Prime ideals of $mathbb{Z}$: equivalent proof?
$begingroup$
Let $R=mathbb{Z}$, since $mathbb{Z}$ is an integer domain the ideal $(0)$ is prime. I must prove that
The prime ideals of $mathbb{Z}$ are precisely the ideals $(n)$ where $n$ is a prime.
On the implication: $p$ is a prime then $(p)$ is a prime ideal there are no problems.
Now, let $I=(n)$ a prime ideal of $mathbb{Z}$.
First proof
We suppose to be absurd that $n$ is not prime, then $n=n_1n_2$ where $n_1nepm 1$ and $n_2nepm 1$.
Then $n_1notin (n)$, in fact if it were $n_1in(n)$, $exists kinmathbb{Z}$ such that $n_1=kn$, therefore $n=(kn)n_2ne n$, absurd. So, $n_1notin (n)$ and $n_2notin (n)$. However $n_1n_2=nin (n)$.
Summing up if $n$ is not prime, then $$n_1n_2in(n)Rightarrow n_1notin (n)quadtext{and}quad n_2notin (n),$$
therefore $(n)$ is not prime ideal, absurd.
Second proof
If we suppose to know that every ideal $I$ of $mathbb{Z}$ is of the form $I=(n)$ where $n$ is the least integer not negative which belongs to $I$, then when we suppose that $n$ is not prime, then $n=n_1n_2$, where $1<n_1,n_2<n$. At this point if it were $n_1in (n)$ $exists kinmathbb{Z}_+$ such that $n_1=kn$, then $n_1>n$ absurd. Then, also in this case we have that $$n_1n_2in(n)Rightarrow n_1notin (n)quadtext{and}quad n_2notin (n),$$
therefore $(n)$ is not prime ideal, absurd.
In the same hypothesis we could conclude by saying that: $n=n_1n_2in (n)$, since $(n)$ is prime ideal then $n_1in (n)$ or $n_2in (n)$, but if were $n_1in (n)$, then $exists kinmathbb{Z}_+$ such that $n_1=kn$ therefore $n_1>n$, therefore we would contradict the condition $1<n_1,n_2<n$.
It's correct?
Thanks!
proof-verification proof-writing proof-explanation
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $R=mathbb{Z}$, since $mathbb{Z}$ is an integer domain the ideal $(0)$ is prime. I must prove that
The prime ideals of $mathbb{Z}$ are precisely the ideals $(n)$ where $n$ is a prime.
On the implication: $p$ is a prime then $(p)$ is a prime ideal there are no problems.
Now, let $I=(n)$ a prime ideal of $mathbb{Z}$.
First proof
We suppose to be absurd that $n$ is not prime, then $n=n_1n_2$ where $n_1nepm 1$ and $n_2nepm 1$.
Then $n_1notin (n)$, in fact if it were $n_1in(n)$, $exists kinmathbb{Z}$ such that $n_1=kn$, therefore $n=(kn)n_2ne n$, absurd. So, $n_1notin (n)$ and $n_2notin (n)$. However $n_1n_2=nin (n)$.
Summing up if $n$ is not prime, then $$n_1n_2in(n)Rightarrow n_1notin (n)quadtext{and}quad n_2notin (n),$$
therefore $(n)$ is not prime ideal, absurd.
Second proof
If we suppose to know that every ideal $I$ of $mathbb{Z}$ is of the form $I=(n)$ where $n$ is the least integer not negative which belongs to $I$, then when we suppose that $n$ is not prime, then $n=n_1n_2$, where $1<n_1,n_2<n$. At this point if it were $n_1in (n)$ $exists kinmathbb{Z}_+$ such that $n_1=kn$, then $n_1>n$ absurd. Then, also in this case we have that $$n_1n_2in(n)Rightarrow n_1notin (n)quadtext{and}quad n_2notin (n),$$
therefore $(n)$ is not prime ideal, absurd.
In the same hypothesis we could conclude by saying that: $n=n_1n_2in (n)$, since $(n)$ is prime ideal then $n_1in (n)$ or $n_2in (n)$, but if were $n_1in (n)$, then $exists kinmathbb{Z}_+$ such that $n_1=kn$ therefore $n_1>n$, therefore we would contradict the condition $1<n_1,n_2<n$.
It's correct?
Thanks!
proof-verification proof-writing proof-explanation
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $R=mathbb{Z}$, since $mathbb{Z}$ is an integer domain the ideal $(0)$ is prime. I must prove that
The prime ideals of $mathbb{Z}$ are precisely the ideals $(n)$ where $n$ is a prime.
