Why is the lagrange dual function concave?












3












$begingroup$


In a book I'm reading (Convex Optimization by Boyd and Vandenberghe) it says
enter image description here



I'm struggling to understand the last sentence. Why can one conclude concavity from having a pointwise infimum of a family of affine functions?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    3












    $begingroup$


    In a book I'm reading (Convex Optimization by Boyd and Vandenberghe) it says
    enter image description here



    I'm struggling to understand the last sentence. Why can one conclude concavity from having a pointwise infimum of a family of affine functions?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3


      3



      $begingroup$


      In a book I'm reading (Convex Optimization by Boyd and Vandenberghe) it says
      enter image description here



      I'm struggling to understand the last sentence. Why can one conclude concavity from having a pointwise infimum of a family of affine functions?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      In a book I'm reading (Convex Optimization by Boyd and Vandenberghe) it says
      enter image description here



      I'm struggling to understand the last sentence. Why can one conclude concavity from having a pointwise infimum of a family of affine functions?







      lagrange-multiplier supremum-and-infimum






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Aug 11 '18 at 7:52









      mcsanchez

      134




      134










      asked Jul 26 '15 at 11:55









      user2820379user2820379

      15818




      15818






















          4 Answers
          4






          active

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          4












          $begingroup$

          The Lagrange function $L(x,lambda,mu)$ is affine in $lambda$ and $mu$, thus, concave, and the infimum of concave functions is concave. (Equivalently to the supremum of convex is convex.)






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            What does affine in $lambda$ and $mu$ mean?
            $endgroup$
            – user2820379
            Jul 26 '15 at 12:27








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @user2820379 Affine function is simply a linear function plus a constant (with respect to $lambda$ and $mu$ for any fixed $x$).
            $endgroup$
            – A.Γ.
            Jul 26 '15 at 12:30





















          1












          $begingroup$

          The book referenced is Convex Optimization by Boyd and Vandenberghe. To better see the "pointwise infimum", consider a slight change/abuse of notation: $L_x(xi) = L(x, lambda, nu)$ where $xi = (lambda, nu)$. For a fixed $x$, $L_x(xi)$ is affine in $xi$ so ${L_x(xi) ,:, x in mathcal{D}}$ is a family of affine functions and its pointwise infimum is
          $$g(xi) = inf_x ,{L_x(xi),:,xinmathcal{D}}$$
          Now we can use @A.Γ.'s pointer to show that $g$ is concave by showing the epigraph of $-g$ is convex. For a given $xi$, we have $g(xi) le L_x(xi)$ for any $L_x$ from the family so $(xi, -g(xi))$ is always "above" $(xi, -L_x(xi)$) hence $rm{epi}(-g) in bigcap_x rm{epi}(L_x)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            0












            $begingroup$

            Concavity of the dual function is very much a non-intuitive property.



            One way to show it is to use the fact that a function is convex if and only if its epigraph is a convex set. The epigraph of a function $f(vec x)$ is the set of points 'above' that function:
            $$left{(vec x,y) mid y geq f(vec x)right}$$



            For the dual function we have the pointwise infimum of a family of affine functions:
            $$D(vec lambda, vec nu) = inf_{vec x} mathcal{L}(vec x,vec lambda, vec nu) = inf_{vec x} A(vec x) begin{bmatrix} vec lambda \ vec nu end{bmatrix} + vec b(vec x)$$



            That is, we can re-write the Lagrangian to have the form $Avec lambda + vec b$ for some matrix $A$ and vector $vec b$ that both depend on $vec x$.



            Loosely speaking, pointwise means we can pick different values for $vec x$ depending on the value of $vec lambda$.



            The epigraph of $mathcal{L}$ is for any given value of $vec x$ is going to be a convex set, as once $vec x$ is fixed the function is affine, and affine functions are both convex and concave. If we flip this notion, we can look at negative epigraphs, or the set of points 'below' the function. This negative epigraph of $D$ is going to be the intersection of the negative eopigraphs of all possible functions formed by fixing all possible values of $vec x$. The intersection of convex sets is a convex set, so this negative epigraph is a convex set. The negative epigraph of a function is a convex set if and only if the function is concave, so the dual function $D$ must be concave!



