For $f(x) = tan(pi cdot x)$, find the Interpolation $Q(x) = b_0 + b_1 x + b_2 frac{1}{x-frac{1}{2}}$
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Progress so far:
In a previous task, I determined a polynomial interpolation using a system of linear equations.
The data points to be used were $(0, f(0)), (frac{1}{6}, f(frac{1}{6})), (frac{1}{4}, f(frac{1}{4}))$
The linear equation used was of the form:
begin{pmatrix}0^2&0^1&0^0\ :frac{1}{6}^2&frac{1}{6}^1&frac{1}{6}^0\ :frac{1}{4}^2&frac{1}{4}^1&frac{1}{4}^0end{pmatrix}begin{pmatrix}a_2\ :a_1\ :a_0end{pmatrix}=begin{pmatrix}0\ frac{1}{sqrt{3}}\ 1end{pmatrix}
and the polynomial of the form
$$ p_2(x) = a_0 + a_1 x + a_2 x^2$$ was determined to have the coefficients
$a_0 = 0, a_1 = -8 + frac{18}{sqrt{3}}, a_2 = 48 - frac{72}{sqrt{3}}$
I am not aware of how I would use a system of linear equations to determine $Q(x)$. Is it perhaps possible to derive the coefficients from $p_2$? Or is there some other method of interpolation I should pursue?
interpolation interpolation-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Progress so far:
In a previous task, I determined a polynomial interpolation using a system of linear equations.
The data points to be used were $(0, f(0)), (frac{1}{6}, f(frac{1}{6})), (frac{1}{4}, f(frac{1}{4}))$
The linear equation used was of the form:
begin{pmatrix}0^2&0^1&0^0\ :frac{1}{6}^2&frac{1}{6}^1&frac{1}{6}^0\ :frac{1}{4}^2&frac{1}{4}^1&frac{1}{4}^0end{pmatrix}begin{pmatrix}a_2\ :a_1\ :a_0end{pmatrix}=begin{pmatrix}0\ frac{1}{sqrt{3}}\ 1end{pmatrix}
and the polynomial of the form
$$ p_2(x) = a_0 + a_1 x + a_2 x^2$$ was determined to have the coefficients
$a_0 = 0, a_1 = -8 + frac{18}{sqrt{3}}, a_2 = 48 - frac{72}{sqrt{3}}$
I am not aware of how I would use a system of linear equations to determine $Q(x)$. Is it perhaps possible to derive the coefficients from $p_2$? Or is there some other method of interpolation I should pursue?
interpolation interpolation-theory
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
In my answer, I assumed that you would also use $x=frac 12$. If this is not the case, for $Q(x)$ you still have three linear equations.
$endgroup$
– Claude Leibovici
Dec 3 '18 at 11:26
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Progress so far:
In a previous task, I determined a polynomial interpolation using a system of linear equations.
The data points to be used were $(0, f(0)), (frac{1}{6}, f(frac{1}{6})), (frac{1}{4}, f(frac{1}{4}))$
The linear equation used was of the form:
begin{pmatrix}0^2&0^1&0^0\ :frac{1}{6}^2&frac{1}{6}^1&frac{1}{6}^0\ :frac{1}{4}^2&frac{1}{4}^1&frac{1}{4}^0end{pmatrix}begin{pmatrix}a_2\ :a_1\ :a_0end{pmatrix}=begin{pmatrix}0\ frac{1}{sqrt{3}}\ 1end{pmatrix}
and the polynomial of the form
$$ p_2(x) = a_0 + a_1 x + a_2 x^2$$ was determined to have the coefficients
$a_0 = 0, a_1 = -8 + frac{18}{sqrt{3}}, a_2 = 48 - frac{72}{sqrt{3}}$
I am not aware of how I would use a system of linear equations to determine $Q(x)$. Is it perhaps possible to derive the coefficients from $p_2$? Or is there some other method of interpolation I should pursue?
interpolation interpolation-theory
$endgroup$
Progress so far:
In a previous task, I determined a polynomial interpolation using a system of linear equations.
The data points to be used were $(0, f(0)), (frac{1}{6}, f(frac{1}{6})), (frac{1}{4}, f(frac{1}{4}))$
The linear equation used was of the form:
begin{pmatrix}0^2&0^1&0^0\ :frac{1}{6}^2&frac{1}{6}^1&frac{1}{6}^0\ :frac{1}{4}^2&frac{1}{4}^1&frac{1}{4}^0end{pmatrix}begin{pmatrix}a_2\ :a_1\ :a_0end{pmatrix}=begin{pmatrix}0\ frac{1}{sqrt{3}}\ 1end{pmatrix}
and the polynomial of the form
$$ p_2(x) = a_0 + a_1 x + a_2 x^2$$ was determined to have the coefficients
$a_0 = 0, a_1 = -8 + frac{18}{sqrt{3}}, a_2 = 48 - frac{72}{sqrt{3}}$
I am not aware of how I would use a system of linear equations to determine $Q(x)$. Is it perhaps possible to derive the coefficients from $p_2$? Or is there some other method of interpolation I should pursue?
interpolation interpolation-theory
interpolation interpolation-theory
asked Dec 3 '18 at 10:38
OscarOscar
349110
349110
$begingroup$
In my answer, I assumed that you would also use $x=frac 12$. If this is not the case, for $Q(x)$ you still have three linear equations.
