An element lies in a prime ideal but not in its square












1












$begingroup$


Let $R$ be a UFD. I'm trying to understand whether the following statements are equivalent:



1) $rin R$ lies in some prime ideal $P$ but not in the ideal $P^2$.



2) $r$ is divisible by a prime element of $R$ but not by its square.



I think I can see why 2) implies 1). Suppose 2) holds, say $r$ is divisible by a prime element $p$ but not by $p^2$. Then $r$ lies in the ideal $P=(p)$, which is prime because $p$ is prime. Also $r$ does not lie in $P^2$, because otherwise it would be divisible by $p^2$. Is that right?



Suppose 1) holds. $P$ is an abstract prime ideal. Does it necessarily contain a prime element? If so, I would be able to conclude that $r$ is divisible by that prime element. (I think it must be finitely generated since $R$ is a UFD, do the generators have to be prime elements?) Does the condition $rnotin P^2$ imply that $r $ is not divisible by the square of that element?










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    1












    $begingroup$


    Let $R$ be a UFD. I'm trying to understand whether the following statements are equivalent:



    1) $rin R$ lies in some prime ideal $P$ but not in the ideal $P^2$.



    2) $r$ is divisible by a prime element of $R$ but not by its square.



    I think I can see why 2) implies 1). Suppose 2) holds, say $r$ is divisible by a prime element $p$ but not by $p^2$. Then $r$ lies in the ideal $P=(p)$, which is prime because $p$ is prime. Also $r$ does not lie in $P^2$, because otherwise it would be divisible by $p^2$. Is that right?



    Suppose 1) holds. $P$ is an abstract prime ideal. Does it necessarily contain a prime element? If so, I would be able to conclude that $r$ is divisible by that prime element. (I think it must be finitely generated since $R$ is a UFD, do the generators have to be prime elements?) Does the condition $rnotin P^2$ imply that $r $ is not divisible by the square of that element?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Let $R$ be a UFD. I'm trying to understand whether the following statements are equivalent:



      1) $rin R$ lies in some prime ideal $P$ but not in the ideal $P^2$.



      2) $r$ is divisible by a prime element of $R$ but not by its square.



      I think I can see why 2) implies 1). Suppose 2) holds, say $r$ is divisible by a prime element $p$ but not by $p^2$. Then $r$ lies in the ideal $P=(p)$, which is prime because $p$ is prime. Also $r$ does not lie in $P^2$, because otherwise it would be divisible by $p^2$. Is that right?



      Suppose 1) holds. $P$ is an abstract prime ideal. Does it necessarily contain a prime element? If so, I would be able to conclude that $r$ is divisible by that prime element. (I think it must be finitely generated since $R$ is a UFD, do the generators have to be prime elements?) Does the condition $rnotin P^2$ imply that $r $ is not divisible by the square of that element?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $R$ be a UFD. I'm trying to understand whether the following statements are equivalent:



      1) $rin R$ lies in some prime ideal $P$ but not in the ideal $P^2$.



      2) $r$ is divisible by a prime element of $R$ but not by its square.



      I think I can see why 2) implies 1). Suppose 2) holds, say $r$ is divisible by a prime element $p$ but not by $p^2$. Then $r$ lies in the ideal $P=(p)$, which is prime because $p$ is prime. Also $r$ does not lie in $P^2$, because otherwise it would be divisible by $p^2$. Is that right?



      Suppose 1) holds. $P$ is an abstract prime ideal. Does it necessarily contain a prime element? If so, I would be able to conclude that $r$ is divisible by that prime element. (I think it must be finitely generated since $R$ is a UFD, do the generators have to be prime elements?) Does the condition $rnotin P^2$ imply that $r $ is not divisible by the square of that element?







      abstract-algebra ideals maximal-and-prime-ideals unique-factorization-domains






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      edited Dec 1 '18 at 19:47







      user437309

















      asked Dec 1 '18 at 19:22









      user437309user437309

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          $begingroup$

          Your reasoning that $(2) implies (1)$ is correct.



          As for your questions in the end:



          It is not true that $P$ must be finitely generated. If every prime ideal of a ring is finitely generated, then in fact every ideal is finitely generated, i.e. the ring is Noetherian (this is sometimes called Cohen's theorem). In general, UFDs are not Noetherian. A classic example is $K[x_1, x_2, x_3, ldots]$, the ring of polynomials in an infinite number of variables over a field.



          However, this is not important for your problem.



          In a UFD we can factor $r$ as $r = prod p_i^{n_i}$ with the $p_i$ distinct primes.

