Substitutability in First-Order Logic











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Here is a definition for substitutability found in a PDF of logic notes by Eric Pacuit:



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I am more concerned with the part of the definition squared in red. My question is: Given $(forall y) psi$, does this mean that, since $y$ does not occur free in $(forall y) psi$, is $tau$ substitutable for $y$ in $(forall y) psi$?










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    Yes, because the term substitutable means that performing the operation we "cause no troubles". In that case, the operation is allowed simply because it does not change the original formula.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Nov 18 at 12:49










  • @MauroALLEGRANZA I found another definition for substitutability from the textbook by Arindama Singh: $y$ is free for $x$ in $phi$ iff $x$ does not occur free within the scope of any $forall y$ or $exists y$. Is the negation: $y$ is not free for $x$ in $phi$ iff $x$ occurs free within the scope of any $forall y$ or $exists y$?
    – numericalorange
    Nov 19 at 4:53















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Here is a definition for substitutability found in a PDF of logic notes by Eric Pacuit:



enter image description here



I am more concerned with the part of the definition squared in red. My question is: Given $(forall y) psi$, does this mean that, since $y$ does not occur free in $(forall y) psi$, is $tau$ substitutable for $y$ in $(forall y) psi$?










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    Yes, because the term substitutable means that performing the operation we "cause no troubles". In that case, the operation is allowed simply because it does not change the original formula.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Nov 18 at 12:49










  • @MauroALLEGRANZA I found another definition for substitutability from the textbook by Arindama Singh: $y$ is free for $x$ in $phi$ iff $x$ does not occur free within the scope of any $forall y$ or $exists y$. Is the negation: $y$ is not free for $x$ in $phi$ iff $x$ occurs free within the scope of any $forall y$ or $exists y$?
    – numericalorange
    Nov 19 at 4:53













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Here is a definition for substitutability found in a PDF of logic notes by Eric Pacuit:



enter image description here



I am more concerned with the part of the definition squared in red. My question is: Given $(forall y) psi$, does this mean that, since $y$ does not occur free in $(forall y) psi$, is $tau$ substitutable for $y$ in $(forall y) psi$?










share|cite|improve this question













Here is a definition for substitutability found in a PDF of logic notes by Eric Pacuit:



enter image description here



I am more concerned with the part of the definition squared in red. My question is: Given $(forall y) psi$, does this mean that, since $y$ does not occur free in $(forall y) psi$, is $tau$ substitutable for $y$ in $(forall y) psi$?







logic first-order-logic substitution






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asked Nov 18 at 4:42









numericalorange

1,619311




1,619311








  • 1




    Yes, because the term substitutable means that performing the operation we "cause no troubles". In that case, the operation is allowed simply because it does not change the original formula.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Nov 18 at 12:49










  • @MauroALLEGRANZA I found another definition for substitutability from the textbook by Arindama Singh: $y$ is free for $x$ in $phi$ iff $x$ does not occur free within the scope of any $forall y$ or $exists y$. Is the negation: $y$ is not free for $x$ in $phi$ iff $x$ occurs free within the scope of any $forall y$ or $exists y$?
    – numericalorange
    Nov 19 at 4:53














  • 1




    Yes, because the term substitutable means that performing the operation we "cause no troubles". In that case, the operation is allowed simply because it does not change the original formula.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Nov 18 at 12:49










  • @MauroALLEGRANZA I found another definition for substitutability from the textbook by Arindama Singh: $y$ is free for $x$ in $phi$ iff $x$ does not occur free within the scope of any $forall y$ or $exists y$. Is the negation: $y$ is not free for $x$ in $phi$ iff $x$ occurs free within the scope of any $forall y$ or $exists y$?
    – numericalorange
    Nov 19 at 4:53








1




1




Yes, because the term substitutable means that performing the operation we "cause no troubles". In that case, the operation is allowed simply because it does not change the original formula.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Nov 18 at 12:49




Yes, because the term substitutable means that performing the operation we "cause no troubles". In that case, the operation is allowed simply because it does not change the original formula.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Nov 18 at 12:49












@MauroALLEGRANZA I found another definition for substitutability from the textbook by Arindama Singh: $y$ is free for $x$ in $phi$ iff $x$ does not occur free within the scope of any $forall y$ or $exists y$. Is the negation: $y$ is not free for $x$ in $phi$ iff $x$ occurs free within the scope of any $forall y$ or $exists y$?
– numericalorange
Nov 19 at 4:53




@MauroALLEGRANZA I found another definition for substitutability from the textbook by Arindama Singh: $y$ is free for $x$ in $phi$ iff $x$ does not occur free within the scope of any $forall y$ or $exists y$. Is the negation: $y$ is not free for $x$ in $phi$ iff $x$ occurs free within the scope of any $forall y$ or $exists y$?
– numericalorange
Nov 19 at 4:53










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By definition, the answer is yes, $tau$ is substitutable for $y$ in $(forall y)phi$. This happens because there is nothing that to substitute and, therefore, you not change the original formula.






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    By definition, the answer is yes, $tau$ is substitutable for $y$ in $(forall y)phi$. This happens because there is nothing that to substitute and, therefore, you not change the original formula.






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      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted










      By definition, the answer is yes, $tau$ is substitutable for $y$ in $(forall y)phi$. This happens because there is nothing that to substitute and, therefore, you not change the original formula.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        1
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        accepted







        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted






        By definition, the answer is yes, $tau$ is substitutable for $y$ in $(forall y)phi$. This happens because there is nothing that to substitute and, therefore, you not change the original formula.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        By definition, the answer is yes, $tau$ is substitutable for $y$ in $(forall y)phi$. This happens because there is nothing that to substitute and, therefore, you not change the original formula.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 18 at 5:38









        Gödel

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