Does negative correlation survive monotone transformation?











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Let $X$ and $Y$ be two non-negative random variables and be negative correlated, i.e.,
$$mathbb{E}[XY] leq mathbb{E}[X]mathbb{E}[Y].$$
Let $h(cdot)$ and $g(cdot)$ be two non-negative, monotone increasing functions. Do we have
$h(X)$ and $g(Y)$ being negative correlated as well? Intuitively this quite makes sense to me..










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  • Counterexample: Consider the discrete uniform distribution on ${(0,1),(0.9,0),(1,0)}$, and let $h$ be the monotone function that maps ${0,0.9,1}$ to ${0,0.1,1}$.
    – Rahul
    Nov 18 at 6:56












  • @Rahul Thanks. Isn't it still being negative correlated after the transformation, because the expectation of the product is still zero?
    – Stupid_Guy
    Nov 18 at 16:35










  • Whoops, typo: the third point should be $(1,1)$.
    – Rahul
    Nov 18 at 16:40












  • @Rahul Hi Rahul, your ideas make sense to me. Thanks so much. However, we may still need a little bit of work as after the transformation they are still negative correlated, because $h(Y) = Y$ thus $Cov(h(X),h(Y)) = -frac{2.3}{3}$. I'll think more about this. Many thanks.
    – Stupid_Guy
    Nov 18 at 16:48










  • One of us must be making a mistake. I get covariances $-0.8/9$ and $0.8/9$ before and after transformation by $h$ respectively. $E[XY]=1/3$ and $E[Y]=2/3$ in both cases, but $E[X]$ changes from $1.9/3$ to $1.1/3$. It's also easy to visualize the change in correlation if you plot the data and consider the best fitting line.
    – Rahul
    Nov 19 at 5:29

















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Let $X$ and $Y$ be two non-negative random variables and be negative correlated, i.e.,
$$mathbb{E}[XY] leq mathbb{E}[X]mathbb{E}[Y].$$
Let $h(cdot)$ and $g(cdot)$ be two non-negative, monotone increasing functions. Do we have
$h(X)$ and $g(Y)$ being negative correlated as well? Intuitively this quite makes sense to me..










share|cite|improve this question






















  • Counterexample: Consider the discrete uniform distribution on ${(0,1),(0.9,0),(1,0)}$, and let $h$ be the monotone function that maps ${0,0.9,1}$ to ${0,0.1,1}$.
    – Rahul
    Nov 18 at 6:56












  • @Rahul Thanks. Isn't it still being negative correlated after the transformation, because the expectation of the product is still zero?
    – Stupid_Guy
    Nov 18 at 16:35










  • Whoops, typo: the third point should be $(1,1)$.
    – Rahul
    Nov 18 at 16:40












  • @Rahul Hi Rahul, your ideas make sense to me. Thanks so much. However, we may still need a little bit of work as after the transformation they are still negative correlated, because $h(Y) = Y$ thus $Cov(h(X),h(Y)) = -frac{2.3}{3}$. I'll think more about this. Many thanks.
    – Stupid_Guy
    Nov 18 at 16:48










  • One of us must be making a mistake. I get covariances $-0.8/9$ and $0.8/9$ before and after transformation by $h$ respectively. $E[XY]=1/3$ and $E[Y]=2/3$ in both cases, but $E[X]$ changes from $1.9/3$ to $1.1/3$. It's also easy to visualize the change in correlation if you plot the data and consider the best fitting line.
    – Rahul
    Nov 19 at 5:29















up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Let $X$ and $Y$ be two non-negative random variables and be negative correlated, i.e.,
$$mathbb{E}[XY] leq mathbb{E}[X]mathbb{E}[Y].$$
Let $h(cdot)$ and $g(cdot)$ be two non-negative, monotone increasing functions. Do we have
$h(X)$ and $g(Y)$ being negative correlated as well? Intuitively this quite makes sense to me..










share|cite|improve this question













Let $X$ and $Y$ be two non-negative random variables and be negative correlated, i.e.,
$$mathbb{E}[XY] leq mathbb{E}[X]mathbb{E}[Y].$$
Let $h(cdot)$ and $g(cdot)$ be two non-negative, monotone increasing functions. Do we have
$h(X)$ and $g(Y)$ being negative correlated as well? Intuitively this quite makes sense to me..







probability probability-theory correlation expected-value






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asked Nov 18 at 5:23









Stupid_Guy

547317




547317












  • Counterexample: Consider the discrete uniform distribution on ${(0,1),(0.9,0),(1,0)}$, and let $h$ be the monotone function that maps ${0,0.9,1}$ to ${0,0.1,1}$.
    – Rahul
    Nov 18 at 6:56












  • @Rahul Thanks. Isn't it still being negative correlated after the transformation, because the expectation of the product is still zero?
    – Stupid_Guy
    Nov 18 at 16:35