          Show from the definition of prime ideal that $r in P$ prime implies $p_i in P$ for some $i$. Remember, $P$ prime means that $ab in P implies ain P text{ or } bin P$. (In general you've now shown that a prime ideal of a UFD always contains a prime element. In fact this behavior characterizes UFDs, and is sometimes called Kaplansky's theorem)



          Finally, show from this and the assumption that $r notin P^2$ that $p_i mid r$ but $p_i^2 nmid r$






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            $begingroup$

            Your reasoning that $(2) implies (1)$ is correct.



            As for your questions in the end:



            It is not true that $P$ must be finitely generated. If every prime ideal of a ring is finitely generated, then in fact every ideal is finitely generated, i.e. the ring is Noetherian (this is sometimes called Cohen's theorem). In general, UFDs are not Noetherian. A classic example is $K[x_1, x_2, x_3, ldots]$, the ring of polynomials in an infinite number of variables over a field.



            However, this is not important for your problem.



            In a UFD we can factor $r$ as $r = prod p_i^{n_i}$ with the $p_i$ distinct primes.

            Show from the definition of prime ideal that $r in P$ prime implies $p_i in P$ for some $i$. Remember, $P$ prime means that $ab in P implies ain P text{ or } bin P$. (In general you've now shown that a prime ideal of a UFD always contains a prime element. In fact this behavior characterizes UFDs, and is sometimes called Kaplansky's theorem)



            Finally, show from this and the assumption that $r notin P^2$ that $p_i mid r$ but $p_i^2 nmid r$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              0












              $begingroup$

              Your reasoning that $(2) implies (1)$ is correct.



              As for your questions in the end:



              It is not true that $P$ must be finitely generated. If every prime ideal of a ring is finitely generated, then in fact every ideal is finitely generated, i.e. the ring is Noetherian (this is sometimes called Cohen's theorem). In general, UFDs are not Noetherian. A classic example is $K[x_1, x_2, x_3, ldots]$, the ring of polynomials in an infinite number of variables over a field.



              However, this is not important for your problem.



              In a UFD we can factor $r$ as $r = prod p_i^{n_i}$ with the $p_i$ distinct primes.

              Show from the definition of prime ideal that $r in P$ prime implies $p_i in P$ for some $i$. Remember, $P$ prime means that $ab in P implies ain P text{ or } bin P$. (In general you've now shown that a prime ideal of a UFD always contains a prime element. In fact this behavior characterizes UFDs, and is sometimes called Kaplansky's theorem)



              Finally, show from this and the assumption that $r notin P^2$ that $p_i mid r$ but $p_i^2 nmid r$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                Your reasoning that $(2) implies (1)$ is correct.



                As for your questions in the end:



                It is not true that $P$ must be finitely generated. If every prime ideal of a ring is finitely generated, then in fact every ideal is finitely generated, i.e. the ring is Noetherian (this is sometimes called Cohen's theorem). In general, UFDs are not Noetherian. A classic example is $K[x_1, x_2, x_3, ldots]$, the ring of polynomials in an infinite number of variables over a field.



                However, this is not important for your problem.



                In a UFD we can factor $r$ as $r = prod p_i^{n_i}$ with the $p_i$ distinct primes.

                Show from the definition of prime ideal that $r in P$ prime implies $p_i in P$ for some $i$. Remember, $P$ prime means that $ab in P implies ain P text{ or } bin P$. (In general you've now shown that a prime ideal of a UFD always contains a prime element. In fact this behavior characterizes UFDs, and is sometimes called Kaplansky's theorem)



                Finally, show from this and the assumption that $r notin P^2$ that $p_i mid r$ but $p_i^2 nmid r$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Your reasoning that $(2) implies (1)$ is correct.



                As for your questions in the end:



                It is not true that $P$ must be finitely generated. If every prime ideal of a ring is finitely generated, then in fact every ideal is finitely generated, i.e. the ring is Noetherian (this is sometimes called Cohen's theorem). In general, UFDs are not Noetherian. A classic example is $K[x_1, x_2, x_3, ldots]$, the ring of polynomials in an infinite number of variables over a field.



                However, this is not important for your problem.



                In a UFD we can factor $r$ as $r = prod p_i^{n_i}$ with the $p_i$ distinct primes.

                Show from the definition of prime ideal that $r in P$ prime implies $p_i in P$ for some $i$. Remember, $P$ prime means that $ab in P implies ain P text{ or } bin P$. (In general you've now shown that a prime ideal of a UFD always contains a prime element. In fact this behavior characterizes UFDs, and is sometimes called Kaplansky's theorem)



                Finally, show from this and the assumption that $r notin P^2$ that $p_i mid r$ but $p_i^2 nmid r$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 1 '18 at 22:46









                Badam BaplanBadam Baplan

                4,476722




                4,476722






























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