Why does the median minimize $E(|X-c|)$?
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Suppose $X$ is a real-valued random variable and let $P_X$ denote the distribution of $X$. Then
$$
E(|X-c|) = int_mathbb{R} |x-c| dP_X(x).
$$
The medians of $X$ are defined as any number $m in mathbb{R}$ such that $P(X leq m) geq frac{1}{2}$ and $P(X geq m) geq frac{1}{2}$.
Why do the medians solve
$$
min_{c in mathbb{R}} E(|X-c|) , ?
$$
probability-theory probability-distributions median
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose $X$ is a real-valued random variable and let $P_X$ denote the distribution of $X$. Then
$$
E(|X-c|) = int_mathbb{R} |x-c| dP_X(x).
$$
The medians of $X$ are defined as any number $m in mathbb{R}$ such that $P(X leq m) geq frac{1}{2}$ and $P(X geq m) geq frac{1}{2}$.
Why do the medians solve
$$
min_{c in mathbb{R}} E(|X-c|) , ?
$$
probability-theory probability-distributions median
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose $X$ is a real-valued random variable and let $P_X$ denote the distribution of $X$. Then
$$
E(|X-c|) = int_mathbb{R} |x-c| dP_X(x).
$$
The medians of $X$ are defined as any number $m in mathbb{R}$ such that $P(X leq m) geq frac{1}{2}$ and $P(X geq m) geq frac{1}{2}$.
Why do the medians solve
$$
min_{c in mathbb{R}} E(|X-c|) , ?
$$
probability-theory probability-distributions median
$endgroup$
Suppose $X$ is a real-valued random variable and let $P_X$ denote the distribution of $X$. Then
$$
E(|X-c|) = int_mathbb{R} |x-c| dP_X(x).
$$
The medians of $X$ are defined as any number $m in mathbb{R}$ such that $P(X leq m) geq frac{1}{2}$ and $P(X geq m) geq frac{1}{2}$.
Why do the medians solve
$$
min_{c in mathbb{R}} E(|X-c|) , ?
$$
probability-theory probability-distributions median
probability-theory probability-distributions median
edited Oct 18 '16 at 14:35
Did
248k23224462
248k23224462
asked Nov 25 '11 at 6:58
TimTim
16.4k20121324
16.4k20121324
add a comment |
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
For every real valued random variable $X$,
$$
mathrm E(|X-c|)=int_{-infty}^cmathrm P(Xleqslant t),mathrm dt+int_c^{+infty}mathrm P(Xgeqslant t),mathrm dt
$$
hence the function $u:cmapsto mathrm E(|X-c|)$ is differentiable almost everywhere and, where $u'(c)$ exists, $u'(c)=mathrm P(Xleqslant c)-mathrm P(Xgeqslant c)$. Hence $u'(c)leqslant0$ if $c$ is smaller than every median, $u'(c)=0$ if $c$ is a median, and $u'(c)geqslant0$ if $c$ is greater than every median.
The formula for $mathrm E(|X-c|)$ is the integrated version of the relations $$(x-y)^+=int_y^{+infty}[tleqslant x],mathrm dt$$ and $|x-c|=((-x)-(-c))^++(x-c)^+$, which yield, for every $x$ and $c$,
$$
|x-c|=int_{-infty}^c[xleqslant t],mathrm dt+int_c^{+infty}[xgeqslant t],mathrm dt
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks! (1) By "integrated version", is it to first integrate your last formula wrt $P$ over $mathbb{R}$, then apply Fubini Thm to exchange the order of the two integrals, and so get the first formula? (2) If temporarily change the notation $P$ to represent the cdf of $X$, is Sivaram's Edit correct? Specifically, do those Riemann-Stieltjes integrals exist?
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– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 8:16
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@Rasmus, you are right, thanks, misprint corrected.
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– Did
Nov 25 '11 at 8:21
2
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This is a very nice proof. A clarification for future readers, who, like me, would be perplexed by the notation $[xleq-t]$ and $[xgeq t]$: If $A$ is an event, $[A]$ denotes the indicator function $mathbb{1}_A$. In particular, $[xleq-t] = mathbb{1}_{{x leq -t}}$, and likewise $[xgeq t] = mathbb{1}_{{xgeq t}}$.
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– Evan Aad
Oct 18 '16 at 9:31
1
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@EvanAad Adding convexity to the pot will allow you to conclude.
$endgroup$
– Did
Oct 18 '16 at 16:11
4
$begingroup$
@Vim The convexity of the function $u$ makes these objections moot, but here is a more direct route: for every $x$ and $c$, $$ |x-c|=int_{-infty}^c[xleqslant t],mathrm dt+int_c^{+infty}[x>t],mathrm dt $$ hence, for every median $m$, $$E(|X-c|)=E(|X-m|)+int_m^cv(t)dt$$ with $$v(t)=P(Xleqslant t)-P(X>t)=2P(Xleqslant t)-1$$ Then $v$ is nondecreasing and $v(m)geqslant0$ hence, for every $c>m$, $vgeqslant0$ on $(m,c)$, which implies $E(|X-c|)geqslant E(|X-m|)$. Likewise for $c<m$.
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– Did
Nov 24 '16 at 6:03
|
show 11 more comments
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Let $f$ be the pdf and let $J(c) = E(|X-c|)$. We want to maximize $J(c)$. Note that $E(|X-c|) = int_{mathbb{R}} |x-c| f(x) dx = int_{-infty}^{c} (c-x) f(x) dx + int_c^{infty} (x-c) f(x) dx.$
To find the maximum, set $frac{dJ}{dc} = 0$. Hence, we get that,
$$begin{align}
frac{dJ}{dc} & = (c-x)f(x) | _{x=c} + int_{-infty}^{c} f(x) dx + (x-c)f(x) | _{x=c} - int_c^{infty} f(x) dx\
& = int_{-infty}^{c} f(x) dx - int_c^{infty} f(x) dx = 0
end{align}
$$
Hence, we get that $c$ is such that $$int_{-infty}^{c} f(x) dx = int_c^{infty} f(x) dx$$ i.e. $$P(X leq c) = P(X > c).$$
However, we also know that $P(X leq c) + P(X > c) = 1$. Hence, we get that $$P(X leq c) = P(X > c) = frac12.$$
EDIT
When $X$ doesn't have a density, all you need to do is to make use of integration by parts. We get that $$displaystyle int_{-infty}^{c} (c-x) dP(x) = lim_{y rightarrow -infty} (c-y) P(y) + displaystyle int_{c}^{infty} P(x) dx.$$ Similarly, we also get that $$displaystyle int_{c}^{infty} (x-c) dP(x) = lim_{y rightarrow infty} (y-c) P(y) - displaystyle int_{c}^{infty} P(x) dx.$$
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Thanks! But does $X$ always have a density?
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– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 7:09
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@Tim: I don't think it is hard to adapt the same idea for the case when $X$ doesn't have a density.
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– user17762
Nov 25 '11 at 7:15
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So you are thinking $P$ as cdf of $X$?
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– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 7:30
add a comment |
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The following intends to complement Did's answer.
Claim
Denote by $M$ be the set of $X$'s medians. Then
$M = [m_1, m_2]$ for some $m_1, m_2 in mathbb{R}$, such that $m_1 leq m_2$.
For every $m in M$ and for every $x in mathbb{R}$ we have
$$
Eleft(|X-m|right) leq Eleft(|X-x|right).
$$
(In particular, $mmapsto Eleft(|X-m|right)$ is constant on $M$.)
Part 2's proof builds on Did's answer.
Proof
It is known that $M neq emptyset$. Define
$$
begin{align}
M_1 &:= left{tinmathbb{R} |!: F_X(t) geq frac{1}{2}right}, \
M_2 &:= left{tinmathbb{R} |!: P(X<t) leq frac{1}{2}right}.
end{align}
$$
Then $M = M_1 cap M_2$. It therefore suffices to show that $M_1 = [m_1, infty)$ and that $M_2 = (-infty, m_2]$, for some $m_1, m_2 in mathbb{R}$.
