Linear transformation on infinite dimensional vector spaces
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0
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Let $E$ and $F$ be two infinite dimentional vector spaces.
And $Lin mathbb{L}(E,F)$, A continuous linear tranformation.
If $L$ is surjective implies that $L$ is bijective ?
general-topology functional-analysis linear-transformations
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Let $E$ and $F$ be two infinite dimentional vector spaces.
And $Lin mathbb{L}(E,F)$, A continuous linear tranformation.
If $L$ is surjective implies that $L$ is bijective ?
general-topology functional-analysis linear-transformations
This is not true even in finite dimensional spaces...what is true is that surjectivity is equivalent to bijectivity for linear operators in $;mathcal L(V,V);$ , when $;dim V<infty;$ .
– DonAntonio
Nov 20 at 10:31
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Let $E$ and $F$ be two infinite dimentional vector spaces.
And $Lin mathbb{L}(E,F)$, A continuous linear tranformation.
If $L$ is surjective implies that $L$ is bijective ?
general-topology functional-analysis linear-transformations
Let $E$ and $F$ be two infinite dimentional vector spaces.
And $Lin mathbb{L}(E,F)$, A continuous linear tranformation.
If $L$ is surjective implies that $L$ is bijective ?
general-topology functional-analysis linear-transformations
general-topology functional-analysis linear-transformations
asked Nov 20 at 10:02
Anas BOUALII
253
253
This is not true even in finite dimensional spaces...what is true is that surjectivity is equivalent to bijectivity for linear operators in $;mathcal L(V,V);$ , when $;dim V<infty;$ .
– DonAntonio
Nov 20 at 10:31
add a comment |
This is not true even in finite dimensional spaces...what is true is that surjectivity is equivalent to bijectivity for linear operators in $;mathcal L(V,V);$ , when $;dim V<infty;$ .
– DonAntonio
Nov 20 at 10:31
This is not true even in finite dimensional spaces...what is true is that surjectivity is equivalent to bijectivity for linear operators in $;mathcal L(V,V);$ , when $;dim V<infty;$ .
– DonAntonio
Nov 20 at 10:31
This is not true even in finite dimensional spaces...what is true is that surjectivity is equivalent to bijectivity for linear operators in $;mathcal L(V,V);$ , when $;dim V<infty;$ .
– DonAntonio
Nov 20 at 10:31
add a comment |
1 Answer
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up vote
1
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Consider the vector space $V$ of all sequences of real numbers. Let $L(a_1,a_2,cdots)=(a_2,a_3,cdots)$. Then $L$ is surjective but $L(0,0,cdots)=L(1,0,cdots)$ it is not injective.
thank you professor. It answers my question.
– Anas BOUALII
Nov 20 at 10:08
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Consider the vector space $V$ of all sequences of real numbers. Let $L(a_1,a_2,cdots)=(a_2,a_3,cdots)$. Then $L$ is surjective but $L(0,0,cdots)=L(1,0,cdots)$ it is not injective.
thank you professor. It answers my question.
– Anas BOUALII
Nov 20 at 10:08
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Consider the vector space $V$ of all sequences of real numbers. Let $L(a_1,a_2,cdots)=(a_2,a_3,cdots)$. Then $L$ is surjective but $L(0,0,cdots)=L(1,0,cdots)$ it is not injective.
thank you professor. It answers my question.
– Anas BOUALII
Nov 20 at 10:08
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Consider the vector space $V$ of all sequences of real numbers. Let $L(a_1,a_2,cdots)=(a_2,a_3,cdots)$. Then $L$ is surjective but $L(0,0,cdots)=L(1,0,cdots)$ it is not injective.
Consider the vector space $V$ of all sequences of real numbers. Let $L(a_1,a_2,cdots)=(a_2,a_3,cdots)$. Then $L$ is surjective but $L(0,0,cdots)=L(1,0,cdots)$ it is not injective.
answered Nov 20 at 10:06
Kavi Rama Murthy
44.7k31852
44.7k31852
thank you professor. It answers my question.
– Anas BOUALII
Nov 20 at 10:08
add a comment |
thank you professor. It answers my question.
– Anas BOUALII
Nov 20 at 10:08
thank you professor. It answers my question.
– Anas BOUALII
Nov 20 at 10:08
thank you professor. It answers my question.
– Anas BOUALII
Nov 20 at 10:08
add a comment |
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This is not true even in finite dimensional spaces...what is true is that surjectivity is equivalent to bijectivity for linear operators in $;mathcal L(V,V);$ , when $;dim V<infty;$ .
– DonAntonio
Nov 20 at 10:31