  • Whoops, typo: the third point should be $(1,1)$.
    – Rahul
    Nov 18 at 16:40












  • @Rahul Hi Rahul, your ideas make sense to me. Thanks so much. However, we may still need a little bit of work as after the transformation they are still negative correlated, because $h(Y) = Y$ thus $Cov(h(X),h(Y)) = -frac{2.3}{3}$. I'll think more about this. Many thanks.
    – Stupid_Guy
    Nov 18 at 16:48










  • One of us must be making a mistake. I get covariances $-0.8/9$ and $0.8/9$ before and after transformation by $h$ respectively. $E[XY]=1/3$ and $E[Y]=2/3$ in both cases, but $E[X]$ changes from $1.9/3$ to $1.1/3$. It's also easy to visualize the change in correlation if you plot the data and consider the best fitting line.
    – Rahul
    Nov 19 at 5:29




















  • Counterexample: Consider the discrete uniform distribution on ${(0,1),(0.9,0),(1,0)}$, and let $h$ be the monotone function that maps ${0,0.9,1}$ to ${0,0.1,1}$.
    – Rahul
    Nov 18 at 6:56












  • @Rahul Thanks. Isn't it still being negative correlated after the transformation, because the expectation of the product is still zero?
    – Stupid_Guy
    Nov 18 at 16:35










  • Whoops, typo: the third point should be $(1,1)$.
    – Rahul
    Nov 18 at 16:40












  • @Rahul Hi Rahul, your ideas make sense to me. Thanks so much. However, we may still need a little bit of work as after the transformation they are still negative correlated, because $h(Y) = Y$ thus $Cov(h(X),h(Y)) = -frac{2.3}{3}$. I'll think more about this. Many thanks.
    – Stupid_Guy
    Nov 18 at 16:48










  • One of us must be making a mistake. I get covariances $-0.8/9$ and $0.8/9$ before and after transformation by $h$ respectively. $E[XY]=1/3$ and $E[Y]=2/3$ in both cases, but $E[X]$ changes from $1.9/3$ to $1.1/3$. It's also easy to visualize the change in correlation if you plot the data and consider the best fitting line.
    – Rahul
    Nov 19 at 5:29


















Counterexample: Consider the discrete uniform distribution on ${(0,1),(0.9,0),(1,0)}$, and let $h$ be the monotone function that maps ${0,0.9,1}$ to ${0,0.1,1}$.
– Rahul
Nov 18 at 6:56






Counterexample: Consider the discrete uniform distribution on ${(0,1),(0.9,0),(1,0)}$, and let $h$ be the monotone function that maps ${0,0.9,1}$ to ${0,0.1,1}$.
– Rahul
Nov 18 at 6:56














@Rahul Thanks. Isn't it still being negative correlated after the transformation, because the expectation of the product is still zero?
– Stupid_Guy
Nov 18 at 16:35




@Rahul Thanks. Isn't it still being negative correlated after the transformation, because the expectation of the product is still zero?
– Stupid_Guy
Nov 18 at 16:35












Whoops, typo: the third point should be $(1,1)$.
– Rahul
Nov 18 at 16:40






Whoops, typo: the third point should be $(1,1)$.
– Rahul
Nov 18 at 16:40














@Rahul Hi Rahul, your ideas make sense to me. Thanks so much. However, we may still need a little bit of work as after the transformation they are still negative correlated, because $h(Y) = Y$ thus $Cov(h(X),h(Y)) = -frac{2.3}{3}$. I'll think more about this. Many thanks.
– Stupid_Guy
Nov 18 at 16:48




@Rahul Hi Rahul, your ideas make sense to me. Thanks so much. However, we may still need a little bit of work as after the transformation they are still negative correlated, because $h(Y) = Y$ thus $Cov(h(X),h(Y)) = -frac{2.3}{3}$. I'll think more about this. Many thanks.
– Stupid_Guy
Nov 18 at 16:48












One of us must be making a mistake. I get covariances $-0.8/9$ and $0.8/9$ before and after transformation by $h$ respectively. $E[XY]=1/3$ and $E[Y]=2/3$ in both cases, but $E[X]$ changes from $1.9/3$ to $1.1/3$. It's also easy to visualize the change in correlation if you plot the data and consider the best fitting line.
– Rahul
Nov 19 at 5:29






One of us must be making a mistake. I get covariances $-0.8/9$ and $0.8/9$ before and after transformation by $h$ respectively. $E[XY]=1/3$ and $E[Y]=2/3$ in both cases, but $E[X]$ changes from $1.9/3$ to $1.1/3$. It's also easy to visualize the change in correlation if you plot the data and consider the best fitting line.
– Rahul
Nov 19 at 5:29

















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