Since $lim_{trightarrow-infty}F_X(t) = 0$, $M_1$ is bounded from below. Since $lim_{trightarrowinfty}F_X(t) = 1$, $M_1$ is an interval that extends to infinity. Hence $M_1 = (m_1,infty)$ or $M_1 = [m_1,infty)$, for some $m_1 in mathbb{R}$. It follows from $F_X$'s right-continuity that $m_1 in M_1$. An analogous argument shows that $M_2 = (-infty,m_2]$ (just verify that $tmapsto P(X<t)$ is left-continuous).
Define a function $f:mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ as follows. For every $c in mathbb{R}$, set
$$
f(c) := Eleft(|X-c|right).
$$
We will begin by showing that $f$ is convex. Let $a, b in mathbb{R}$, and let $t in (0,1)$. Then
$$
begin{align}
fleft(ta+(1-t)bright) &= Eleft(left|X-left(ta+(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&= Eleft(left|left(tX-taright)+left((1-t)X-(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&leq Eleft(left|left(tX-taright)right|+left|left((1-t)X-(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&=Eleft(left|left(tX-taright)right|right)+Eleft(left|left((1-t)X-(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&= t Eleft(|X-a|right) + (1-t) Eleft(|X-b|right) \
&= t f(a) + (1-t) f(b).
end{align}
$$
Since $f$ is convex, then, by Theorem 7.40 of [1] (p. 157), there exists a set $A subseteq mathbb{R}$ such that $mathbb{R}setminus A$ is countable, and such that $f$ is finitely differentiable on $A$. Moreover, letting $m in M$, and letting $x in (-infty, m_1)$, Theorem 7.43 of [1] (p. 158) yields that $f'$ is Lebesgue-integrable on $[x,m] cap A$, and that
$$
f(m) - f(x) = int_{[x,m]cap A} f' dlambda.
$$
Applying Did's answer, we find that $f'leq 0$ on $[x,m]cap A$. Hence $f(m) leq f(x)$. Similar considerations show that, for every $x in (m_2,infty)$, $f(m) leq f(x)$, and also that $f(m) = f(m_1)$ (implying that $f$ is constant on $M$, since $m$ was chosen arbitrarily in $M$).
(The argument of the last paragraph was suggested to me by copper.hat in their answer to a related question of mine.)
Q.E.D.
References
[1] Richard L. Wheeden and Antoni Zygmund. Measure and Integral: An Introduction to Real Analysis. 2nd Ed. 2015. CRC Press. ISBN: 978-1-4987-0290-4.
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Thanks. Now I understand why if $M$ is an interval then any point where $f$ assumes zero derivative is a global minimiser of $f$. However, what if $M$ is a singleton and $f$ is not differentiable there? (Also, could you give the name of the Lebesgue integrability theorem you invoked?)
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– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 3:17
1
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@Vim: 1. A singleton ${s}$ is an interval of the from $[m_1, m_2]$, $m_1leq m_2$ with $m_1:=m_2:=s$. 2. Here's a link to the theorem.
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– Evan Aad
Nov 24 '16 at 9:54
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I was not asking whether a singleton is an interval or not, rather, I was thinking the how to apply the convexity in this case. Anyway it seems already solved to me now: even though $f$ can fail to be differentiable at this point, its left and right derivatives surely exist by convexity, and the left one is $le 0$ and the right one $ge 0$ by the definition of the median.
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– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 10:06
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@Vim: My proof covers the case that $M$ is a singleton.
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– Evan Aad
Nov 24 '16 at 12:33
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indeed. I had been actually mainly reading the link in your answer, which seemed a bit simpler so that I could grasp it with less knowledge basis. The singleton concern arose from there but not from this answer.
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– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 12:40
add a comment |
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Let $m$ be any median of $X$. Wlog, we can take $m=0$ (consider $X':=X-m$). The aim is to show $E|X-c|ge E|X|$.
Consider the case $cge 0$. It is straightforward to check that $|X-c|-|X|=c$ when $Xle0$, and $|X-c|-|X|ge -c$ when $X>0$.
It follows that
$$
Eleft[(|X-c|-|X|)I(Xle0)right]=cP(Xle0)tag1
$$
and
$$Eleft[(|X-c|-|X|)I(X>0)right]ge-cP(X>0).tag2
$$
Adding (1) and (2) yields
$$
E(|X-c|-|X|)ge cleft[P(Xle0)-P(X>0)right].tag3
$$
The RHS of (3) equals $c[2P(Xle0)-1]$, which is non-negative since $cge0$ and zero is a median of $X$. The case $cle0$ is reduced to the previous one by considering $X':=-X$ and $c':=-c$.
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add a comment |
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4 Answers
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4 Answers
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$begingroup$
For every real valued random variable $X$,
$$
mathrm E(|X-c|)=int_{-infty}^cmathrm P(Xleqslant t),mathrm dt+int_c^{+infty}mathrm P(Xgeqslant t),mathrm dt
$$
hence the function $u:cmapsto mathrm E(|X-c|)$ is differentiable almost everywhere and, where $u'(c)$ exists, $u'(c)=mathrm P(Xleqslant c)-mathrm P(Xgeqslant c)$. Hence $u'(c)leqslant0$ if $c$ is smaller than every median, $u'(c)=0$ if $c$ is a median, and $u'(c)geqslant0$ if $c$ is greater than every median.
The formula for $mathrm E(|X-c|)$ is the integrated version of the relations $$(x-y)^+=int_y^{+infty}[tleqslant x],mathrm dt$$ and $|x-c|=((-x)-(-c))^++(x-c)^+$, which yield, for every $x$ and $c$,
$$
|x-c|=int_{-infty}^c[xleqslant t],mathrm dt+int_c^{+infty}[xgeqslant t],mathrm dt
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks! (1) By "integrated version", is it to first integrate your last formula wrt $P$ over $mathbb{R}$, then apply Fubini Thm to exchange the order of the two integrals, and so get the first formula? (2) If temporarily change the notation $P$ to represent the cdf of $X$, is Sivaram's Edit correct? Specifically, do those Riemann-Stieltjes integrals exist?
$endgroup$
– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 8:16
$begingroup$
@Rasmus, you are right, thanks, misprint corrected.
$endgroup$
– Did
Nov 25 '11 at 8:21
2
$begingroup$
This is a very nice proof. A clarification for future readers, who, like me, would be perplexed by the notation $[xleq-t]$ and $[xgeq t]$: If $A$ is an event, $[A]$ denotes the indicator function $mathbb{1}_A$. In particular, $[xleq-t] = mathbb{1}_{{x leq -t}}$, and likewise $[xgeq t] = mathbb{1}_{{xgeq t}}$.
$endgroup$
– Evan Aad
Oct 18 '16 at 9:31
1
$begingroup$
@EvanAad Adding convexity to the pot will allow you to conclude.
$endgroup$
– Did
Oct 18 '16 at 16:11
4
$begingroup$
@Vim The convexity of the function $u$ makes these objections moot, but here is a more direct route: for every $x$ and $c$, $$ |x-c|=int_{-infty}^c[xleqslant t],mathrm dt+int_c^{+infty}[x>t],mathrm dt $$ hence, for every median $m$, $$E(|X-c|)=E(|X-m|)+int_m^cv(t)dt$$ with $$v(t)=P(Xleqslant t)-P(X>t)=2P(Xleqslant t)-1$$ Then $v$ is nondecreasing and $v(m)geqslant0$ hence, for every $c>m$, $vgeqslant0$ on $(m,c)$, which implies $E(|X-c|)geqslant E(|X-m|)$. Likewise for $c<m$.