            It helps a bit to draw this out on a sheet of paper.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$





















              0












              $begingroup$

              I think it's easier to visualize the maximization case, in which the sup is convex. Say you change a multiplier in the direction that relaxes its constraint, then the lagrangian, being affine on the multiplier, is at least linearly better respect to the change and there is probably room for improvement above linearity because of the relaxation, hence you get convexity. Indeed, the constraint evaluated at the current optimum is a subgradient of the lagrangian. In terms of the epigraph, after changing the multiplier you will stay at least in the same affine member of the family, but you may as well scale up to the next one.






              share|cite|improve this answer











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                4 Answers
                4






                active

                oldest

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                4 Answers
                4






                active

                oldest

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                active

                oldest

                votes






                active

                oldest

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                4












                $begingroup$

                The Lagrange function $L(x,lambda,mu)$ is affine in $lambda$ and $mu$, thus, concave, and the infimum of concave functions is concave. (Equivalently to the supremum of convex is convex.)






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$













                • $begingroup$
                  What does affine in $lambda$ and $mu$ mean?
                  $endgroup$
                  – user2820379
                  Jul 26 '15 at 12:27








                • 1




                  $begingroup$
                  @user2820379 Affine function is simply a linear function plus a constant (with respect to $lambda$ and $mu$ for any fixed $x$).
                  $endgroup$
                  – A.Γ.
                  Jul 26 '15 at 12:30


















                4












                $begingroup$

                The Lagrange function $L(x,lambda,mu)$ is affine in $lambda$ and $mu$, thus, concave, and the infimum of concave functions is concave. (Equivalently to the supremum of convex is convex.)






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$













                • $begingroup$
                  What does affine in $lambda$ and $mu$ mean?
                  $endgroup$
                  – user2820379
                  Jul 26 '15 at 12:27








                • 1




                  $begingroup$
                  @user2820379 Affine function is simply a linear function plus a constant (with respect to $lambda$ and $mu$ for any fixed $x$).
                  $endgroup$
                  – A.Γ.
                  Jul 26 '15 at 12:30
















                4












                4








                4





                $begingroup$

                The Lagrange function $L(x,lambda,mu)$ is affine in $lambda$ and $mu$, thus, concave, and the infimum of concave functions is concave. (Equivalently to the supremum of convex is convex.)






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$



                The Lagrange function $L(x,lambda,mu)$ is affine in $lambda$ and $mu$, thus, concave, and the infimum of concave functions is concave. (Equivalently to the supremum of convex is convex.)







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:20









                Community

                1




                1










                answered Jul 26 '15 at 12:08









                A.Γ.A.Γ.

                22.7k32656




                22.7k32656












                • $begingroup$
                  What does affine in $lambda$ and $mu$ mean?
                  $endgroup$
                  – user2820379
                  Jul 26 '15 at 12:27








                • 1




                  $begingroup$
                  @user2820379 Affine function is simply a linear function plus a constant (with respect to $lambda$ and $mu$ for any fixed $x$).
                  $endgroup$
                  – A.Γ.
                  Jul 26 '15 at 12:30




















                • $begingroup$
                  What does affine in $lambda$ and $mu$ mean?
                  $endgroup$
                  – user2820379
                  Jul 26 '15 at 12:27








                • 1




                  $begingroup$
                  @user2820379 Affine function is simply a linear function plus a constant (with respect to $lambda$ and $mu$ for any fixed $x$).
                  $endgroup$
                  – A.Γ.
                  Jul 26 '15 at 12:30


















                $begingroup$
                What does affine in $lambda$ and $mu$ mean?
                $endgroup$
                – user2820379
                Jul 26 '15 at 12:27






                $begingroup$
                What does affine in $lambda$ and $mu$ mean?
                $endgroup$
                – user2820379
                Jul 26 '15 at 12:27






                1




                1




                $begingroup$
                @user2820379 Affine function is simply a linear function plus a constant (with respect to $lambda$ and $mu$ for any fixed $x$).
                $endgroup$
                – A.Γ.
                Jul 26 '15 at 12:30