$endgroup$
– Claude Leibovici
Dec 3 '18 at 11:26
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In my answer, I assumed that you would also use $x=frac 12$. If this is not the case, for $Q(x)$ you still have three linear equations.
$endgroup$
– Claude Leibovici
Dec 3 '18 at 11:26
$begingroup$
In my answer, I assumed that you would also use $x=frac 12$. If this is not the case, for $Q(x)$ you still have three linear equations.
$endgroup$
– Claude Leibovici
Dec 3 '18 at 11:26
$begingroup$
In my answer, I assumed that you would also use $x=frac 12$. If this is not the case, for $Q(x)$ you still have three linear equations.
$endgroup$
– Claude Leibovici
Dec 3 '18 at 11:26
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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$begingroup$
Instead of working with $Q(x)$
$$Q(x) = b_0 + b_1 x + frac{b_2}{x-frac{1}{2}}$$
work with $Phi(x)$ an $Psi(x)$
$$Phi(x)=left(x-frac 12right) Q(x)=left(b_2-frac{b_0}{2}right)+x left(b_0-frac{b_1}{2}right)+b_1 x^2=alpha+beta x+gamma x^2$$
$$Psi(x)=left(x-frac 12right) F(x)=left(x-frac 12right) tan(pi x)$$ $Psi(x)$ is a very nice function for the range of interest.
Compute $alpha,beta ,gamma$ and go back to $b_0,b_1,b_2$.
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add a comment |
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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active
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votes
$begingroup$
Instead of working with $Q(x)$
$$Q(x) = b_0 + b_1 x + frac{b_2}{x-frac{1}{2}}$$
work with $Phi(x)$ an $Psi(x)$
$$Phi(x)=left(x-frac 12right) Q(x)=left(b_2-frac{b_0}{2}right)+x left(b_0-frac{b_1}{2}right)+b_1 x^2=alpha+beta x+gamma x^2$$
$$Psi(x)=left(x-frac 12right) F(x)=left(x-frac 12right) tan(pi x)$$ $Psi(x)$ is a very nice function for the range of interest.
Compute $alpha,beta ,gamma$ and go back to $b_0,b_1,b_2$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Instead of working with $Q(x)$
$$Q(x) = b_0 + b_1 x + frac{b_2}{x-frac{1}{2}}$$
work with $Phi(x)$ an $Psi(x)$
$$Phi(x)=left(x-frac 12right) Q(x)=left(b_2-frac{b_0}{2}right)+x left(b_0-frac{b_1}{2}right)+b_1 x^2=alpha+beta x+gamma x^2$$
$$Psi(x)=left(x-frac 12right) F(x)=left(x-frac 12right) tan(pi x)$$ $Psi(x)$ is a very nice function for the range of interest.
Compute $alpha,beta ,gamma$ and go back to $b_0,b_1,b_2$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Instead of working with $Q(x)$
$$Q(x) = b_0 + b_1 x + frac{b_2}{x-frac{1}{2}}$$
work with $Phi(x)$ an $Psi(x)$
$$Phi(x)=left(x-frac 12right) Q(x)=left(b_2-frac{b_0}{2}right)+x left(b_0-frac{b_1}{2}right)+b_1 x^2=alpha+beta x+gamma x^2$$
$$Psi(x)=left(x-frac 12right) F(x)=left(x-frac 12right) tan(pi x)$$ $Psi(x)$ is a very nice function for the range of interest.
Compute $alpha,beta ,gamma$ and go back to $b_0,b_1,b_2$.
$endgroup$
Instead of working with $Q(x)$
$$Q(x) = b_0 + b_1 x + frac{b_2}{x-frac{1}{2}}$$
work with $Phi(x)$ an $Psi(x)$
$$Phi(x)=left(x-frac 12right) Q(x)=left(b_2-frac{b_0}{2}right)+x left(b_0-frac{b_1}{2}right)+b_1 x^2=alpha+beta x+gamma x^2$$
$$Psi(x)=left(x-frac 12right) F(x)=left(x-frac 12right) tan(pi x)$$ $Psi(x)$ is a very nice function for the range of interest.
Compute $alpha,beta ,gamma$ and go back to $b_0,b_1,b_2$.
answered Dec 3 '18 at 11:12
Claude LeiboviciClaude Leibovici
120k1157132
120k1157132
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$begingroup$
In my answer, I assumed that you would also use $x=frac 12$. If this is not the case, for $Q(x)$ you still have three linear equations.
$endgroup$
– Claude Leibovici
Dec 3 '18 at 11:26