$endgroup$
– Did
Nov 24 '16 at 6:03
|
show 11 more comments
$begingroup$
For every real valued random variable $X$,
$$
mathrm E(|X-c|)=int_{-infty}^cmathrm P(Xleqslant t),mathrm dt+int_c^{+infty}mathrm P(Xgeqslant t),mathrm dt
$$
hence the function $u:cmapsto mathrm E(|X-c|)$ is differentiable almost everywhere and, where $u'(c)$ exists, $u'(c)=mathrm P(Xleqslant c)-mathrm P(Xgeqslant c)$. Hence $u'(c)leqslant0$ if $c$ is smaller than every median, $u'(c)=0$ if $c$ is a median, and $u'(c)geqslant0$ if $c$ is greater than every median.
The formula for $mathrm E(|X-c|)$ is the integrated version of the relations $$(x-y)^+=int_y^{+infty}[tleqslant x],mathrm dt$$ and $|x-c|=((-x)-(-c))^++(x-c)^+$, which yield, for every $x$ and $c$,
$$
|x-c|=int_{-infty}^c[xleqslant t],mathrm dt+int_c^{+infty}[xgeqslant t],mathrm dt
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks! (1) By "integrated version", is it to first integrate your last formula wrt $P$ over $mathbb{R}$, then apply Fubini Thm to exchange the order of the two integrals, and so get the first formula? (2) If temporarily change the notation $P$ to represent the cdf of $X$, is Sivaram's Edit correct? Specifically, do those Riemann-Stieltjes integrals exist?
$endgroup$
– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 8:16
$begingroup$
@Rasmus, you are right, thanks, misprint corrected.
$endgroup$
– Did
Nov 25 '11 at 8:21
2
$begingroup$
This is a very nice proof. A clarification for future readers, who, like me, would be perplexed by the notation $[xleq-t]$ and $[xgeq t]$: If $A$ is an event, $[A]$ denotes the indicator function $mathbb{1}_A$. In particular, $[xleq-t] = mathbb{1}_{{x leq -t}}$, and likewise $[xgeq t] = mathbb{1}_{{xgeq t}}$.
$endgroup$
– Evan Aad
Oct 18 '16 at 9:31
1
$begingroup$
@EvanAad Adding convexity to the pot will allow you to conclude.
$endgroup$
– Did
Oct 18 '16 at 16:11
4
$begingroup$
@Vim The convexity of the function $u$ makes these objections moot, but here is a more direct route: for every $x$ and $c$, $$ |x-c|=int_{-infty}^c[xleqslant t],mathrm dt+int_c^{+infty}[x>t],mathrm dt $$ hence, for every median $m$, $$E(|X-c|)=E(|X-m|)+int_m^cv(t)dt$$ with $$v(t)=P(Xleqslant t)-P(X>t)=2P(Xleqslant t)-1$$ Then $v$ is nondecreasing and $v(m)geqslant0$ hence, for every $c>m$, $vgeqslant0$ on $(m,c)$, which implies $E(|X-c|)geqslant E(|X-m|)$. Likewise for $c<m$.
$endgroup$
– Did
Nov 24 '16 at 6:03
|
show 11 more comments
$begingroup$
For every real valued random variable $X$,
$$
mathrm E(|X-c|)=int_{-infty}^cmathrm P(Xleqslant t),mathrm dt+int_c^{+infty}mathrm P(Xgeqslant t),mathrm dt
$$
hence the function $u:cmapsto mathrm E(|X-c|)$ is differentiable almost everywhere and, where $u'(c)$ exists, $u'(c)=mathrm P(Xleqslant c)-mathrm P(Xgeqslant c)$. Hence $u'(c)leqslant0$ if $c$ is smaller than every median, $u'(c)=0$ if $c$ is a median, and $u'(c)geqslant0$ if $c$ is greater than every median.
The formula for $mathrm E(|X-c|)$ is the integrated version of the relations $$(x-y)^+=int_y^{+infty}[tleqslant x],mathrm dt$$ and $|x-c|=((-x)-(-c))^++(x-c)^+$, which yield, for every $x$ and $c$,
$$
|x-c|=int_{-infty}^c[xleqslant t],mathrm dt+int_c^{+infty}[xgeqslant t],mathrm dt
$$
$endgroup$
For every real valued random variable $X$,
$$
mathrm E(|X-c|)=int_{-infty}^cmathrm P(Xleqslant t),mathrm dt+int_c^{+infty}mathrm P(Xgeqslant t),mathrm dt
$$
hence the function $u:cmapsto mathrm E(|X-c|)$ is differentiable almost everywhere and, where $u'(c)$ exists, $u'(c)=mathrm P(Xleqslant c)-mathrm P(Xgeqslant c)$. Hence $u'(c)leqslant0$ if $c$ is smaller than every median, $u'(c)=0$ if $c$ is a median, and $u'(c)geqslant0$ if $c$ is greater than every median.
The formula for $mathrm E(|X-c|)$ is the integrated version of the relations $$(x-y)^+=int_y^{+infty}[tleqslant x],mathrm dt$$ and $|x-c|=((-x)-(-c))^++(x-c)^+$, which yield, for every $x$ and $c$,
$$
|x-c|=int_{-infty}^c[xleqslant t],mathrm dt+int_c^{+infty}[xgeqslant t],mathrm dt
$$
edited Nov 24 '16 at 6:04
answered Nov 25 '11 at 7:54
DidDid
248k23224462
248k23224462
$begingroup$
Thanks! (1) By "integrated version", is it to first integrate your last formula wrt $P$ over $mathbb{R}$, then apply Fubini Thm to exchange the order of the two integrals, and so get the first formula? (2) If temporarily change the notation $P$ to represent the cdf of $X$, is Sivaram's Edit correct? Specifically, do those Riemann-Stieltjes integrals exist?
$endgroup$
– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 8:16
$begingroup$
@Rasmus, you are right, thanks, misprint corrected.
$endgroup$
– Did
Nov 25 '11 at 8:21
2
$begingroup$
This is a very nice proof. A clarification for future readers, who, like me, would be perplexed by the notation $[xleq-t]$ and $[xgeq t]$: If $A$ is an event, $[A]$ denotes the indicator function $mathbb{1}_A$. In particular, $[xleq-t] = mathbb{1}_{{x leq -t}}$, and likewise $[xgeq t] = mathbb{1}_{{xgeq t}}$.
$endgroup$
– Evan Aad
Oct 18 '16 at 9:31
1
$begingroup$
@EvanAad Adding convexity to the pot will allow you to conclude.
$endgroup$
– Did
Oct 18 '16 at 16:11
4
$begingroup$
@Vim The convexity of the function $u$ makes these objections moot, but here is a more direct route: for every $x$ and $c$, $$ |x-c|=int_{-infty}^c[xleqslant t],mathrm dt+int_c^{+infty}[x>t],mathrm dt $$ hence, for every median $m$, $$E(|X-c|)=E(|X-m|)+int_m^cv(t)dt$$ with $$v(t)=P(Xleqslant t)-P(X>t)=2P(Xleqslant t)-1$$ Then $v$ is nondecreasing and $v(m)geqslant0$ hence, for every $c>m$, $vgeqslant0$ on $(m,c)$, which implies $E(|X-c|)geqslant E(|X-m|)$. Likewise for $c<m$.
$endgroup$
– Did
Nov 24 '16 at 6:03
|
show 11 more comments
$begingroup$
Thanks! (1) By "integrated version", is it to first integrate your last formula wrt $P$ over $mathbb{R}$, then apply Fubini Thm to exchange the order of the two integrals, and so get the first formula? (2) If temporarily change the notation $P$ to represent the cdf of $X$, is Sivaram's Edit correct? Specifically, do those Riemann-Stieltjes integrals exist?
$endgroup$
– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 8:16
$begingroup$
@Rasmus, you are right, thanks, misprint corrected.