On the implication: $p$ is a prime then $(p)$ is a prime ideal there are no problems.
Now, let $I=(n)$ a prime ideal of $mathbb{Z}$.
First proof
We suppose to be absurd that $n$ is not prime, then $n=n_1n_2$ where $n_1nepm 1$ and $n_2nepm 1$.
Then $n_1notin (n)$, in fact if it were $n_1in(n)$, $exists kinmathbb{Z}$ such that $n_1=kn$, therefore $n=(kn)n_2ne n$, absurd. So, $n_1notin (n)$ and $n_2notin (n)$. However $n_1n_2=nin (n)$.
Summing up if $n$ is not prime, then $$n_1n_2in(n)Rightarrow n_1notin (n)quadtext{and}quad n_2notin (n),$$
therefore $(n)$ is not prime ideal, absurd.
Second proof
If we suppose to know that every ideal $I$ of $mathbb{Z}$ is of the form $I=(n)$ where $n$ is the least integer not negative which belongs to $I$, then when we suppose that $n$ is not prime, then $n=n_1n_2$, where $1<n_1,n_2<n$. At this point if it were $n_1in (n)$ $exists kinmathbb{Z}_+$ such that $n_1=kn$, then $n_1>n$ absurd. Then, also in this case we have that $$n_1n_2in(n)Rightarrow n_1notin (n)quadtext{and}quad n_2notin (n),$$
therefore $(n)$ is not prime ideal, absurd.
In the same hypothesis we could conclude by saying that: $n=n_1n_2in (n)$, since $(n)$ is prime ideal then $n_1in (n)$ or $n_2in (n)$, but if were $n_1in (n)$, then $exists kinmathbb{Z}_+$ such that $n_1=kn$ therefore $n_1>n$, therefore we would contradict the condition $1<n_1,n_2<n$.
It's correct?
Thanks!
proof-verification proof-writing proof-explanation
$endgroup$
Let $R=mathbb{Z}$, since $mathbb{Z}$ is an integer domain the ideal $(0)$ is prime. I must prove that
The prime ideals of $mathbb{Z}$ are precisely the ideals $(n)$ where $n$ is a prime.
On the implication: $p$ is a prime then $(p)$ is a prime ideal there are no problems.
Now, let $I=(n)$ a prime ideal of $mathbb{Z}$.
First proof
We suppose to be absurd that $n$ is not prime, then $n=n_1n_2$ where $n_1nepm 1$ and $n_2nepm 1$.
Then $n_1notin (n)$, in fact if it were $n_1in(n)$, $exists kinmathbb{Z}$ such that $n_1=kn$, therefore $n=(kn)n_2ne n$, absurd. So, $n_1notin (n)$ and $n_2notin (n)$. However $n_1n_2=nin (n)$.
Summing up if $n$ is not prime, then $$n_1n_2in(n)Rightarrow n_1notin (n)quadtext{and}quad n_2notin (n),$$
therefore $(n)$ is not prime ideal, absurd.
Second proof
If we suppose to know that every ideal $I$ of $mathbb{Z}$ is of the form $I=(n)$ where $n$ is the least integer not negative which belongs to $I$, then when we suppose that $n$ is not prime, then $n=n_1n_2$, where $1<n_1,n_2<n$. At this point if it were $n_1in (n)$ $exists kinmathbb{Z}_+$ such that $n_1=kn$, then $n_1>n$ absurd. Then, also in this case we have that $$n_1n_2in(n)Rightarrow n_1notin (n)quadtext{and}quad n_2notin (n),$$
therefore $(n)$ is not prime ideal, absurd.
In the same hypothesis we could conclude by saying that: $n=n_1n_2in (n)$, since $(n)$ is prime ideal then $n_1in (n)$ or $n_2in (n)$, but if were $n_1in (n)$, then $exists kinmathbb{Z}_+$ such that $n_1=kn$ therefore $n_1>n$, therefore we would contradict the condition $1<n_1,n_2<n$.
It's correct?
Thanks!
proof-verification proof-writing proof-explanation
proof-verification proof-writing proof-explanation
asked Dec 3 '18 at 9:57
Jack J.Jack J.
