is empty. So
$ f(z) = e^{p(z)} $ for some polynomial $p$, and $f'(z) = p'(z) e^{p(z)} $.
If $f'$ never vanishes then $p'$ is a polynomial without zeros, and therefore
constant. It follows that $p$ is a polynomial of degree at most one.
For second, I had an interpretation problem. I understood that the higher derivatives were not null, but could be zero in some points.
– Lucas Corrêa
Nov 18 at 19:59
Thank you! ${}$
– Lucas Corrêa
Nov 18 at 19:59
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
$f$ has no zeros, therefore $m=0$ and – as you noticed – the set ${ a_n }$ of non-zero zeros is empty. So
$ f(z) = e^{p(z)} $ for some polynomial $p$, and $f'(z) = p'(z) e^{p(z)} $.
If $f'$ never vanishes then $p'$ is a polynomial without zeros, and therefore
constant. It follows that $p$ is a polynomial of degree at most one.
For second, I had an interpretation problem. I understood that the higher derivatives were not null, but could be zero in some points.
– Lucas Corrêa
Nov 18 at 19:59
Thank you! ${}$
– Lucas Corrêa
Nov 18 at 19:59
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
$f$ has no zeros, therefore $m=0$ and – as you noticed – the set ${ a_n }$ of non-zero zeros is empty. So
$ f(z) = e^{p(z)} $ for some polynomial $p$, and $f'(z) = p'(z) e^{p(z)} $.
If $f'$ never vanishes then $p'$ is a polynomial without zeros, and therefore
constant. It follows that $p$ is a polynomial of degree at most one.
For second, I had an interpretation problem. I understood that the higher derivatives were not null, but could be zero in some points.
– Lucas Corrêa
Nov 18 at 19:59
Thank you! ${}$
– Lucas Corrêa
Nov 18 at 19:59
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
$f$ has no zeros, therefore $m=0$ and – as you noticed – the set ${ a_n }$ of non-zero zeros is empty. So
$ f(z) = e^{p(z)} $ for some polynomial $p$, and $f'(z) = p'(z) e^{p(z)} $.
If $f'$ never vanishes then $p'$ is a polynomial without zeros, and therefore
constant. It follows that $p$ is a polynomial of degree at most one.
$f$ has no zeros, therefore $m=0$ and – as you noticed – the set ${ a_n }$ of non-zero zeros is empty. So
$ f(z) = e^{p(z)} $ for some polynomial $p$, and $f'(z) = p'(z) e^{p(z)} $.
If $f'$ never vanishes then $p'$ is a polynomial without zeros, and therefore
constant. It follows that $p$ is a polynomial of degree at most one.
answered Nov 18 at 19:46
Martin R
26k32946
26k32946
For second, I had an interpretation problem. I understood that the higher derivatives were not null, but could be zero in some points.
– Lucas Corrêa
Nov 18 at 19:59
Thank you! ${}$
– Lucas Corrêa
Nov 18 at 19:59
add a comment |
For second, I had an interpretation problem. I understood that the higher derivatives were not null, but could be zero in some points.
– Lucas Corrêa
Nov 18 at 19:59
Thank you! ${}$
– Lucas Corrêa
Nov 18 at 19:59
For second, I had an interpretation problem. I understood that the higher derivatives were not null, but could be zero in some points.
– Lucas Corrêa
Nov 18 at 19:59
For second, I had an interpretation problem. I understood that the higher derivatives were not null, but could be zero in some points.
– Lucas Corrêa
Nov 18 at 19:59
Thank you! ${}$
– Lucas Corrêa
Nov 18 at 19:59
Thank you! ${}$
– Lucas Corrêa
Nov 18 at 19:59
add a comment |
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