$endgroup$
– Did
Nov 25 '11 at 8:21
2
$begingroup$
This is a very nice proof. A clarification for future readers, who, like me, would be perplexed by the notation $[xleq-t]$ and $[xgeq t]$: If $A$ is an event, $[A]$ denotes the indicator function $mathbb{1}_A$. In particular, $[xleq-t] = mathbb{1}_{{x leq -t}}$, and likewise $[xgeq t] = mathbb{1}_{{xgeq t}}$.
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– Evan Aad
Oct 18 '16 at 9:31
1
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@EvanAad Adding convexity to the pot will allow you to conclude.
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– Did
Oct 18 '16 at 16:11
4
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@Vim The convexity of the function $u$ makes these objections moot, but here is a more direct route: for every $x$ and $c$, $$ |x-c|=int_{-infty}^c[xleqslant t],mathrm dt+int_c^{+infty}[x>t],mathrm dt $$ hence, for every median $m$, $$E(|X-c|)=E(|X-m|)+int_m^cv(t)dt$$ with $$v(t)=P(Xleqslant t)-P(X>t)=2P(Xleqslant t)-1$$ Then $v$ is nondecreasing and $v(m)geqslant0$ hence, for every $c>m$, $vgeqslant0$ on $(m,c)$, which implies $E(|X-c|)geqslant E(|X-m|)$. Likewise for $c<m$.
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– Did
Nov 24 '16 at 6:03
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Thanks! (1) By "integrated version", is it to first integrate your last formula wrt $P$ over $mathbb{R}$, then apply Fubini Thm to exchange the order of the two integrals, and so get the first formula? (2) If temporarily change the notation $P$ to represent the cdf of $X$, is Sivaram's Edit correct? Specifically, do those Riemann-Stieltjes integrals exist?
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– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 8:16
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Thanks! (1) By "integrated version", is it to first integrate your last formula wrt $P$ over $mathbb{R}$, then apply Fubini Thm to exchange the order of the two integrals, and so get the first formula? (2) If temporarily change the notation $P$ to represent the cdf of $X$, is Sivaram's Edit correct? Specifically, do those Riemann-Stieltjes integrals exist?
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– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 8:16
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@Rasmus, you are right, thanks, misprint corrected.
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– Did
Nov 25 '11 at 8:21
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@Rasmus, you are right, thanks, misprint corrected.
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– Did
Nov 25 '11 at 8:21
2
2
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This is a very nice proof. A clarification for future readers, who, like me, would be perplexed by the notation $[xleq-t]$ and $[xgeq t]$: If $A$ is an event, $[A]$ denotes the indicator function $mathbb{1}_A$. In particular, $[xleq-t] = mathbb{1}_{{x leq -t}}$, and likewise $[xgeq t] = mathbb{1}_{{xgeq t}}$.
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– Evan Aad
Oct 18 '16 at 9:31
$begingroup$
This is a very nice proof. A clarification for future readers, who, like me, would be perplexed by the notation $[xleq-t]$ and $[xgeq t]$: If $A$ is an event, $[A]$ denotes the indicator function $mathbb{1}_A$. In particular, $[xleq-t] = mathbb{1}_{{x leq -t}}$, and likewise $[xgeq t] = mathbb{1}_{{xgeq t}}$.
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– Evan Aad
Oct 18 '16 at 9:31
1
1
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@EvanAad Adding convexity to the pot will allow you to conclude.
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– Did
Oct 18 '16 at 16:11
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@EvanAad Adding convexity to the pot will allow you to conclude.
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– Did
Oct 18 '16 at 16:11
4
4
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@Vim The convexity of the function $u$ makes these objections moot, but here is a more direct route: for every $x$ and $c$, $$ |x-c|=int_{-infty}^c[xleqslant t],mathrm dt+int_c^{+infty}[x>t],mathrm dt $$ hence, for every median $m$, $$E(|X-c|)=E(|X-m|)+int_m^cv(t)dt$$ with $$v(t)=P(Xleqslant t)-P(X>t)=2P(Xleqslant t)-1$$ Then $v$ is nondecreasing and $v(m)geqslant0$ hence, for every $c>m$, $vgeqslant0$ on $(m,c)$, which implies $E(|X-c|)geqslant E(|X-m|)$. Likewise for $c<m$.
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– Did
Nov 24 '16 at 6:03
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@Vim The convexity of the function $u$ makes these objections moot, but here is a more direct route: for every $x$ and $c$, $$ |x-c|=int_{-infty}^c[xleqslant t],mathrm dt+int_c^{+infty}[x>t],mathrm dt $$ hence, for every median $m$, $$E(|X-c|)=E(|X-m|)+int_m^cv(t)dt$$ with $$v(t)=P(Xleqslant t)-P(X>t)=2P(Xleqslant t)-1$$ Then $v$ is nondecreasing and $v(m)geqslant0$ hence, for every $c>m$, $vgeqslant0$ on $(m,c)$, which implies $E(|X-c|)geqslant E(|X-m|)$. Likewise for $c<m$.
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– Did
Nov 24 '16 at 6:03
|
show 11 more comments
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Let $f$ be the pdf and let $J(c) = E(|X-c|)$. We want to maximize $J(c)$. Note that $E(|X-c|) = int_{mathbb{R}} |x-c| f(x) dx = int_{-infty}^{c} (c-x) f(x) dx + int_c^{infty} (x-c) f(x) dx.$
To find the maximum, set $frac{dJ}{dc} = 0$. Hence, we get that,
$$begin{align}
frac{dJ}{dc} & = (c-x)f(x) | _{x=c} + int_{-infty}^{c} f(x) dx + (x-c)f(x) | _{x=c} - int_c^{infty} f(x) dx\
& = int_{-infty}^{c} f(x) dx - int_c^{infty} f(x) dx = 0
end{align}
$$
Hence, we get that $c$ is such that $$int_{-infty}^{c} f(x) dx = int_c^{infty} f(x) dx$$ i.e. $$P(X leq c) = P(X > c).$$
However, we also know that $P(X leq c) + P(X > c) = 1$. Hence, we get that $$P(X leq c) = P(X > c) = frac12.$$
EDIT
When $X$ doesn't have a density, all you need to do is to make use of integration by parts. We get that $$displaystyle int_{-infty}^{c} (c-x) dP(x) = lim_{y rightarrow -infty} (c-y) P(y) + displaystyle int_{c}^{infty} P(x) dx.$$ Similarly, we also get that $$displaystyle int_{c}^{infty} (x-c) dP(x) = lim_{y rightarrow infty} (y-c) P(y) - displaystyle int_{c}^{infty} P(x) dx.$$
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Thanks! But does $X$ always have a density?
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– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 7:09
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@Tim: I don't think it is hard to adapt the same idea for the case when $X$ doesn't have a density.
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– user17762
Nov 25 '11 at 7:15
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So you are thinking $P$ as cdf of $X$?
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– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 7:30
add a comment |
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Let $f$ be the pdf and let $J(c) = E(|X-c|)$. We want to maximize $J(c)$. Note that $E(|X-c|) = int_{mathbb{R}} |x-c| f(x) dx = int_{-infty}^{c} (c-x) f(x) dx + int_c^{infty} (x-c) f(x) dx.$
To find the maximum, set $frac{dJ}{dc} = 0$. Hence, we get that,
$$begin{align}
frac{dJ}{dc} & = (c-x)f(x) | _{x=c} + int_{-infty}^{c} f(x) dx + (x-c)f(x) | _{x=c} - int_c^{infty} f(x) dx\
& = int_{-infty}^{c} f(x) dx - int_c^{infty} f(x) dx = 0
end{align}
$$
Hence, we get that $c$ is such that $$int_{-infty}^{c} f(x) dx = int_c^{infty} f(x) dx$$ i.e. $$P(X leq c) = P(X > c).$$
However, we also know that $P(X leq c) + P(X > c) = 1$. Hence, we get that $$P(X leq c) = P(X > c) = frac12.$$
EDIT
When $X$ doesn't have a density, all you need to do is to make use of integration by parts. We get that $$displaystyle int_{-infty}^{c} (c-x) dP(x) = lim_{y rightarrow -infty} (c-y) P(y) + displaystyle int_{c}^{infty} P(x) dx.$$ Similarly, we also get that $$displaystyle int_{c}^{infty} (x-c) dP(x) = lim_{y rightarrow infty} (y-c) P(y) - displaystyle int_{c}^{infty} P(x) dx.$$
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Thanks! But does $X$ always have a density?