                $begingroup$
                @user2820379 Affine function is simply a linear function plus a constant (with respect to $lambda$ and $mu$ for any fixed $x$).
                $endgroup$
                – A.Γ.
                Jul 26 '15 at 12:30













                1












                $begingroup$

                The book referenced is Convex Optimization by Boyd and Vandenberghe. To better see the "pointwise infimum", consider a slight change/abuse of notation: $L_x(xi) = L(x, lambda, nu)$ where $xi = (lambda, nu)$. For a fixed $x$, $L_x(xi)$ is affine in $xi$ so ${L_x(xi) ,:, x in mathcal{D}}$ is a family of affine functions and its pointwise infimum is
                $$g(xi) = inf_x ,{L_x(xi),:,xinmathcal{D}}$$
                Now we can use @A.Γ.'s pointer to show that $g$ is concave by showing the epigraph of $-g$ is convex. For a given $xi$, we have $g(xi) le L_x(xi)$ for any $L_x$ from the family so $(xi, -g(xi))$ is always "above" $(xi, -L_x(xi)$) hence $rm{epi}(-g) in bigcap_x rm{epi}(L_x)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$


















                  1












                  $begingroup$

                  The book referenced is Convex Optimization by Boyd and Vandenberghe. To better see the "pointwise infimum", consider a slight change/abuse of notation: $L_x(xi) = L(x, lambda, nu)$ where $xi = (lambda, nu)$. For a fixed $x$, $L_x(xi)$ is affine in $xi$ so ${L_x(xi) ,:, x in mathcal{D}}$ is a family of affine functions and its pointwise infimum is
                  $$g(xi) = inf_x ,{L_x(xi),:,xinmathcal{D}}$$
                  Now we can use @A.Γ.'s pointer to show that $g$ is concave by showing the epigraph of $-g$ is convex. For a given $xi$, we have $g(xi) le L_x(xi)$ for any $L_x$ from the family so $(xi, -g(xi))$ is always "above" $(xi, -L_x(xi)$) hence $rm{epi}(-g) in bigcap_x rm{epi}(L_x)$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$
















                    1












                    1








                    1





                    $begingroup$

                    The book referenced is Convex Optimization by Boyd and Vandenberghe. To better see the "pointwise infimum", consider a slight change/abuse of notation: $L_x(xi) = L(x, lambda, nu)$ where $xi = (lambda, nu)$. For a fixed $x$, $L_x(xi)$ is affine in $xi$ so ${L_x(xi) ,:, x in mathcal{D}}$ is a family of affine functions and its pointwise infimum is
                    $$g(xi) = inf_x ,{L_x(xi),:,xinmathcal{D}}$$
                    Now we can use @A.Γ.'s pointer to show that $g$ is concave by showing the epigraph of $-g$ is convex. For a given $xi$, we have $g(xi) le L_x(xi)$ for any $L_x$ from the family so $(xi, -g(xi))$ is always "above" $(xi, -L_x(xi)$) hence $rm{epi}(-g) in bigcap_x rm{epi}(L_x)$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    The book referenced is Convex Optimization by Boyd and Vandenberghe. To better see the "pointwise infimum", consider a slight change/abuse of notation: $L_x(xi) = L(x, lambda, nu)$ where $xi = (lambda, nu)$. For a fixed $x$, $L_x(xi)$ is affine in $xi$ so ${L_x(xi) ,:, x in mathcal{D}}$ is a family of affine functions and its pointwise infimum is
                    $$g(xi) = inf_x ,{L_x(xi),:,xinmathcal{D}}$$
                    Now we can use @A.Γ.'s pointer to show that $g$ is concave by showing the epigraph of $-g$ is convex. For a given $xi$, we have $g(xi) le L_x(xi)$ for any $L_x$ from the family so $(xi, -g(xi))$ is always "above" $(xi, -L_x(xi)$) hence $rm{epi}(-g) in bigcap_x rm{epi}(L_x)$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Aug 11 '18 at 7:36









                    mcsanchezmcsanchez

                    134




                    134























                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Concavity of the dual function is very much a non-intuitive property.