4701419
4701419
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
We prove that for $a neq 0$ the following statements are equivalent:
$(a)$ is a prime ideal $iff$ $a$ is prime in $mathbb{Z}$
$"Rightarrow"$ If $a$ is not prime, then $a = bc$ where $b,c notin {-1,1}$. Then $bc in (a)$, and because it is a prime ideal we have $b in (a)$ or $c in (a)$. Assume the latter, that is $c = ka$ for some $k in mathbb{Z}$. Then $a = bc = abk$ meaning that $bk = 1$, thus $b$ is invertible. Contradiction.
$"Leftarrow"$ Assume $a$ is prime. If $bc in (a)$, then $a|(bc)$ and then $a|b$ or $a|c$ by elementary number theory. I.e. $b in (a)$ or $c in (a)$ and we conclude that $(a)$ is prime. $square$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks for your ansewer, but at this level of the theory, in general, irreducible elements are not introduced, therefore in the proofs I have to use instruments that I possess at the moment.
$endgroup$
– Jack J.
Dec 3 '18 at 11:26
1
$begingroup$
I edited my answer. Let me know if something is unclear.
$endgroup$
– Math_QED
Dec 3 '18 at 12:32
add a comment |
$begingroup$
All ideals of $mathbb{Z}$ are prime and we know, since $mathbb{Z}$ is a P.I.D. (Principal Ideal Domain), that its ideals are all of the form $nmathbb{Z}=(n)$, $ngeq0$. This is regardless of the primality of $n$.
It is not hard in $mathbb{Z}$ to see that $pmathbb{Z}=(p)$ a prime ideal ideal if and only if $p$ is prime if and only if $pmathbb{Z}=(p)$ is a maximal ideal.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Not all $mathbb{Z}$ ideals are prime. For example, $I=(4)$ is not prime.
$endgroup$
– Jack J.
Dec 3 '18 at 11:32
1
$begingroup$
@JackJ You are correct, however, I never said all $mathbb{Z}$-ideals are prime. I said all $mathbb{Z}$-ideals are principal and that they are maximal if and only if they are prime. I forgot to add, though, that each ideal $pmathbb{Z}$ is indeed prime.
$endgroup$
– Jean-Pierre de Villiers
Dec 3 '18 at 12:16
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
We prove that for $a neq 0$ the following statements are equivalent:
$(a)$ is a prime ideal $iff$ $a$ is prime in $mathbb{Z}$
$"Rightarrow"$ If $a$ is not prime, then $a = bc$ where $b,c notin {-1,1}$. Then $bc in (a)$, and because it is a prime ideal we have $b in (a)$ or $c in (a)$. Assume the latter, that is $c = ka$ for some $k in mathbb{Z}$. Then $a = bc = abk$ meaning that $bk = 1$, thus $b$ is invertible. Contradiction.
$"Leftarrow"$ Assume $a$ is prime. If $bc in (a)$, then $a|(bc)$ and then $a|b$ or $a|c$ by elementary number theory. I.e. $b in (a)$ or $c in (a)$ and we conclude that $(a)$ is prime. $square$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks for your ansewer, but at this level of the theory, in general, irreducible elements are not introduced, therefore in the proofs I have to use instruments that I possess at the moment.
$endgroup$
– Jack J.
Dec 3 '18 at 11:26
1
$begingroup$
I edited my answer. Let me know if something is unclear.
$endgroup$
– Math_QED
Dec 3 '18 at 12:32
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We prove that for $a neq 0$ the following statements are equivalent:
$(a)$ is a prime ideal $iff$ $a$ is prime in $mathbb{Z}$
$"Rightarrow"$ If $a$ is not prime, then $a = bc$ where $b,c notin {-1,1}$. Then $bc in (a)$, and because it is a prime ideal we have $b in (a)$ or $c in (a)$. Assume the latter, that is $c = ka$ for some $k in mathbb{Z}$. Then $a = bc = abk$ meaning that $bk = 1$, thus $b$ is invertible. Contradiction.
$"Leftarrow"$ Assume $a$ is prime. If $bc in (a)$, then $a|(bc)$ and then $a|b$ or $a|c$ by elementary number theory. I.e. $b in (a)$ or $c in (a)$ and we conclude that $(a)$ is prime. $square$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks for your ansewer, but at this level of the theory, in general, irreducible elements are not introduced, therefore in the proofs I have to use instruments that I possess at the moment.
$endgroup$
– Jack J.
Dec 3 '18 at 11:26
1
$begingroup$
I edited my answer. Let me know if something is unclear.