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– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 7:09
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@Tim: I don't think it is hard to adapt the same idea for the case when $X$ doesn't have a density.
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– user17762
Nov 25 '11 at 7:15
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So you are thinking $P$ as cdf of $X$?
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– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 7:30
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f$ be the pdf and let $J(c) = E(|X-c|)$. We want to maximize $J(c)$. Note that $E(|X-c|) = int_{mathbb{R}} |x-c| f(x) dx = int_{-infty}^{c} (c-x) f(x) dx + int_c^{infty} (x-c) f(x) dx.$
To find the maximum, set $frac{dJ}{dc} = 0$. Hence, we get that,
$$begin{align}
frac{dJ}{dc} & = (c-x)f(x) | _{x=c} + int_{-infty}^{c} f(x) dx + (x-c)f(x) | _{x=c} - int_c^{infty} f(x) dx\
& = int_{-infty}^{c} f(x) dx - int_c^{infty} f(x) dx = 0
end{align}
$$
Hence, we get that $c$ is such that $$int_{-infty}^{c} f(x) dx = int_c^{infty} f(x) dx$$ i.e. $$P(X leq c) = P(X > c).$$
However, we also know that $P(X leq c) + P(X > c) = 1$. Hence, we get that $$P(X leq c) = P(X > c) = frac12.$$
EDIT
When $X$ doesn't have a density, all you need to do is to make use of integration by parts. We get that $$displaystyle int_{-infty}^{c} (c-x) dP(x) = lim_{y rightarrow -infty} (c-y) P(y) + displaystyle int_{c}^{infty} P(x) dx.$$ Similarly, we also get that $$displaystyle int_{c}^{infty} (x-c) dP(x) = lim_{y rightarrow infty} (y-c) P(y) - displaystyle int_{c}^{infty} P(x) dx.$$
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Let $f$ be the pdf and let $J(c) = E(|X-c|)$. We want to maximize $J(c)$. Note that $E(|X-c|) = int_{mathbb{R}} |x-c| f(x) dx = int_{-infty}^{c} (c-x) f(x) dx + int_c^{infty} (x-c) f(x) dx.$
To find the maximum, set $frac{dJ}{dc} = 0$. Hence, we get that,
$$begin{align}
frac{dJ}{dc} & = (c-x)f(x) | _{x=c} + int_{-infty}^{c} f(x) dx + (x-c)f(x) | _{x=c} - int_c^{infty} f(x) dx\
& = int_{-infty}^{c} f(x) dx - int_c^{infty} f(x) dx = 0
end{align}
$$
Hence, we get that $c$ is such that $$int_{-infty}^{c} f(x) dx = int_c^{infty} f(x) dx$$ i.e. $$P(X leq c) = P(X > c).$$
However, we also know that $P(X leq c) + P(X > c) = 1$. Hence, we get that $$P(X leq c) = P(X > c) = frac12.$$
EDIT
When $X$ doesn't have a density, all you need to do is to make use of integration by parts. We get that $$displaystyle int_{-infty}^{c} (c-x) dP(x) = lim_{y rightarrow -infty} (c-y) P(y) + displaystyle int_{c}^{infty} P(x) dx.$$ Similarly, we also get that $$displaystyle int_{c}^{infty} (x-c) dP(x) = lim_{y rightarrow infty} (y-c) P(y) - displaystyle int_{c}^{infty} P(x) dx.$$
edited Nov 25 '11 at 7:38
answered Nov 25 '11 at 7:07
user17762
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Thanks! But does $X$ always have a density?
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– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 7:09
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@Tim: I don't think it is hard to adapt the same idea for the case when $X$ doesn't have a density.
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– user17762
Nov 25 '11 at 7:15
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So you are thinking $P$ as cdf of $X$?
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– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 7:30
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thanks! But does $X$ always have a density?
$endgroup$
– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 7:09
$begingroup$
@Tim: I don't think it is hard to adapt the same idea for the case when $X$ doesn't have a density.
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– user17762
Nov 25 '11 at 7:15
$begingroup$
So you are thinking $P$ as cdf of $X$?
$endgroup$
– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 7:30
$begingroup$
Thanks! But does $X$ always have a density?
$endgroup$
– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 7:09
$begingroup$
Thanks! But does $X$ always have a density?
$endgroup$
– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 7:09
$begingroup$
@Tim: I don't think it is hard to adapt the same idea for the case when $X$ doesn't have a density.
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– user17762
Nov 25 '11 at 7:15
$begingroup$
@Tim: I don't think it is hard to adapt the same idea for the case when $X$ doesn't have a density.
$endgroup$
– user17762
Nov 25 '11 at 7:15
$begingroup$
So you are thinking $P$ as cdf of $X$?
$endgroup$
– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 7:30
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So you are thinking $P$ as cdf of $X$?
$endgroup$
– Tim
Nov 25 '11 at 7:30
add a comment |
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The following intends to complement Did's answer.
Claim
Denote by $M$ be the set of $X$'s medians. Then
$M = [m_1, m_2]$ for some $m_1, m_2 in mathbb{R}$, such that $m_1 leq m_2$.
For every $m in M$ and for every $x in mathbb{R}$ we have
$$
Eleft(|X-m|right) leq Eleft(|X-x|right).
$$
(In particular, $mmapsto Eleft(|X-m|right)$ is constant on $M$.)
Part 2's proof builds on Did's answer.
Proof
It is known that $M neq emptyset$. Define
$$
begin{align}
M_1 &:= left{tinmathbb{R} |!: F_X(t) geq frac{1}{2}right}, \
M_2 &:= left{tinmathbb{R} |!: P(X<t) leq frac{1}{2}right}.
end{align}
$$
Then $M = M_1 cap M_2$. It therefore suffices to show that $M_1 = [m_1, infty)$ and that $M_2 = (-infty, m_2]$, for some $m_1, m_2 in mathbb{R}$.
Since $lim_{trightarrow-infty}F_X(t) = 0$, $M_1$ is bounded from below. Since $lim_{trightarrowinfty}F_X(t) = 1$, $M_1$ is an interval that extends to infinity. Hence $M_1 = (m_1,infty)$ or $M_1 = [m_1,infty)$, for some $m_1 in mathbb{R}$. It follows from $F_X$'s right-continuity that $m_1 in M_1$. An analogous argument shows that $M_2 = (-infty,m_2]$ (just verify that $tmapsto P(X<t)$ is left-continuous).
