Why is $W^perp$ the null space of the basis of $W$?












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Let $W$ be a subspace of $mathbb{R}^n$ and ${w_1, w_2, cdots, w_k}$ form a basis for $W$. Form the matrix $M$ that has these basis vectors as successive columns. According to my book, $W^perp$ is the null space of $M^T$? Why is this?



I would have thought that $W^perp$ is the null space $M$ because I believe that the vectors that are orthogonal to $W$ will be mapped to the origin by $M$. Am I wrong on this and/or drawing a false conclusion?










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    $begingroup$


    Let $W$ be a subspace of $mathbb{R}^n$ and ${w_1, w_2, cdots, w_k}$ form a basis for $W$. Form the matrix $M$ that has these basis vectors as successive columns. According to my book, $W^perp$ is the null space of $M^T$? Why is this?



    I would have thought that $W^perp$ is the null space $M$ because I believe that the vectors that are orthogonal to $W$ will be mapped to the origin by $M$. Am I wrong on this and/or drawing a false conclusion?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















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      0


      1



      $begingroup$


      Let $W$ be a subspace of $mathbb{R}^n$ and ${w_1, w_2, cdots, w_k}$ form a basis for $W$. Form the matrix $M$ that has these basis vectors as successive columns. According to my book, $W^perp$ is the null space of $M^T$? Why is this?



      I would have thought that $W^perp$ is the null space $M$ because I believe that the vectors that are orthogonal to $W$ will be mapped to the origin by $M$. Am I wrong on this and/or drawing a false conclusion?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $W$ be a subspace of $mathbb{R}^n$ and ${w_1, w_2, cdots, w_k}$ form a basis for $W$. Form the matrix $M$ that has these basis vectors as successive columns. According to my book, $W^perp$ is the null space of $M^T$? Why is this?



      I would have thought that $W^perp$ is the null space $M$ because I believe that the vectors that are orthogonal to $W$ will be mapped to the origin by $M$. Am I wrong on this and/or drawing a false conclusion?







      linear-algebra






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      asked Dec 18 '18 at 20:50









      K. ClaessonK. Claesson

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          $begingroup$

          Let $x in W^perp$. Then $(M^Tx)_{i} = w_i cdot x = 0 $, since $x$ is orthogonal to $w_i$. This is seen from the definition of transpose and matrix multiplication. Thus $W^{perp} subseteq N(M^T)$. It isn't necessarily the null space for $M$ since matrix multiplication will lead to the dot product of $x$ and the $i^{mathrm{th}}$ row of $M$, which is comprised of the $i^{mathrm{th}}$ entries of each basis vector, which doesn't really tell us anything about the value.



          Showing reverse inclusion: If $y in N(M^T)$, then $w_i cdot y = 0$ for all $i$. Thus, $N(M^T) subseteq W^perp$, and so we have $N(M^T) =W^perp$.






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            $begingroup$

            Let $x in W^perp$. Then $(M^Tx)_{i} = w_i cdot x = 0 $, since $x$ is orthogonal to $w_i$. This is seen from the definition of transpose and matrix multiplication. Thus $W^{perp} subseteq N(M^T)$. It isn't necessarily the null space for $M$ since matrix multiplication will lead to the dot product of $x$ and the $i^{mathrm{th}}$ row of $M$, which is comprised of the $i^{mathrm{th}}$ entries of each basis vector, which doesn't really tell us anything about the value.



            Showing reverse inclusion: If $y in N(M^T)$, then $w_i cdot y = 0$ for all $i$. Thus, $N(M^T) subseteq W^perp$, and so we have $N(M^T) =W^perp$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









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              1












              $begingroup$

              Let $x in W^perp$. Then $(M^Tx)_{i} = w_i cdot x = 0 $, since $x$ is orthogonal to $w_i$. This is seen from the definition of transpose and matrix multiplication. Thus $W^{perp} subseteq N(M^T)$. It isn't necessarily the null space for $M$ since matrix multiplication will lead to the dot product of $x$ and the $i^{mathrm{th}}$ row of $M$, which is comprised of the $i^{mathrm{th}}$ entries of each basis vector, which doesn't really tell us anything about the value.



              Showing reverse inclusion: If $y in N(M^T)$, then $w_i cdot y = 0$ for all $i$. Thus, $N(M^T) subseteq W^perp$, and so we have $N(M^T) =W^perp$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












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                1





                $begingroup$

                Let $x in W^perp$. Then $(M^Tx)_{i} = w_i cdot x = 0 $, since $x$ is orthogonal to $w_i$. This is seen from the definition of transpose and matrix multiplication. Thus $W^{perp} subseteq N(M^T)$. It isn't necessarily the null space for $M$ since matrix multiplication will lead to the dot product of $x$ and the $i^{mathrm{th}}$ row of $M$, which is comprised of the $i^{mathrm{th}}$ entries of each basis vector, which doesn't really tell us anything about the value.



                Showing reverse inclusion: If $y in N(M^T)$, then $w_i cdot y = 0$ for all $i$. Thus, $N(M^T) subseteq W^perp$, and so we have $N(M^T) =W^perp$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Let $x in W^perp$. Then $(M^Tx)_{i} = w_i cdot x = 0 $, since $x$ is orthogonal to $w_i$. This is seen from the definition of transpose and matrix multiplication. Thus $W^{perp} subseteq N(M^T)$. It isn't necessarily the null space for $M$ since matrix multiplication will lead to the dot product of $x$ and the $i^{mathrm{th}}$ row of $M$, which is comprised of the $i^{mathrm{th}}$ entries of each basis vector, which doesn't really tell us anything about the value.



                Showing reverse inclusion: If $y in N(M^T)$, then $w_i cdot y = 0$ for all $i$. Thus, $N(M^T) subseteq W^perp$, and so we have $N(M^T) =W^perp$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












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                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 18 '18 at 21:09









                Anthony TerAnthony Ter

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