$endgroup$
– Math_QED
Dec 3 '18 at 12:32
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We prove that for $a neq 0$ the following statements are equivalent:
$(a)$ is a prime ideal $iff$ $a$ is prime in $mathbb{Z}$
$"Rightarrow"$ If $a$ is not prime, then $a = bc$ where $b,c notin {-1,1}$. Then $bc in (a)$, and because it is a prime ideal we have $b in (a)$ or $c in (a)$. Assume the latter, that is $c = ka$ for some $k in mathbb{Z}$. Then $a = bc = abk$ meaning that $bk = 1$, thus $b$ is invertible. Contradiction.
$"Leftarrow"$ Assume $a$ is prime. If $bc in (a)$, then $a|(bc)$ and then $a|b$ or $a|c$ by elementary number theory. I.e. $b in (a)$ or $c in (a)$ and we conclude that $(a)$ is prime. $square$
$endgroup$
We prove that for $a neq 0$ the following statements are equivalent:
$(a)$ is a prime ideal $iff$ $a$ is prime in $mathbb{Z}$
$"Rightarrow"$ If $a$ is not prime, then $a = bc$ where $b,c notin {-1,1}$. Then $bc in (a)$, and because it is a prime ideal we have $b in (a)$ or $c in (a)$. Assume the latter, that is $c = ka$ for some $k in mathbb{Z}$. Then $a = bc = abk$ meaning that $bk = 1$, thus $b$ is invertible. Contradiction.
$"Leftarrow"$ Assume $a$ is prime. If $bc in (a)$, then $a|(bc)$ and then $a|b$ or $a|c$ by elementary number theory. I.e. $b in (a)$ or $c in (a)$ and we conclude that $(a)$ is prime. $square$
edited Dec 3 '18 at 12:31
answered Dec 3 '18 at 11:21
Math_QEDMath_QED
7,39431450
7,39431450
$begingroup$
Thanks for your ansewer, but at this level of the theory, in general, irreducible elements are not introduced, therefore in the proofs I have to use instruments that I possess at the moment.
$endgroup$
– Jack J.
Dec 3 '18 at 11:26
1
$begingroup$
I edited my answer. Let me know if something is unclear.
$endgroup$
– Math_QED
Dec 3 '18 at 12:32
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thanks for your ansewer, but at this level of the theory, in general, irreducible elements are not introduced, therefore in the proofs I have to use instruments that I possess at the moment.
$endgroup$
– Jack J.
Dec 3 '18 at 11:26
1
$begingroup$
I edited my answer. Let me know if something is unclear.
$endgroup$
– Math_QED
Dec 3 '18 at 12:32
$begingroup$
Thanks for your ansewer, but at this level of the theory, in general, irreducible elements are not introduced, therefore in the proofs I have to use instruments that I possess at the moment.
$endgroup$
– Jack J.
Dec 3 '18 at 11:26
$begingroup$
Thanks for your ansewer, but at this level of the theory, in general, irreducible elements are not introduced, therefore in the proofs I have to use instruments that I possess at the moment.
$endgroup$
– Jack J.
Dec 3 '18 at 11:26
1
1
$begingroup$
I edited my answer. Let me know if something is unclear.
$endgroup$
– Math_QED
Dec 3 '18 at 12:32
$begingroup$
I edited my answer. Let me know if something is unclear.
$endgroup$
– Math_QED
Dec 3 '18 at 12:32
add a comment |
$begingroup$
All ideals of $mathbb{Z}$ are prime and we know, since $mathbb{Z}$ is a P.I.D. (Principal Ideal Domain), that its ideals are all of the form $nmathbb{Z}=(n)$, $ngeq0$. This is regardless of the primality of $n$.
It is not hard in $mathbb{Z}$ to see that $pmathbb{Z}=(p)$ a prime ideal ideal if and only if $p$ is prime if and only if $pmathbb{Z}=(p)$ is a maximal ideal.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Not all $mathbb{Z}$ ideals are prime. For example, $I=(4)$ is not prime.
$endgroup$
– Jack J.
Dec 3 '18 at 11:32
1
$begingroup$
@JackJ You are correct, however, I never said all $mathbb{Z}$-ideals are prime. I said all $mathbb{Z}$-ideals are principal and that they are maximal if and only if they are prime. I forgot to add, though, that each ideal $pmathbb{Z}$ is indeed prime.
