$ limsup_{nrightarrowinfty}int_{Omega_varepsilon} f_nleqint_{Omega_varepsilon} f $ implies that of $Omega$?












0












$begingroup$


Let $f_n,fin L^1(Omega)$, all non-negative. Let $Omega_varepsilon$ be an increasing set sequence that $bigcup_{varepsilon>0}Omega_varepsilon=Omega$. If for each $varepsilon$,



$
limsup_{nrightarrowinfty}int_{Omega_varepsilon} f_nleqint_{Omega_varepsilon} f
$



Do we have
$
limsup_{nrightarrowinfty}int_{Omega} f_nleqint_{Omega} f
?$










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  • $begingroup$
    What kind of assumptions do you have on $Omega$? Is it a bounded open set?
    $endgroup$
    – BigbearZzz
    Dec 18 '18 at 9:36


















0












$begingroup$


Let $f_n,fin L^1(Omega)$, all non-negative. Let $Omega_varepsilon$ be an increasing set sequence that $bigcup_{varepsilon>0}Omega_varepsilon=Omega$. If for each $varepsilon$,



$
limsup_{nrightarrowinfty}int_{Omega_varepsilon} f_nleqint_{Omega_varepsilon} f
$



Do we have
$
limsup_{nrightarrowinfty}int_{Omega} f_nleqint_{Omega} f
?$










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What kind of assumptions do you have on $Omega$? Is it a bounded open set?
    $endgroup$
    – BigbearZzz
    Dec 18 '18 at 9:36
















0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let $f_n,fin L^1(Omega)$, all non-negative. Let $Omega_varepsilon$ be an increasing set sequence that $bigcup_{varepsilon>0}Omega_varepsilon=Omega$. If for each $varepsilon$,



$
limsup_{nrightarrowinfty}int_{Omega_varepsilon} f_nleqint_{Omega_varepsilon} f
$



Do we have
$
limsup_{nrightarrowinfty}int_{Omega} f_nleqint_{Omega} f
?$










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Let $f_n,fin L^1(Omega)$, all non-negative. Let $Omega_varepsilon$ be an increasing set sequence that $bigcup_{varepsilon>0}Omega_varepsilon=Omega$. If for each $varepsilon$,



$
limsup_{nrightarrowinfty}int_{Omega_varepsilon} f_nleqint_{Omega_varepsilon} f
$



Do we have
$
limsup_{nrightarrowinfty}int_{Omega} f_nleqint_{Omega} f
?$







real-analysis






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asked Dec 18 '18 at 9:29









P.RP.R

184




184












  • $begingroup$
    What kind of assumptions do you have on $Omega$? Is it a bounded open set?
    $endgroup$
    – BigbearZzz
    Dec 18 '18 at 9:36




















  • $begingroup$
    What kind of assumptions do you have on $Omega$? Is it a bounded open set?
    $endgroup$
    – BigbearZzz
    Dec 18 '18 at 9:36


















$begingroup$
What kind of assumptions do you have on $Omega$? Is it a bounded open set?
$endgroup$
– BigbearZzz
Dec 18 '18 at 9:36






$begingroup$
What kind of assumptions do you have on $Omega$? Is it a bounded open set?
$endgroup$
– BigbearZzz
Dec 18 '18 at 9:36












1 Answer
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No. Let $Omega =(0,1)$ with Lebesgue measure and $Omega_{epsilon} =(epsilon ,1)$. Let $f_n=nI_{(0,frac 1 n)}$, $f=0$. For each $epsilon$ we have $int_{Omega_{epsilon}} f_n=0$ as soon as $frac 1 n <epsilon$ but $int_{Omega} f_n=1$ for all $n$.






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    1 Answer
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    $begingroup$

    No. Let $Omega =(0,1)$ with Lebesgue measure and $Omega_{epsilon} =(epsilon ,1)$. Let $f_n=nI_{(0,frac 1 n)}$, $f=0$. For each $epsilon$ we have $int_{Omega_{epsilon}} f_n=0$ as soon as $frac 1 n <epsilon$ but $int_{Omega} f_n=1$ for all $n$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      No. Let $Omega =(0,1)$ with Lebesgue measure and $Omega_{epsilon} =(epsilon ,1)$. Let $f_n=nI_{(0,frac 1 n)}$, $f=0$. For each $epsilon$ we have $int_{Omega_{epsilon}} f_n=0$ as soon as $frac 1 n <epsilon$ but $int_{Omega} f_n=1$ for all $n$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        No. Let $Omega =(0,1)$ with Lebesgue measure and $Omega_{epsilon} =(epsilon ,1)$. Let $f_n=nI_{(0,frac 1 n)}$, $f=0$. For each $epsilon$ we have $int_{Omega_{epsilon}} f_n=0$ as soon as $frac 1 n <epsilon$ but $int_{Omega} f_n=1$ for all $n$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        No. Let $Omega =(0,1)$ with Lebesgue measure and $Omega_{epsilon} =(epsilon ,1)$. Let $f_n=nI_{(0,frac 1 n)}$, $f=0$. For each $epsilon$ we have $int_{Omega_{epsilon}} f_n=0$ as soon as $frac 1 n <epsilon$ but $int_{Omega} f_n=1$ for all $n$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 18 '18 at 9:37









        Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

        60k42161




        60k42161






























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