                        One way to show it is to use the fact that a function is convex if and only if its epigraph is a convex set. The epigraph of a function $f(vec x)$ is the set of points 'above' that function:
                        $$left{(vec x,y) mid y geq f(vec x)right}$$



                        For the dual function we have the pointwise infimum of a family of affine functions:
                        $$D(vec lambda, vec nu) = inf_{vec x} mathcal{L}(vec x,vec lambda, vec nu) = inf_{vec x} A(vec x) begin{bmatrix} vec lambda \ vec nu end{bmatrix} + vec b(vec x)$$



                        That is, we can re-write the Lagrangian to have the form $Avec lambda + vec b$ for some matrix $A$ and vector $vec b$ that both depend on $vec x$.



                        Loosely speaking, pointwise means we can pick different values for $vec x$ depending on the value of $vec lambda$.



                        The epigraph of $mathcal{L}$ is for any given value of $vec x$ is going to be a convex set, as once $vec x$ is fixed the function is affine, and affine functions are both convex and concave. If we flip this notion, we can look at negative epigraphs, or the set of points 'below' the function. This negative epigraph of $D$ is going to be the intersection of the negative eopigraphs of all possible functions formed by fixing all possible values of $vec x$. The intersection of convex sets is a convex set, so this negative epigraph is a convex set. The negative epigraph of a function is a convex set if and only if the function is concave, so the dual function $D$ must be concave!



                        It helps a bit to draw this out on a sheet of paper.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$


















                          0












                          $begingroup$

                          Concavity of the dual function is very much a non-intuitive property.



                          One way to show it is to use the fact that a function is convex if and only if its epigraph is a convex set. The epigraph of a function $f(vec x)$ is the set of points 'above' that function:
                          $$left{(vec x,y) mid y geq f(vec x)right}$$



                          For the dual function we have the pointwise infimum of a family of affine functions:
                          $$D(vec lambda, vec nu) = inf_{vec x} mathcal{L}(vec x,vec lambda, vec nu) = inf_{vec x} A(vec x) begin{bmatrix} vec lambda \ vec nu end{bmatrix} + vec b(vec x)$$



                          That is, we can re-write the Lagrangian to have the form $Avec lambda + vec b$ for some matrix $A$ and vector $vec b$ that both depend on $vec x$.



                          Loosely speaking, pointwise means we can pick different values for $vec x$ depending on the value of $vec lambda$.



                          The epigraph of $mathcal{L}$ is for any given value of $vec x$ is going to be a convex set, as once $vec x$ is fixed the function is affine, and affine functions are both convex and concave. If we flip this notion, we can look at negative epigraphs, or the set of points 'below' the function. This negative epigraph of $D$ is going to be the intersection of the negative eopigraphs of all possible functions formed by fixing all possible values of $vec x$. The intersection of convex sets is a convex set, so this negative epigraph is a convex set. The negative epigraph of a function is a convex set if and only if the function is concave, so the dual function $D$ must be concave!



                          It helps a bit to draw this out on a sheet of paper.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$
















                            0












                            0








                            0





                            $begingroup$

                            Concavity of the dual function is very much a non-intuitive property.



                            One way to show it is to use the fact that a function is convex if and only if its epigraph is a convex set. The epigraph of a function $f(vec x)$ is the set of points 'above' that function:
                            $$left{(vec x,y) mid y geq f(vec x)right}$$



                            For the dual function we have the pointwise infimum of a family of affine functions:
                            $$D(vec lambda, vec nu) = inf_{vec x} mathcal{L}(vec x,vec lambda, vec nu) = inf_{vec x} A(vec x) begin{bmatrix} vec lambda \ vec nu end{bmatrix} + vec b(vec x)$$



                            That is, we can re-write the Lagrangian to have the form $Avec lambda + vec b$ for some matrix $A$ and vector $vec b$ that both depend on $vec x$.



                            Loosely speaking, pointwise means we can pick different values for $vec x$ depending on the value of $vec lambda$.



                            The epigraph of $mathcal{L}$ is for any given value of $vec x$ is going to be a convex set, as once $vec x$ is fixed the function is affine, and affine functions are both convex and concave. If we flip this notion, we can look at negative epigraphs, or the set of points 'below' the function. This negative epigraph of $D$ is going to be the intersection of the negative eopigraphs of all possible functions formed by fixing all possible values of $vec x$. The intersection of convex sets is a convex set, so this negative epigraph is a convex set. The negative epigraph of a function is a convex set if and only if the function is concave, so the dual function $D$ must be concave!