Define a function $f:mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ as follows. For every $c in mathbb{R}$, set
$$
f(c) := Eleft(|X-c|right).
$$
We will begin by showing that $f$ is convex. Let $a, b in mathbb{R}$, and let $t in (0,1)$. Then
$$
begin{align}
fleft(ta+(1-t)bright) &= Eleft(left|X-left(ta+(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&= Eleft(left|left(tX-taright)+left((1-t)X-(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&leq Eleft(left|left(tX-taright)right|+left|left((1-t)X-(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&=Eleft(left|left(tX-taright)right|right)+Eleft(left|left((1-t)X-(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&= t Eleft(|X-a|right) + (1-t) Eleft(|X-b|right) \
&= t f(a) + (1-t) f(b).
end{align}
$$
Since $f$ is convex, then, by Theorem 7.40 of [1] (p. 157), there exists a set $A subseteq mathbb{R}$ such that $mathbb{R}setminus A$ is countable, and such that $f$ is finitely differentiable on $A$. Moreover, letting $m in M$, and letting $x in (-infty, m_1)$, Theorem 7.43 of [1] (p. 158) yields that $f'$ is Lebesgue-integrable on $[x,m] cap A$, and that
$$
f(m) - f(x) = int_{[x,m]cap A} f' dlambda.
$$
Applying Did's answer, we find that $f'leq 0$ on $[x,m]cap A$. Hence $f(m) leq f(x)$. Similar considerations show that, for every $x in (m_2,infty)$, $f(m) leq f(x)$, and also that $f(m) = f(m_1)$ (implying that $f$ is constant on $M$, since $m$ was chosen arbitrarily in $M$).
(The argument of the last paragraph was suggested to me by copper.hat in their answer to a related question of mine.)
Q.E.D.
References
[1] Richard L. Wheeden and Antoni Zygmund. Measure and Integral: An Introduction to Real Analysis. 2nd Ed. 2015. CRC Press. ISBN: 978-1-4987-0290-4.
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Thanks. Now I understand why if $M$ is an interval then any point where $f$ assumes zero derivative is a global minimiser of $f$. However, what if $M$ is a singleton and $f$ is not differentiable there? (Also, could you give the name of the Lebesgue integrability theorem you invoked?)
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– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 3:17
1
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@Vim: 1. A singleton ${s}$ is an interval of the from $[m_1, m_2]$, $m_1leq m_2$ with $m_1:=m_2:=s$. 2. Here's a link to the theorem.
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– Evan Aad
Nov 24 '16 at 9:54
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I was not asking whether a singleton is an interval or not, rather, I was thinking the how to apply the convexity in this case. Anyway it seems already solved to me now: even though $f$ can fail to be differentiable at this point, its left and right derivatives surely exist by convexity, and the left one is $le 0$ and the right one $ge 0$ by the definition of the median.
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– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 10:06
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@Vim: My proof covers the case that $M$ is a singleton.
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– Evan Aad
Nov 24 '16 at 12:33
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indeed. I had been actually mainly reading the link in your answer, which seemed a bit simpler so that I could grasp it with less knowledge basis. The singleton concern arose from there but not from this answer.
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– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 12:40
add a comment |
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The following intends to complement Did's answer.
Claim
Denote by $M$ be the set of $X$'s medians. Then
$M = [m_1, m_2]$ for some $m_1, m_2 in mathbb{R}$, such that $m_1 leq m_2$.
For every $m in M$ and for every $x in mathbb{R}$ we have
$$
Eleft(|X-m|right) leq Eleft(|X-x|right).
$$
(In particular, $mmapsto Eleft(|X-m|right)$ is constant on $M$.)
Part 2's proof builds on Did's answer.
Proof
It is known that $M neq emptyset$. Define
$$
begin{align}
M_1 &:= left{tinmathbb{R} |!: F_X(t) geq frac{1}{2}right}, \
M_2 &:= left{tinmathbb{R} |!: P(X<t) leq frac{1}{2}right}.
end{align}
$$
Then $M = M_1 cap M_2$. It therefore suffices to show that $M_1 = [m_1, infty)$ and that $M_2 = (-infty, m_2]$, for some $m_1, m_2 in mathbb{R}$.
Since $lim_{trightarrow-infty}F_X(t) = 0$, $M_1$ is bounded from below. Since $lim_{trightarrowinfty}F_X(t) = 1$, $M_1$ is an interval that extends to infinity. Hence $M_1 = (m_1,infty)$ or $M_1 = [m_1,infty)$, for some $m_1 in mathbb{R}$. It follows from $F_X$'s right-continuity that $m_1 in M_1$. An analogous argument shows that $M_2 = (-infty,m_2]$ (just verify that $tmapsto P(X<t)$ is left-continuous).
Define a function $f:mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ as follows. For every $c in mathbb{R}$, set
$$
f(c) := Eleft(|X-c|right).
$$
We will begin by showing that $f$ is convex. Let $a, b in mathbb{R}$, and let $t in (0,1)$. Then
$$
begin{align}
fleft(ta+(1-t)bright) &= Eleft(left|X-left(ta+(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&= Eleft(left|left(tX-taright)+left((1-t)X-(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&leq Eleft(left|left(tX-taright)right|+left|left((1-t)X-(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&=Eleft(left|left(tX-taright)right|right)+Eleft(left|left((1-t)X-(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&= t Eleft(|X-a|right) + (1-t) Eleft(|X-b|right) \
&= t f(a) + (1-t) f(b).
end{align}
$$
Since $f$ is convex, then, by Theorem 7.40 of [1] (p. 157), there exists a set $A subseteq mathbb{R}$ such that $mathbb{R}setminus A$ is countable, and such that $f$ is finitely differentiable on $A$. Moreover, letting $m in M$, and letting $x in (-infty, m_1)$, Theorem 7.43 of [1] (p. 158) yields that $f'$ is Lebesgue-integrable on $[x,m] cap A$, and that
$$
f(m) - f(x) = int_{[x,m]cap A} f' dlambda.
$$
Applying Did's answer, we find that $f'leq 0$ on $[x,m]cap A$. Hence $f(m) leq f(x)$. Similar considerations show that, for every $x in (m_2,infty)$, $f(m) leq f(x)$, and also that $f(m) = f(m_1)$ (implying that $f$ is constant on $M$, since $m$ was chosen arbitrarily in $M$).
(The argument of the last paragraph was suggested to me by copper.hat in their answer to a related question of mine.)
Q.E.D.
References
[1] Richard L. Wheeden and Antoni Zygmund. Measure and Integral: An Introduction to Real Analysis. 2nd Ed. 2015. CRC Press. ISBN: 978-1-4987-0290-4.
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Thanks. Now I understand why if $M$ is an interval then any point where $f$ assumes zero derivative is a global minimiser of $f$. However, what if $M$ is a singleton and $f$ is not differentiable there? (Also, could you give the name of the Lebesgue integrability theorem you invoked?)
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– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 3:17
1
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@Vim: 1. A singleton ${s}$ is an interval of the from $[m_1, m_2]$, $m_1leq m_2$ with $m_1:=m_2:=s$. 2. Here's a link to the theorem.
$endgroup$
– Evan Aad
Nov 24 '16 at 9:54
$begingroup$
I was not asking whether a singleton is an interval or not, rather, I was thinking the how to apply the convexity in this case. Anyway it seems already solved to me now: even though $f$ can fail to be differentiable at this point, its left and right derivatives surely exist by convexity, and the left one is $le 0$ and the right one $ge 0$ by the definition of the median.
$endgroup$
– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 10:06
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@Vim: My proof covers the case that $M$ is a singleton.
$endgroup$
– Evan Aad
Nov 24 '16 at 12:33
$begingroup$
indeed. I had been actually mainly reading the link in your answer, which seemed a bit simpler so that I could grasp it with less knowledge basis. The singleton concern arose from there but not from this answer.
$endgroup$
– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 12:40
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The following intends to complement Did's answer.
Claim
Denote by $M$ be the set of $X$'s medians. Then
$M = [m_1, m_2]$ for some $m_1, m_2 in mathbb{R}$, such that $m_1 leq m_2$.
For every $m in M$ and for every $x in mathbb{R}$ we have
$$
Eleft(|X-m|right) leq Eleft(|X-x|right).
$$
(In particular, $mmapsto Eleft(|X-m|right)$ is constant on $M$.)
Part 2's proof builds on Did's answer.