$endgroup$
– Jean-Pierre de Villiers
Dec 3 '18 at 12:16
add a comment |
$begingroup$
All ideals of $mathbb{Z}$ are prime and we know, since $mathbb{Z}$ is a P.I.D. (Principal Ideal Domain), that its ideals are all of the form $nmathbb{Z}=(n)$, $ngeq0$. This is regardless of the primality of $n$.
It is not hard in $mathbb{Z}$ to see that $pmathbb{Z}=(p)$ a prime ideal ideal if and only if $p$ is prime if and only if $pmathbb{Z}=(p)$ is a maximal ideal.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Not all $mathbb{Z}$ ideals are prime. For example, $I=(4)$ is not prime.
$endgroup$
– Jack J.
Dec 3 '18 at 11:32
1
$begingroup$
@JackJ You are correct, however, I never said all $mathbb{Z}$-ideals are prime. I said all $mathbb{Z}$-ideals are principal and that they are maximal if and only if they are prime. I forgot to add, though, that each ideal $pmathbb{Z}$ is indeed prime.
$endgroup$
– Jean-Pierre de Villiers
Dec 3 '18 at 12:16
add a comment |
$begingroup$
All ideals of $mathbb{Z}$ are prime and we know, since $mathbb{Z}$ is a P.I.D. (Principal Ideal Domain), that its ideals are all of the form $nmathbb{Z}=(n)$, $ngeq0$. This is regardless of the primality of $n$.
It is not hard in $mathbb{Z}$ to see that $pmathbb{Z}=(p)$ a prime ideal ideal if and only if $p$ is prime if and only if $pmathbb{Z}=(p)$ is a maximal ideal.
$endgroup$
All ideals of $mathbb{Z}$ are prime and we know, since $mathbb{Z}$ is a P.I.D. (Principal Ideal Domain), that its ideals are all of the form $nmathbb{Z}=(n)$, $ngeq0$. This is regardless of the primality of $n$.
It is not hard in $mathbb{Z}$ to see that $pmathbb{Z}=(p)$ a prime ideal ideal if and only if $p$ is prime if and only if $pmathbb{Z}=(p)$ is a maximal ideal.
edited Dec 3 '18 at 12:20
answered Dec 3 '18 at 11:00
Jean-Pierre de VilliersJean-Pierre de Villiers
415
415
1
$begingroup$
Not all $mathbb{Z}$ ideals are prime. For example, $I=(4)$ is not prime.
$endgroup$
– Jack J.
Dec 3 '18 at 11:32
1
$begingroup$
@JackJ You are correct, however, I never said all $mathbb{Z}$-ideals are prime. I said all $mathbb{Z}$-ideals are principal and that they are maximal if and only if they are prime. I forgot to add, though, that each ideal $pmathbb{Z}$ is indeed prime.
$endgroup$
– Jean-Pierre de Villiers
Dec 3 '18 at 12:16
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Not all $mathbb{Z}$ ideals are prime. For example, $I=(4)$ is not prime.
$endgroup$
– Jack J.
Dec 3 '18 at 11:32
1
$begingroup$
@JackJ You are correct, however, I never said all $mathbb{Z}$-ideals are prime. I said all $mathbb{Z}$-ideals are principal and that they are maximal if and only if they are prime. I forgot to add, though, that each ideal $pmathbb{Z}$ is indeed prime.
$endgroup$
– Jean-Pierre de Villiers
Dec 3 '18 at 12:16
1
1
$begingroup$
Not all $mathbb{Z}$ ideals are prime. For example, $I=(4)$ is not prime.
$endgroup$
– Jack J.
Dec 3 '18 at 11:32
$begingroup$
Not all $mathbb{Z}$ ideals are prime. For example, $I=(4)$ is not prime.
$endgroup$
– Jack J.
Dec 3 '18 at 11:32
1
1
$begingroup$
@JackJ You are correct, however, I never said all $mathbb{Z}$-ideals are prime. I said all $mathbb{Z}$-ideals are principal and that they are maximal if and only if they are prime. I forgot to add, though, that each ideal $pmathbb{Z}$ is indeed prime.
$endgroup$
– Jean-Pierre de Villiers
Dec 3 '18 at 12:16
$begingroup$
@JackJ You are correct, however, I never said all $mathbb{Z}$-ideals are prime. I said all $mathbb{Z}$-ideals are principal and that they are maximal if and only if they are prime. I forgot to add, though, that each ideal $pmathbb{Z}$ is indeed prime.
$endgroup$
– Jean-Pierre de Villiers
Dec 3 '18 at 12:16
add a comment |
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