                            It helps a bit to draw this out on a sheet of paper.






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$



                            Concavity of the dual function is very much a non-intuitive property.



                            One way to show it is to use the fact that a function is convex if and only if its epigraph is a convex set. The epigraph of a function $f(vec x)$ is the set of points 'above' that function:
                            $$left{(vec x,y) mid y geq f(vec x)right}$$



                            For the dual function we have the pointwise infimum of a family of affine functions:
                            $$D(vec lambda, vec nu) = inf_{vec x} mathcal{L}(vec x,vec lambda, vec nu) = inf_{vec x} A(vec x) begin{bmatrix} vec lambda \ vec nu end{bmatrix} + vec b(vec x)$$



                            That is, we can re-write the Lagrangian to have the form $Avec lambda + vec b$ for some matrix $A$ and vector $vec b$ that both depend on $vec x$.



                            Loosely speaking, pointwise means we can pick different values for $vec x$ depending on the value of $vec lambda$.



                            The epigraph of $mathcal{L}$ is for any given value of $vec x$ is going to be a convex set, as once $vec x$ is fixed the function is affine, and affine functions are both convex and concave. If we flip this notion, we can look at negative epigraphs, or the set of points 'below' the function. This negative epigraph of $D$ is going to be the intersection of the negative eopigraphs of all possible functions formed by fixing all possible values of $vec x$. The intersection of convex sets is a convex set, so this negative epigraph is a convex set. The negative epigraph of a function is a convex set if and only if the function is concave, so the dual function $D$ must be concave!



                            It helps a bit to draw this out on a sheet of paper.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Apr 21 '18 at 22:35









                            MageekMageek

                            1115




                            1115























                                0












                                $begingroup$

                                I think it's easier to visualize the maximization case, in which the sup is convex. Say you change a multiplier in the direction that relaxes its constraint, then the lagrangian, being affine on the multiplier, is at least linearly better respect to the change and there is probably room for improvement above linearity because of the relaxation, hence you get convexity. Indeed, the constraint evaluated at the current optimum is a subgradient of the lagrangian. In terms of the epigraph, after changing the multiplier you will stay at least in the same affine member of the family, but you may as well scale up to the next one.






                                share|cite|improve this answer











                                $endgroup$


















                                  0












                                  $begingroup$

                                  I think it's easier to visualize the maximization case, in which the sup is convex. Say you change a multiplier in the direction that relaxes its constraint, then the lagrangian, being affine on the multiplier, is at least linearly better respect to the change and there is probably room for improvement above linearity because of the relaxation, hence you get convexity. Indeed, the constraint evaluated at the current optimum is a subgradient of the lagrangian. In terms of the epigraph, after changing the multiplier you will stay at least in the same affine member of the family, but you may as well scale up to the next one.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer











                                  $endgroup$
















                                    0












                                    0








                                    0





                                    $begingroup$

                                    I think it's easier to visualize the maximization case, in which the sup is convex. Say you change a multiplier in the direction that relaxes its constraint, then the lagrangian, being affine on the multiplier, is at least linearly better respect to the change and there is probably room for improvement above linearity because of the relaxation, hence you get convexity. Indeed, the constraint evaluated at the current optimum is a subgradient of the lagrangian. In terms of the epigraph, after changing the multiplier you will stay at least in the same affine member of the family, but you may as well scale up to the next one.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer











                                    $endgroup$



                                    I think it's easier to visualize the maximization case, in which the sup is convex. Say you change a multiplier in the direction that relaxes its constraint, then the lagrangian, being affine on the multiplier, is at least linearly better respect to the change and there is probably room for improvement above linearity because of the relaxation, hence you get convexity. Indeed, the constraint evaluated at the current optimum is a subgradient of the lagrangian. In terms of the epigraph, after changing the multiplier you will stay at least in the same affine member of the family, but you may as well scale up to the next one.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer














                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer








                                    edited Dec 18 '18 at 17:00

























                                    answered Dec 18 '18 at 5:26









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