Proof
It is known that $M neq emptyset$. Define
$$
begin{align}
M_1 &:= left{tinmathbb{R} |!: F_X(t) geq frac{1}{2}right}, \
M_2 &:= left{tinmathbb{R} |!: P(X<t) leq frac{1}{2}right}.
end{align}
$$
Then $M = M_1 cap M_2$. It therefore suffices to show that $M_1 = [m_1, infty)$ and that $M_2 = (-infty, m_2]$, for some $m_1, m_2 in mathbb{R}$.
Since $lim_{trightarrow-infty}F_X(t) = 0$, $M_1$ is bounded from below. Since $lim_{trightarrowinfty}F_X(t) = 1$, $M_1$ is an interval that extends to infinity. Hence $M_1 = (m_1,infty)$ or $M_1 = [m_1,infty)$, for some $m_1 in mathbb{R}$. It follows from $F_X$'s right-continuity that $m_1 in M_1$. An analogous argument shows that $M_2 = (-infty,m_2]$ (just verify that $tmapsto P(X<t)$ is left-continuous).
Define a function $f:mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ as follows. For every $c in mathbb{R}$, set
$$
f(c) := Eleft(|X-c|right).
$$
We will begin by showing that $f$ is convex. Let $a, b in mathbb{R}$, and let $t in (0,1)$. Then
$$
begin{align}
fleft(ta+(1-t)bright) &= Eleft(left|X-left(ta+(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&= Eleft(left|left(tX-taright)+left((1-t)X-(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&leq Eleft(left|left(tX-taright)right|+left|left((1-t)X-(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&=Eleft(left|left(tX-taright)right|right)+Eleft(left|left((1-t)X-(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&= t Eleft(|X-a|right) + (1-t) Eleft(|X-b|right) \
&= t f(a) + (1-t) f(b).
end{align}
$$
Since $f$ is convex, then, by Theorem 7.40 of [1] (p. 157), there exists a set $A subseteq mathbb{R}$ such that $mathbb{R}setminus A$ is countable, and such that $f$ is finitely differentiable on $A$. Moreover, letting $m in M$, and letting $x in (-infty, m_1)$, Theorem 7.43 of [1] (p. 158) yields that $f'$ is Lebesgue-integrable on $[x,m] cap A$, and that
$$
f(m) - f(x) = int_{[x,m]cap A} f' dlambda.
$$
Applying Did's answer, we find that $f'leq 0$ on $[x,m]cap A$. Hence $f(m) leq f(x)$. Similar considerations show that, for every $x in (m_2,infty)$, $f(m) leq f(x)$, and also that $f(m) = f(m_1)$ (implying that $f$ is constant on $M$, since $m$ was chosen arbitrarily in $M$).
(The argument of the last paragraph was suggested to me by copper.hat in their answer to a related question of mine.)
Q.E.D.
References
[1] Richard L. Wheeden and Antoni Zygmund. Measure and Integral: An Introduction to Real Analysis. 2nd Ed. 2015. CRC Press. ISBN: 978-1-4987-0290-4.
$endgroup$
The following intends to complement Did's answer.
Claim
Denote by $M$ be the set of $X$'s medians. Then
$M = [m_1, m_2]$ for some $m_1, m_2 in mathbb{R}$, such that $m_1 leq m_2$.
For every $m in M$ and for every $x in mathbb{R}$ we have
$$
Eleft(|X-m|right) leq Eleft(|X-x|right).
$$
(In particular, $mmapsto Eleft(|X-m|right)$ is constant on $M$.)
Part 2's proof builds on Did's answer.
Proof
It is known that $M neq emptyset$. Define
$$
begin{align}
M_1 &:= left{tinmathbb{R} |!: F_X(t) geq frac{1}{2}right}, \
M_2 &:= left{tinmathbb{R} |!: P(X<t) leq frac{1}{2}right}.
end{align}
$$
Then $M = M_1 cap M_2$. It therefore suffices to show that $M_1 = [m_1, infty)$ and that $M_2 = (-infty, m_2]$, for some $m_1, m_2 in mathbb{R}$.
Since $lim_{trightarrow-infty}F_X(t) = 0$, $M_1$ is bounded from below. Since $lim_{trightarrowinfty}F_X(t) = 1$, $M_1$ is an interval that extends to infinity. Hence $M_1 = (m_1,infty)$ or $M_1 = [m_1,infty)$, for some $m_1 in mathbb{R}$. It follows from $F_X$'s right-continuity that $m_1 in M_1$. An analogous argument shows that $M_2 = (-infty,m_2]$ (just verify that $tmapsto P(X<t)$ is left-continuous).
Define a function $f:mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ as follows. For every $c in mathbb{R}$, set
$$
f(c) := Eleft(|X-c|right).
$$
We will begin by showing that $f$ is convex. Let $a, b in mathbb{R}$, and let $t in (0,1)$. Then
$$
begin{align}
fleft(ta+(1-t)bright) &= Eleft(left|X-left(ta+(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&= Eleft(left|left(tX-taright)+left((1-t)X-(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&leq Eleft(left|left(tX-taright)right|+left|left((1-t)X-(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&=Eleft(left|left(tX-taright)right|right)+Eleft(left|left((1-t)X-(1-t)bright)right|right) \
&= t Eleft(|X-a|right) + (1-t) Eleft(|X-b|right) \
&= t f(a) + (1-t) f(b).
end{align}
$$
Since $f$ is convex, then, by Theorem 7.40 of [1] (p. 157), there exists a set $A subseteq mathbb{R}$ such that $mathbb{R}setminus A$ is countable, and such that $f$ is finitely differentiable on $A$. Moreover, letting $m in M$, and letting $x in (-infty, m_1)$, Theorem 7.43 of [1] (p. 158) yields that $f'$ is Lebesgue-integrable on $[x,m] cap A$, and that
$$
f(m) - f(x) = int_{[x,m]cap A} f' dlambda.
$$
Applying Did's answer, we find that $f'leq 0$ on $[x,m]cap A$. Hence $f(m) leq f(x)$. Similar considerations show that, for every $x in (m_2,infty)$, $f(m) leq f(x)$, and also that $f(m) = f(m_1)$ (implying that $f$ is constant on $M$, since $m$ was chosen arbitrarily in $M$).
(The argument of the last paragraph was suggested to me by copper.hat in their answer to a related question of mine.)
Q.E.D.
References
[1] Richard L. Wheeden and Antoni Zygmund. Measure and Integral: An Introduction to Real Analysis. 2nd Ed. 2015. CRC Press. ISBN: 978-1-4987-0290-4.
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:21
Community♦
1
1
answered Oct 18 '16 at 20:10
Evan AadEvan Aad
5,60911854
5,60911854
$begingroup$
Thanks. Now I understand why if $M$ is an interval then any point where $f$ assumes zero derivative is a global minimiser of $f$. However, what if $M$ is a singleton and $f$ is not differentiable there? (Also, could you give the name of the Lebesgue integrability theorem you invoked?)
$endgroup$
– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 3:17
1
$begingroup$
@Vim: 1. A singleton ${s}$ is an interval of the from $[m_1, m_2]$, $m_1leq m_2$ with $m_1:=m_2:=s$. 2. Here's a link to the theorem.
$endgroup$
– Evan Aad
Nov 24 '16 at 9:54
$begingroup$
I was not asking whether a singleton is an interval or not, rather, I was thinking the how to apply the convexity in this case. Anyway it seems already solved to me now: even though $f$ can fail to be differentiable at this point, its left and right derivatives surely exist by convexity, and the left one is $le 0$ and the right one $ge 0$ by the definition of the median.
$endgroup$
– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 10:06
$begingroup$
@Vim: My proof covers the case that $M$ is a singleton.
$endgroup$
– Evan Aad
Nov 24 '16 at 12:33
$begingroup$
indeed. I had been actually mainly reading the link in your answer, which seemed a bit simpler so that I could grasp it with less knowledge basis. The singleton concern arose from there but not from this answer.
$endgroup$
– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 12:40
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thanks. Now I understand why if $M$ is an interval then any point where $f$ assumes zero derivative is a global minimiser of $f$. However, what if $M$ is a singleton and $f$ is not differentiable there? (Also, could you give the name of the Lebesgue integrability theorem you invoked?)
$endgroup$
– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 3:17
1
$begingroup$
@Vim: 1. A singleton ${s}$ is an interval of the from $[m_1, m_2]$, $m_1leq m_2$ with $m_1:=m_2:=s$. 2. Here's a link to the theorem.
$endgroup$
– Evan Aad
Nov 24 '16 at 9:54
$begingroup$
I was not asking whether a singleton is an interval or not, rather, I was thinking the how to apply the convexity in this case. Anyway it seems already solved to me now: even though $f$ can fail to be differentiable at this point, its left and right derivatives surely exist by convexity, and the left one is $le 0$ and the right one $ge 0$ by the definition of the median.
$endgroup$
– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 10:06
$begingroup$
@Vim: My proof covers the case that $M$ is a singleton.
$endgroup$
– Evan Aad
Nov 24 '16 at 12:33
$begingroup$
indeed. I had been actually mainly reading the link in your answer, which seemed a bit simpler so that I could grasp it with less knowledge basis. The singleton concern arose from there but not from this answer.
$endgroup$
– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 12:40
$begingroup$
Thanks. Now I understand why if $M$ is an interval then any point where $f$ assumes zero derivative is a global minimiser of $f$. However, what if $M$ is a singleton and $f$ is not differentiable there? (Also, could you give the name of the Lebesgue integrability theorem you invoked?)
$endgroup$
– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 3:17
$begingroup$
Thanks. Now I understand why if $M$ is an interval then any point where $f$ assumes zero derivative is a global minimiser of $f$. However, what if $M$ is a singleton and $f$ is not differentiable there? (Also, could you give the name of the Lebesgue integrability theorem you invoked?)
$endgroup$
– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 3:17
1
1
$begingroup$
@Vim: 1. A singleton ${s}$ is an interval of the from $[m_1, m_2]$, $m_1leq m_2$ with $m_1:=m_2:=s$. 2. Here's a link to the theorem.
$endgroup$
– Evan Aad
Nov 24 '16 at 9:54
$begingroup$
@Vim: 1. A singleton ${s}$ is an interval of the from $[m_1, m_2]$, $m_1leq m_2$ with $m_1:=m_2:=s$. 2. Here's a link to the theorem.
$endgroup$
– Evan Aad
Nov 24 '16 at 9:54
$begingroup$
I was not asking whether a singleton is an interval or not, rather, I was thinking the how to apply the convexity in this case. Anyway it seems already solved to me now: even though $f$ can fail to be differentiable at this point, its left and right derivatives surely exist by convexity, and the left one is $le 0$ and the right one $ge 0$ by the definition of the median.
$endgroup$
– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 10:06
$begingroup$
I was not asking whether a singleton is an interval or not, rather, I was thinking the how to apply the convexity in this case. Anyway it seems already solved to me now: even though $f$ can fail to be differentiable at this point, its left and right derivatives surely exist by convexity, and the left one is $le 0$ and the right one $ge 0$ by the definition of the median.
$endgroup$
– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 10:06
$begingroup$
@Vim: My proof covers the case that $M$ is a singleton.
$endgroup$
– Evan Aad
Nov 24 '16 at 12:33
$begingroup$
@Vim: My proof covers the case that $M$ is a singleton.
$endgroup$
– Evan Aad
Nov 24 '16 at 12:33
$begingroup$
indeed. I had been actually mainly reading the link in your answer, which seemed a bit simpler so that I could grasp it with less knowledge basis. The singleton concern arose from there but not from this answer.
$endgroup$
– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 12:40
$begingroup$
indeed. I had been actually mainly reading the link in your answer, which seemed a bit simpler so that I could grasp it with less knowledge basis. The singleton concern arose from there but not from this answer.
$endgroup$
– Vim
Nov 24 '16 at 12:40
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $m$ be any median of $X$. Wlog, we can take $m=0$ (consider $X':=X-m$). The aim is to show $E|X-c|ge E|X|$.
Consider the case $cge 0$. It is straightforward to check that $|X-c|-|X|=c$ when $Xle0$, and $|X-c|-|X|ge -c$ when $X>0$.
It follows that
$$
Eleft[(|X-c|-|X|)I(Xle0)right]=cP(Xle0)tag1
$$
and
$$Eleft[(|X-c|-|X|)I(X>0)right]ge-cP(X>0).tag2
$$
Adding (1) and (2) yields
$$
E(|X-c|-|X|)ge cleft[P(Xle0)-P(X>0)right].tag3
$$
The RHS of (3) equals $c[2P(Xle0)-1]$, which is non-negative since $cge0$ and zero is a median of $X$. The case $cle0$ is reduced to the previous one by considering $X':=-X$ and $c':=-c$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $m$ be any median of $X$. Wlog, we can take $m=0$ (consider $X':=X-m$). The aim is to show $E|X-c|ge E|X|$.
Consider the case $cge 0$. It is straightforward to check that $|X-c|-|X|=c$ when $Xle0$, and $|X-c|-|X|ge -c$ when $X>0$.
It follows that
$$
Eleft[(|X-c|-|X|)I(Xle0)right]=cP(Xle0)tag1
$$
and
$$Eleft[(|X-c|-|X|)I(X>0)right]ge-cP(X>0).tag2
$$
Adding (1) and (2) yields
$$
E(|X-c|-|X|)ge cleft[P(Xle0)-P(X>0)right].tag3
$$
The RHS of (3) equals $c[2P(Xle0)-1]$, which is non-negative since $cge0$ and zero is a median of $X$. The case $cle0$ is reduced to the previous one by considering $X':=-X$ and $c':=-c$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $m$ be any median of $X$. Wlog, we can take $m=0$ (consider $X':=X-m$). The aim is to show $E|X-c|ge E|X|$.
Consider the case $cge 0$. It is straightforward to check that $|X-c|-|X|=c$ when $Xle0$, and $|X-c|-|X|ge -c$ when $X>0$.
It follows that
$$
Eleft[(|X-c|-|X|)I(Xle0)right]=cP(Xle0)tag1
$$
and
$$Eleft[(|X-c|-|X|)I(X>0)right]ge-cP(X>0).tag2
$$
Adding (1) and (2) yields
$$
E(|X-c|-|X|)ge cleft[P(Xle0)-P(X>0)right].tag3
$$
The RHS of (3) equals $c[2P(Xle0)-1]$, which is non-negative since $cge0$ and zero is a median of $X$. The case $cle0$ is reduced to the previous one by considering $X':=-X$ and $c':=-c$.
$endgroup$
Let $m$ be any median of $X$. Wlog, we can take $m=0$ (consider $X':=X-m$). The aim is to show $E|X-c|ge E|X|$.
Consider the case $cge 0$. It is straightforward to check that $|X-c|-|X|=c$ when $Xle0$, and $|X-c|-|X|ge -c$ when $X>0$.
It follows that
$$
Eleft[(|X-c|-|X|)I(Xle0)right]=cP(Xle0)tag1
$$
and
$$Eleft[(|X-c|-|X|)I(X>0)right]ge-cP(X>0).tag2
$$
Adding (1) and (2) yields
$$
E(|X-c|-|X|)ge cleft[P(Xle0)-P(X>0)right].tag3
$$
The RHS of (3) equals $c[2P(Xle0)-1]$, which is non-negative since $cge0$ and zero is a median of $X$. The case $cle0$ is reduced to the previous one by considering $X':=-X$ and $c':=-c$.
edited Nov 18 '18 at 13:55
amWhy
1
1
answered May 21 '18 at 18:05
grand_chatgrand_chat
20.3k11326
20.3k11326
add a comment |
add a comment |
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